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EOC Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Water sticks well to many materials. What term relates to this property of water?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

density

d)

surface tension

2.

What is the term for water's ability to defy gravity and climb up a tube?

a)

Capillary Action

b)

Specific Heat

c)

Universal Solvent

d)

Magic

3.
All living things are made up of...
a)
cells
b)
cell tissues
c)
organ
d)
organ systems
4.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
5.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular organism
b)
multicellular organism
6.
Animal, fungi, plant, and protista cells are all examples of which type of cell?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
7.
These cells have DNA surrounded by a nuclear membrane...
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Neither
d)
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
8.
What is multicellular? 
a)
one cell 
b)
no cells 
c)
many cells 
d)
no nucleus 
9.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

To control what comes in and out of the cell

b)

To break down food inside the cell

c)

to serve as a barrier

d)

to eat the cells food

10.

Which organelle produces the energy a cell needs to carry out its function

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

11.

Chromatin is

a)

tiny strands inside the nucleus that contain the instructions for directing the cell's function

b)

found inside the nucleus

c)

needed to make proteins

12.

Which of the following elements are found in all macromolecules? (Select all that apply).

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
14.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
15.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
16.
What process occurs when WATER diffuses across a membrane?
a)
endocytosis
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
nuclear fission 
17.
When particles move from areas of high concentration to areas less concentrated, this has taken place.
a)
diffusion
b)
mitosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
photosynthesis
18.
What does selectively-permeable mean?
a)
The cell controls what passes in and out of the cell
b)
Nothing gets through
c)
The cell lets only large substances through
19.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

To release energy

b)

To create glucose

c)

To grow

d)

To get oxygen for respiration

20.

Which of these is the correct equation for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 --> 6CO2 + 6H2O

b)

6O2 + 6CO2 --> C6H12O6 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 12H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O --> O2 + C6H12O6

21.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

Oxygen and Energy

b)

Carbon Dioxide and Glucose

c)

Glucose and Oxygen

d)

Oxygen and Water

22.

Main products of the Calvin Cycle

a)

Oxygen, NADP+, ADP

b)

Glucose, CO2, ADP

c)

ADP, NADP+, Glucose

d)

ATP, NADPH, Oxygen

23.
What is the main purpose of the light dependent reactions?
a)
To provide the energy for the calvin cycle
b)
To capture energy and make sugar
c)
To reflect green light
d)
To make sugars
24.
This is referred to as the energy currency of the cell
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleus
25.

Glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid during which process

a)
Krebs cycle
b)
Calvin cycle
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Photosynthesis
26.
Aerobic respiration is different from anaerobic respiration in that aerobic respiration needs...
a)
chlorophyll
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
27.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
28.

Which of the following do at least one stage of cellular respiration

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria

d)

fungi

29.

What is a population?

a)

One individual member of a species

b)

a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same area

c)

a community of different species and their environment

30.

Which definition best fits the term BIOTIC?

a)

The study of the interactions between animals and their environment

b)

Factors in the environment that are considered not alive

c)

Factors in the environment that are considered living or the remains of living things

31.

One species benefits, the other is unaffected

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

32.

Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers to bee hives. The badgers then expose the hives and feed on the honey first. Then, the honey guide birds eat as well.

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

33.
An organism that helps to recycle nutrients within an ecosystem by eating dead or decaying organisms is a:
a)

Predator

b)

Autotroph

c)

Producer

d)

Decomposer

34.

The ecological role an organism performs in their specific environment is considered the organism's...

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Niche

35.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
36.
What are plants called in a food chain?
a)

Producers /Autotrophs

b)

Consumers /Heterotrophs

c)

Decomposers

d)

Scavengers

37.

What happens to the amount of available energy in the pyramid as it moves up through the different levels?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it remains the same

38.
An area where an organism finds food, shelter and water in a specific arrangement
a)
niche
b)
biosphere
c)
biome
d)
habitat
39.

Genetic information is passed from the nucleus to the cytoplasm through

a)

RNA

b)

DNA

c)

Proteins

d)

None of the above

40.

What are the TWO components of the DNA backbone?

a)

nucleotide and phosphate group

b)

deoxyribose sugar and nitrogen base

c)

nitrogen base and nucleotide

d)

phosphate group and deoxyribose sugar

41.

Which best defines a gene?

a)

A gene is a unit of protein that contains the genetic code.

b)

A gene is a unit of DNA that contains code for the creation of one protein.

c)

A gene is a unit of DNA that contains the code for the creation of amino acids.

d)

None of the above

42.

Copying of DNA to RNA is known as

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

43.

All are types of RNA EXCEPT

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

pRNA

44.

Which base-pair rules apply to the double helix structure?

a)

A-G, C-T

b)

A-T, C-G

c)

A-C, G-T

45.

Which organelle makes proteins?

a)

the ribosome

b)

the mitochondria

c)

the Golgi apparatus

d)

the nucleus

46.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
47.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
48.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
49.

Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?

a)

Yy

b)

yY

c)

yy

d)

YY

50.

B=Brown fur

b=tan fur

What percent of the offspring would be tan when you cross BbxBb?

a)

75%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

51.

Only the strong will survive refers to

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Dichotomous key

d)

Homologous evolution

52.

vestigial structures, like the tail bone, are

a)

No longer used

b)

Serve an important role in our body

c)

allow us to connect with animals

d)

serve multi-purposes

53.

Structures that serve a similar purpose but the organisms do not share ancestors are

a)

Homologous

b)

Analogous

c)

Vestigial

d)

Dichotomous

54.

Structures from the same ancestors but have changed over time are

a)

homologous

b)

analogous

c)

Vestigial

d)

Dichotomous

55.

When Darwin was studying the finches and noticed the different types of beaks, this was an example of ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
genetic variation
genetic compounds
Nucleotides
Thiamine
56.

​ (a)   evolution is when species from a similar ancestor have their sturctures evolve differently to adapt to their surroundings, like horse legs and people legs.

Choose from the below words
Divergent
convergent
phenotype
dichotomous
57.

I have cell walls

I am an autotroph

I am multicellular

What am I?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Eubacteria

d)

Protist

58.

I have no cell walls

I am eukaryotic

I reproduce sexually

I am multicellular

What kingdom do I belong to?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Protist

d)

Fungi

59.

What is the correct order?

a)

Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

b)

Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

c)

Kingdom, Domain, Order, Class, Family, Phylum, Genus, Species

d)

Domain, Kingdom, Family, Class, Order, Genus, Phylum, Species

60.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
61.

The end of mitosis results in  ____ to each other.

a)

2 cells that are identical

b)

4 cells that are identical

c)

2 cells that are not identical

d)

4 cells that are not identical

62.
What are chromosomes?
a)
different versions of genes
b)
condensed DNA 
c)
uncoiled DNA
63.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which genes are exchanged

64.

During meiosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

65.

During mitosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

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