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Pre-Final Exam

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The amount of inertia an object has depends on its _____.
a)

force

b)

mass

c)

friction

d)

age

2.
_____ is the force that opposes the sliding motion of two surfaces that are touching each other.
a)

friction

b)

inertia

c)

gravity

d)

spring

3.
A group of students are playing tug-of-war. The students on both sides pull with equal force. This is an example of:
a)

unbalanced forces

b)

balanced forces

c)

acceleration

d)

displacement

4.
The sum of all the forces acting on an object is called the _____ force.
a)

net

b)

gravitational

c)

final

d)

inertial

5.
If the same force is applied to each of these balls, which one will have the SMALLEST acceleration?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
6.
A person in a head-on car collision, who is not wearing a seatbelt, continues to move forward at the original speed of the car because of ____________.
a)

friction

b)

inertia

c)

gravity

d)

weight

7.
A feather will fall through the air more slowly than a brick because of _____ acting on it.
a)

gravity

b)

air resistance

c)

terminal velocity

d)

momentum

8.
The firefighter feels the hose pushing backwards on his hands. What is the most likely cause of this?
a)

The escaping water exerts an equal and opposite force on the hose

b)

Since the hose is at rest, it tends to stay at rest

c)

The force on the water equals the mass of the water times its acceleration

d)

The hose is very elastic

9.
The force that pulls all objects towards the Earth is
a)

friction

b)

gravity

c)

magnetic

d)

electrical

10.
The force that pushes objects up when they are on a solid surface
a)

normal

b)

tension

c)

friction

d)

applied

11.
How much force is required to accelerate a 1000.0 kg car at a rate of 3 m/s²?
a)

3000N

b)

333.33N

c)

30N

d)

3000m/s

12.
A weightlifter raises a 200.0 kg barbell with an acceleration of 3.00 m/s². How much force does the weightlifter use to raise the barbell?
a)

66.67N

b)

66.67m/s2

c)

600N

d)

600m/s2

13.
What is a wave?
a)

a movement of matter

b)

a disturbance that carries energy

c)

the process of electrons being transferred

d)

large fluctuations in force

14.
What property of a wave is represented by letter A?
a)

Wavelength

b)

Amplitude

c)

Speed

d)

Frequency

15.
What property of a wave is represented by letter B?
a)
Wavelength
b)
Amplitude
c)
Speed
d)
Frequency
16.
What part of a wave is represented by letter D?
a)
Crest
b)
Compression
c)
Rarefaction
d)
Trough
17.
What part of a wave is represented by letter E?
a)
Crest
b)
Compression
c)
Rarefaction
d)
Trough
18.
Which of the following can act as a medium for a wave?
a)

Sound and Light

b)

Water

c)

Air

d)

Solids, liquids, and gases

19.
When the frequency of a wave decreases,
a)

the wavelength increases.

b)

the wavelength decreases.

c)

the wavelength increases and then decreases.

d)

the wavelength remains the same.

20.
True or False? Mechanical waves can travel through empty space and do not require a medium through which to travel.
a)

True

b)

False

21.
True or False? Sound waves are able to travel fastest through gases.
a)

True

b)

False

22.
As amplitude increases, energy increases.
a)

True

b)

False

23.
Atoms that have a positive charge will be attracted to atoms with a ___ charge.
a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

24.
Which of these forces works only by combining electric and magnetic forces?
a)

magnetic

b)

electric

c)

electromagnetism

25.
This force occurs when ions create attractive and repulsive forces.
a)

magnetic

b)

electric

c)

electromagnetism

26.
This force occurs when there is an attractive and repulsive force between two poles.
a)

magnetic

b)

electric

c)

electromagnetism

27.
In a magnet the opposite poles will ___________.
a)

repel

b)

attract

c)

both

28.
The magnetic field of a magnet is ____________ further away from the magnet.
a)

stronger

b)

weaker

c)

larger

d)

smaller

29.
The area around an electric charge that experiences the force exerted by the electric charge.
a)

electric field

b)

electric force

c)

electric poles

d)

electric charge

30.
A compass needle points North because
a)

the mass of the compass affects it

b)

the location of the magnetic south pole attracts the needle to it

c)

the Earth's magnetic South pole is located at the geographic North pole

d)

the Earth's magnetic North pole is located at the geographic South pole

31.
What makes an electromagnet stronger?
a)

greater number of loops

b)

smaller number of loops

c)

decreasing the current

d)

decreasing the voltage

32.
When your hair stands on end, each strand repelling the other, you are experiencing ______________________ ________________________.
a)

magnetic force

b)

repelling forces

c)

static electricity

d)

direct current

33.
What do you end up with if you cut a magnet in half?
a)

two unmagnetized pieces

b)

a north pole piece and a south pole piece

c)

two pieces, each with a north and south pole

d)

two north pole pieces

34.
To get 2 magnets to attract each other, how should they be positioned?
a)

with the same poles near each other (north close to north or south close to south)

b)

with the opposite poles near each other (north close to south)

c)

the position of the magnets doesn't matter

35.
Like North and South poles on magnets, electrons and protons
a)

attract

b)

repel

c)

repulse

d)

are neutral

36.
What causes charges to move in a circuit?
a)

voltage

b)

energy

c)

electricity

d)

magnetism

37.
A complete, unbroken path through which electric charges can flow is a (an) ____.
a)

electrical circuit

b)

electrical resistance

c)

magnetic field line

d)

magnetic pole

38.
Materials that allow the charges of an electric current to move freely through them are called ____.
a)

insulators

b)

conductors

c)

resistors

d)

magnets

39.
The region around a magnet where the magnetic force is exerted is known as its ____.
a)

magnetic pole

b)

magnetic field

c)

lodestone

d)

magnetic domain

40.
A temporary magnet ____.
a)

keeps its magnetism for a long time

b)

cannot be destroyed

c)

easily loses its magnetism

d)

has two north poles

41.
The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time (1 second) is called?
a)
amplitude
b)
frequency
c)
decibels
d)
energy
e)
42.
What is the unit of measurement for frequency?
a)
Decibels
b)
Meters
c)
Hertz
d)
Meters/Seconds
43.
A wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the direction the wave travels is called?
a)
surface wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
wavelength
d)
longitudinal wave
44.
The bouncing back of a wave when it hits a surface through which it cannot pass is called?
a)
Rarefaction
b)
Refraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Reflex
45.
The bending of a wave as it passes at an angle from one medium to another is called?
a)
Rarefaction
b)
Refraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Reflex
46.
Materials that transmit nearly all light - can see through them - are called?
a)
Transparent
b)
Translucent
c)
Opaque
d)
Oblique
47.
Materials that transmit no light - cannot see through them - are called?
a)
Transparent
b)
Translucent
c)
Opaque
d)
Oblique
48.
Materials that transmit some light - can partially see through them - are called?
a)
Transparent
b)
Translucent
c)
Opaque
d)
Oblique
49.
The area in a longitudinal wave in which the particles are closest together is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
50.
The area in a longitudinal wave in which the particles are farthest apart is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
51.
The highest point of a transverse wave is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
52.
The lowest point of a transverse wave is called?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
rarefaction
d)
compression
53.
If the frequency of a wave is 150 Hz and it has a wavelength of 3 m, what is its velocity?
a)
450 m/s
b)
75 m/s
c)
450 Hz
d)
75 m
54.
If a wave is traveling at 60 m/s and has a wavelength of 10 m, what is its frequency?
a)
600 Hz
b)
60 Hz
c)
6 Hz
d)
.6 Hz
55.
If the same wave as above has a frequency of 20 Hz, what is its wavelength?
a)
30 m
b)
33 m
c)
3 m
d)
.3 m
56.
What is the constant speed of all electromagnetic waves?
a)
67 miles an hour
b)
300,000 km/s
c)
3 million km/hr
d)
67,000 km/s
57.
The velocity of a wave with a frequency of 20Hz and a wavelength of 10m is
a)
2 m/s
b)
200 m/s
c)
2 m
d)
200 m
58.
Waves that are continuous and transmit signals that get weaker over long distances are
a)
digital
b)
analog
59.
Waves that encode information into a series of 1's and 0's ((binary) are
a)
digital
b)
analog
60.
Which signal type is more reliable?
a)
digital
b)
analog
61.
Which signal type is more susceptible to interference?
a)
digital
b)
analog
62.
Which color of visible light has the longest wavelength?
a)
Orange
b)
Violet
c)
Red
d)
Green
63.
Radio waves are an example of which kind of wave?
a)
Electromagnetic
b)
Longitudinal
c)
Mechanical
d)
None of the above
64.
Which type of EM wave is the most dangerous to humans?
a)
Gamma waves
b)
Microwaves
c)
The higher frequency/shorter wavelength waves
d)
A and C are correct
65.
Can sound be heard in space?
a)
No
b)
Yes
66.
All electromagnetic waves have the same
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
speed
d)
amplitude
67.
If a wave's speed is 30 m/s and it has a wavelength of 15 m, what is its frequency?
a)
450 Hz
b)
450 m
c)
2 Hz
d)
2 m/s
68.
The time it takes a planet to go around the sun is its
a)
Orbital radius
b)
Orbital period
c)
day
d)
orbital velocity
69.
Which of the following is true about mass and weight?
a)
Mass and weight are the same thing
b)
Mass changes when gravity changes but weight stays the same
c)
Weight changes when gravity changes, but mass stays the same
d)
Both mass and weight change when gravity changes
70.
You would weigh less on Uranus than you do on Earth. Uranus has more mass than the Earth, so why is the force of gravity lower?
a)
Uranus has a much smaller radius so you are closer to the center of mass
b)
Uranus has a much larger radius so you are much farther to the center of mass
c)
Uranus has the same radius as Earth
71.
The laws of gravity were written in the 1600s by the following scientist
a)
Darwin
b)
Newton
c)
Nye
d)
Pasteur
72.
The spinning motion of a planet on its axis is its
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
c)
orbital period
d)
orbital radius
73.
Which planet has the shortest orbital period?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars
d)
Neptune
74.
Which planet has the longest orbital radius?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Mars
d)
Neptune
75.
A you move farther away from the sun, how does the orbital period change?
a)
It doesn't change
b)
it gets longer
c)
it gets shorter
76.
As you move farther away from the sun, how does the orbital speed change?
a)

The orbital speed stays the same

b)

The orbital speed gets faster

c)

The orbital speed gets slower

77.
The sun's gravity keeps the planets in orbit. How does the force of the sun's gravitation pull change as you move away from the sun?
a)
It gets stronger
b)
it gets weaker
c)
It doesn't change
78.
True of False - The moon makes its own light
a)

True

b)

False

79.
What term is used to describe the phases of the moon that appear to be getting bigger?
a)

Waxing

b)

Waning

80.
You are standing outside looking up at the sky. You remember just a few nights ago there was a New Moon, and you couldn't see anything. What kind of moon do you think you are looking at now?
a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Waxing Crecent

c)

Full Moon

d)

Waning Gibbous

81.
Which moon phase do we see at position 5?
a)
New moon
b)
1st quarter
c)
Full Moon
d)
3rd quarter
82.
What moon phase do we see at position 8?
a)
New Moon
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Waning Gibbous
d)
Waning Crescent
83.
What does the moon orbit around?
a)

The sun

b)

nothing

c)

its moon

d)

Earth

84.
How long does a complete lunar cycle take?
a)

1 day

b)

29.5 days

c)

365 days

85.
What is the only phase of the moon that will cause a solar eclipse?
a)

Full

b)

New

c)

1st quarter

d)

3rd quarter

86.
When a solar eclipse occurs, which of the following is true?
a)

The sun moves between the moon and the Earth

b)

The earth moves between the moon and the sun

c)

The moon moves between the sun and the earth

87.
Which phase of the moon can experience a lunar eclipse?
a)

Full moon

b)

New moon

c)

1st quarter

d)

3rd quarter

88.
The force of gravity on an object is the object's
a)

Force

b)

Gravity

c)

Weight

d)

Intertia

89.
The attractive force between all objects in the universe
a)

Force

b)

Gravity

c)

Weight

d)

Inertia

90.
The path a planet follows as it moves around the sun
a)

Orbit

b)

Rotation

c)

Axis

d)

Revolution

91.
Two factors that affect the force of gravity between two objects are
a)

weight and mass

b)

mass and speed

c)

mass and distance

d)

weight and speed

92.
The force of gravity would _______ if the sun got bigger
a)

Incresase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

93.
If you went to Jupiter, your mass would
a)

Increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

94.
If you went to the moon, your weight would
a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

95.
Which picture shows what would happen if the force of gravity between the sun and earth were turned off?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
96.
Gravity pulls everything toward
a)

The ground

b)

the moon

c)

The center of a mass

d)

the sun

97.
Any object with mass has gravity
a)

True

b)

False

c)

It depends

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