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PS5/IPA5 Quiz 1-2

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Quiz 1: Which is correct regarding Abilify?

a)

Associated with mood changes (especially in geriatric)

b)

Can cause both sedation AND insomnia

c)

Can lead to psychosis

d)

Can lead to weight gain

e)

Should avoid alcohol while taking (additive CNS depression)

2.
Quiz 1: Which of the following have been associated with moderate to high risk of QT prolongation?
a)
Olanzapine
b)
Quetiapine
c)
Risperidone
d)
Ziprasidone
e)
Ropinirole
3.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are associated with insomnia / difficulty sleeping?

a)

Atomoxetine

b)

Lisdexamfetamine

c)

Lithium

d)

Lurasidone

e)

Methylphenidate

4.

Quiz 1: Select side effects commonly associated with Strattera

a)

Constipation

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Headache

d)

Loss of appetite

e)

Sensation of cold

5.

Quiz 1: What is the mechanism of action for atomoxetine?

a)

Alpha2 agonist

b)

CNS stimulant

c)

Dopamine agonist

d)

NE reuptake inhibitor

e)

SSRI

6.

Quiz 1: What would aripiprazole be prescribed for?

a)

Autistic disorders with irratibility

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Generalized anxiety disorders

d)

Major depressive disorder (augmentation)

e)

Schizophrenia

7.

Quiz 1: Select all formulations aripiprazole is available in (in the US)

a)

Injectable (IM)

b)

Oral

c)

Rectal

d)

Transdermal

8.
Quiz 1: Which of the following require renal dose adjustments?
a)
Aripiprazole
b)
Lisdexamfetamine
c)
Lithium
d)
Pramipexole
e)
Risperidone
9.

Quiz 1: Which of the following require renal dose adjustments?

a)

Atomoxetine

b)

Benztropine

c)

Carbidopa/levodopa

d)

Quetiapine

e)

Ropinirole

10.

Quiz 1: Which of the following require hepatic dose adjustments?

a)

Dexmethylphenidate

b)

Lurasidone

c)

Pramipexole

d)

Quetiapine

e)

Risperidone

11.
Quiz 1: Which of the following are classified as atypical antipsychotic agents?
a)
Aripiprazole
b)
Olanzapine
c)
Quetiapine
d)
Risperidone
e)
Ropinirole
12.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are classified as atypical antipsychotic agents?

a)

Atomoxetine

b)

Lisdexamfetamine

c)

Lithium

d)

Lurasidone

e)

Ziprasidone

13.

Quiz 1: What are some common precautions for atyipcal antipsychotic agents?

a)

Alcohol interaction

b)

Metabolic effects such as hyperglycemia

c)

Movement disorders

d)

Overheating

e)

Severe sedation

14.

Quiz 1: This side effect is particularly troublesome with Zyprexa, relative to others in its pharmacological class:

a)

Depression

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Psycosis / agitation

d)

Weight gain / metabolic issues

15.

Quiz 1: Which classes of drugs can interact with quetiapine?

a)

Antihypertensives

b)

CNS depressants

c)

CYP3A4 substrates

d)

NSAIDs

16.

Quiz 1: What is the mechanism of action for benztropine?

a)

Alpha 2 agonist

b)

Dopamine agonist

c)

Muscarinic antagonist (anticholinergic)

d)

NE reuptake inhibitor

17.

Quiz 1: What would be an appropriate indication for Cogentin?

a)

ADHD

b)

Bipolar disorder

c)

Mania

d)

Parkinson's Disease

18.

Quiz 1: Why are carbidopa and levodopa combined to treat Parkinson's Disease?

a)

Carbidopa converts to dopamine and levodopa prevents its deactivation

b)

Carbidopa is an agonist for D1 receptors and levodopa is an agonist for D2 receptors

c)

Carbidopa prevents the hepatic metabolism of levodopa (which converts to dopamine in the brain)

d)

Levodopa converts to dopamine and carbidopa prevents its deactivation

19.

Quiz 1: What are some notable side effects of Sinemet?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Nausea / vomiting

c)

Orthostatic hypotension

d)

Sedation

20.

Quiz 1: Which of the following works by stimulating alpha 2 receptors?

a)

Guanfacine

b)

Lisdexamfetamine

c)

Lurasidone

d)

Methylphenidate

e)

Pramipexole

21.

Quiz 1: What is the consequence of alpha 2 receptor agonism?

a)

GABA activation

b)

Increase in NE activity

c)

Increase in sympathetic outflow

d)

Reduction in serotonin activity

e)

Reduction in sympathetic outflow

22.

Quiz 1: What is an important side effect that patients starting on Intuniv should be counseled on?

a)

Agitation

b)

Chest pain

c)

Dizziness when standing up

d)

Slower heart rate

e)

Somnolence / drowsiness

23.

Quiz 1: Which of the following would interact with guanfacine and prompt therapy modification?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

CNS depressants

c)

CYP3A4 substrates

d)

SSRIs

24.

Quiz 1: Which of the following medications are indicated in ADHD?

a)

Focalin

b)

Intuniv

c)

Latuda

d)

Ritalin

e)

Sinemet

25.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is a positively charged element, similar to K+ and Na+, which is used in bipolar disorders?

a)

Cogentin

b)

Eskalith

c)

Requip

d)

Vyvanse

e)

Zyprexa

26.

Quiz 1: What best describes the relationship of lithium to sodium?

a)

Dependent (lithium depends on presence of sodium for efficacy)

b)

Directly related (when one level increases, the other increases)

c)

Inversely related (when one level increases, the other level decreases)

d)

Not related

27.

Quiz 1: What are some notable side effects of lithium, which should be communicated to the patient?

a)

GI side effects (dyspepsia, N/V, diarrhea)

b)

Hand tremor

c)

Increased thirst

d)

Weight gain

e)

Feeling of fullness

28.

Quiz 1: What is an important side effect to counsel patients on when starting lurasidone and some others in the same class?

a)

Aphasia

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Incontinence

d)

Mood changes (particularly suicidal ideation)

e)

Severe nausea and vomiting

29.

Quiz 1: How can olanzapine be administered?

a)

Oral

b)

Parenteral (IM)

c)

Rectal

d)

Transdermal gel

e)

Transdermal patch

30.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is indicated in bipolar disorder?

a)

Abilify

b)

Geodon

c)

Seroquel

d)

Strattera

e)

Zyprexa

31.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is indicated in bipolar disorder?

a)

Focalin

b)

Intuniv

c)

Lithobid

d)

Risperdal

e)

Ritalin

32.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is indicated in Parkinson's Disease AND restless leg syndrome?

a)

Benztropine

b)

Carbidopa/levodopa

c)

Guanfacine

d)

Pramipexole

e)

Ropinirole

33.

Quiz 1: When a patient is started on quetiapine, what would be important to mention?

a)

May affect your mood (let doctor know if troublesome)

b)

May cause dizziness (rise slowly)

c)

May cause sedation (use caution until used to effects)

d)

May cause significant insomnia

e)

May cause weight gain

34.

Quiz 1: Which is can be administered parenterally, as well as by mouth?

a)

Lithium

b)

Quetiapine

c)

Risperidone

d)

Ziprasidone

35.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are true regarding lisdexamfetamine?

a)

Can divide the chewable tablets in half if needed

b)

Can open capsules to sprinkle on food

c)

Take earlier in day to avoid insomnia

d)

Take on empty stomach

36.

Quiz 1: Select all of the FDA-approved indications for Cogentin

a)

Bipolar disorder

b)

Drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Schizophrenia

37.

Quiz 1: Patients starting Ritalin should be provided counseling regarding which side effects?

a)

Difficulty sleeping

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Increased sweating (hyperhidrosis)

d)

Reduced appetite

38.

Quiz 1: Which of the following correctly describe lithium drug interactions?

a)

ACEI / ARBs can increase lithium toxicity

b)

Diuretics can increase lithium toxicity

c)

Lithium can lead to hyperkalemia when combined with potassium-sparing diuretics

d)

NSAIDs can increase lithium toxicity

39.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is a potential central nervous system effect of carbidopa/levodopa therapy?

a)

Insomnia due to dopamine depletion

b)

Memory loss from anticholinergic activity

c)

Sedation from GABA activation

d)

Vivid dreams or hallucinations

40.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is a dopamine agonist?

a)

Geodon

b)

Requip

c)

Zyprexa

d)

Risperdal

e)

Vyvanse

41.

Quiz 1: Which has been associated with severe cutaneous reactions such as DRESS or Stevens-Johnson?

a)

Aripiprazole

b)

Lithium

c)

Quetiapine

d)

Risperidone

e)

Ziprasidone

42.

Quiz 2: What is bupropion FDA-approved to treat?

a)

ADHD

b)

Anorexia

c)

Anxiety

d)

Major depression

e)

Smoking cessation

43.

Quiz 2: What is a dose-related severe side effect to Wellbutrin?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Seizure

d)

Stroke

44.

Quiz 2: What time of day should bupropion be administered, generally?

a)

30 min after meals

b)

After 5pm to avoid sedation

c)

Before 5pm to avoid insomnia

d)

Before meals on empty stomach

45.

Quiz 2: What might be a consequence of increased levels of bupropion in a patient with either renal or hepatic impairment?

a)

Increase risk of seizures

b)

Incresaed sedation

c)

Increased risk of depression

d)

None (does not require renal or hepatic dose adjustments)

46.

Quiz 2: Which of the folowing correctly describes amitriptyline?

a)

Associated with sedation and cognitive difficulties

b)

Antihistimine and anticholinergic properties

c)

Associated with diarrhea and hyperactivity

d)

Indicated for depression

e)

Tricycline antidepressant

47.

Quiz 2: Which of the following are SSRIs?

a)

Celexa

b)

Effexor

c)

Lexapro

d)

Pamelor

e)

Prozac

48.

Quiz 2: Which of the following are SSRIs?

a)

Cymbalta

b)

Paxil

c)

Pristiq

d)

Zoloft

e)

Zyban

49.

Quiz 2: What is important to counsel to patients on SSRIs?

a)

Always take on empty stomach and sit upright for 30 minutes

b)

Can take about 4-6 weeks for full effect

c)

May affect mood (i.e. suicidal ideations)

d)

Side effects usually resolve after a couple of weeks

e)

Some OTC/herbal products such as St. John's Wort and "DM" can interact and cause serotonin syndrome

50.

Quiz 2: Which of the following have been associated with QT prolongation, particularly due to drug interactions?

a)

Citalopram

b)

Escitalopram

c)

Modafinil

d)

Nortriptyline

e)

Venlafaxine

51.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are correct statements regarding Pristiq?
a)
Major active metabolite of velafaxine
b)
S-enantiomer of citalopram
c)
5HT/NE reuptake inhibitor
d)
SSRI
e)
DA reuptake inhibitor
52.
Quiz 2: Which of the following require both renal and hepatic adjustments?
a)
Bupropion
b)
Sertraline
c)
Fluoxetine
d)
Temazepam
e)

Zolpidem

53.
Quiz 2: Which antidepressants have anticholinergic-like side effects such as dry mouth?
a)
Paxil
b)
Elavil
c)
Pamelor
d)
Cymbalta
e)
Pristiq
54.
Quiz 2: Which of the following duloxetine FDA-approved to treat?
a)
Depression
b)
Diabetic neuropathy
c)
Fibromyalgia
d)
Generalized anxiety
e)

Chronic musculoskeletal pain (i.e. OA)

55.
Quiz 2: Which of the following have CYP-related drug interactions?
a)
Duloxetine
b)
Modafanil
c)
Temazepam
d)
Citalopram
e)
Trazodone
56.

Quiz 2: Which of the following are CORRECT statements regarding Lexapro?

a)
Major active metabolite of velafaxine
b)
S-enantiomer of citalopram
c)
Associated with QT prolongation
d)
Should not give with NSAIDs (increased risk of bleeding)
e)

Contraindicated with benzodiazepines (increased risk of respiratory depression)

57.
Quiz 2: Which are strong precautions regarding Lunesta use in geriatric patients?
a)
Daytime somnolence
b)
Imbalance / falls
c)
Dehydration
d)
Constipation
e)
Glaucoma exacerbation
58.
Quiz 2: Which of the following is a benzodiazepine?
a)
Restoril
b)
Lunesta
c)
Remeron
d)
Ambien
e)
Pamelor
59.
Quiz 2: When patients take eszopiclone, what should they be counseled on with regards to food?
a)
Avoid taking after a high-fat meal
b)
Separate from dairy
c)
Take on an empty stomach
d)
Take with meals
60.
Quiz 2: Which of the following has a relatively long half life, allowing it to be administered once weekly for depression?
a)
Fluoxetine
b)
Paroxetine
c)
Temazepam
d)
Venlafaxine
e)
Citalopram
61.
Quiz 2: Linezolid has MAOI properties, thus would flag a drug interaction with which of the following?
a)
Cymbalta
b)
Pamelor
c)
Restoril
d)
Zoloft
e)
Effexor
62.
Quiz 2: What is the FDA approved indication for mirtazapine?
a)
Major depression
b)
Sleep disorders
c)
Generalized anxiety disorder
d)
Bulemia
e)
Migraines
63.
Quiz 2: Which of the following works by inhibiting alpha 2 receptors?
a)
Remeron
b)
Paxil
c)
Prozac
d)
Zoloft
e)
Pristiq
64.
Quiz 2: If a patient has insomnia related to major depression, which of the following would be a good option?
a)
Mirtazapine
b)
Temazepam
c)
Eszopicone
d)
Zolpidem
e)
Modafinil
65.
Quiz 2: Which of the following is C-IV
a)
Modafinil
b)
Temazepam
c)
Zolpidem
d)
Eszopiclone
66.
Quiz 2: What is modafinil indicated for?
a)
Narcolepsy
b)
Daytime sleepiness
c)
Major depression
d)
Generalized anxiety
e)
Insomnia
67.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are TCA (tricyclic antidepressants)
a)
Pamelor
b)
Elavil
c)
Lexapro
d)
Zoloft
e)
Effexor
68.

Quiz 2: Which class of drugs does modafinil fall under?

a)

CNS stimulants

b)

CNS depressants

c)

SSRIs

d)

TCAs

69.
Quiz 2: In general, what are some common points regarding TCAs?
a)
Anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth are common
b)
Orthostatic hypotension
c)
Takes 1-2 months to work
d)
Do not interact with MAOIs
e)
Often considered "activating", thus can help if patients have depression associated with somnolence
70.
Quiz 2: Which of the following is FDA-approved to treat hot flashes in menopause?
a)
Paroxetine
b)
Fluoxetine
c)
Citalopram
d)
Sertraline
71.
Quiz 2: What is important to mention when counseling on paroxetine?
a)
Do not abruptly stop
b)
May cause dry mouth
c)
Do not take over the counter cough medicine containing "DM"
d)
Take on empty stomach
e)
Highly sedative, so take at night
72.

Quiz 2: Which of the following correctly lists drug(s) or drug class(es) which interact(s) with sertraline and the outcome?

a)

Warfarin (increases INR, thus increases bleed risk)

b)
Agents that prolong QT (additive)
c)
NSAIDs (bleeding)
d)
Other agents which act on serotonin (serotonin syndrome)
73.
Quiz 2: Which of the following antidepressants is associated with priapism?
a)
Trazodone
b)
Temazepam
c)
Modafinil
d)
Bupropion
74.
Quiz 2: What is important to counsel when dispensing extended release venlafaxine?
a)
Do not chew
b)
May see a "ghost tablet" in stool
c)
May cause bleeding
d)
May cause sweating
75.

Quiz 2: Patients who are started on Effexor should be counseled on which of the following?

a)

Take with food

b)

May cause you to have trouble falling asleep if taken too close to bedtime

c)

May notice that you sweat more often

d)

Don't stop taking it abruptly- talk to your doctor if you have any intolerable side effects

e)

This may stimulate your appetite and lead to weight gain

76.

Quiz 2: Why is temazepam considered relatively safer than other benzodiazepines in geriatric patients?

a)

Phase II metabolism (instead of CYP)

b)

Does not lead to dizziness

c)

Does not increase risk of falls

d)

Dose not make patients tired

77.

Quiz 2: Which of the following are considered potentially inappropriate for geriatric patients due to significant anticholinergic side effects (i.e. sedation, fall risk, constipation, etc)

a)

Paroxetine

b)

Nortriptyline

c)

Amitriptyline

d)

Citalopram

e)

Fluoxetine

78.

Quiz 1: Before prescribing lisdexamfetamine, which patient history should be reviewed due to a serious safety concern?

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Seasonal allergies

c)

History of migraines

d)

Asthma

79.

Quiz 1: Methylphenidate improves attention in ADHD primarily by:

a)

Blocking dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake

b)

Enhancing serotonin release

c)

Activating GABA receptors

d)

Inhibiting acetylcholine breakdown

80.

Quiz 1: Which of the following conditions is lurasidone FDA-approved to treat?

a)

Bipolar depression

b)

Panic disorder

c)

PTSD

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

81.

Quiz 1: Which medication may interfere with pramipexole’s therapeutic effect by blocking dopamine receptors?

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Pantoprazole

d)

Vitamin B12

82.

Quiz 1: Which of the following drugs may reduce risperidone’s effectiveness by increasing its metabolism?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Sertraline

c)

Lithium

d)

Acetaminophen

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