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Spring Final Exam Enivronmental Science _CTE

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the best definition for the Tragedy of the Commons?

a)

sharing resources equitably between individuals

b)

the conflict associated with sharing resources

c)

When someone is selfish and hogs all of a resource

d)

Meeting the needs of today without compromising the needs of the future

2.

What is the definition of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

When humans overuse a natural resource

b)

When the short-term, positive effects go to the individual, while the long-term, negative effects are spread out to the group

c)

When humans act selfishly, thinking of their own self-interest

d)

When plants and animals compete for space, resources, and/or food

3.

Which of the following are both examples of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Overfishing and earthquakes

b)

Flooding and tsunamis

c)

Pollution and overpopulation

d)

Super-germs and virus outbreaks

4.

Which of the following is an example of a solution to the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Improving literacy among urban populations

b)

Raising tax rates for large corporations

c)

Inventing stronger antibiotics

d)

Passing a law to set limits for fishermen

5.

What is the definition of the tragedy of the commons?

a)

When humans overuse a natural resource

b)

When the short-term, positive effects go to the individual, while the long-term, negative effects are spread out to the group

c)

When humans act selfishly, thinking of their own self-interest

d)

When plants and animals compete for space, resources, and/or food

6.

Which of the following is an example of a commons?

a)

Chickens at a chicken farm

b)

Cows at a dairy farm

c)

Trees in a forest

d)

Apples in a farmer's orchard

7.

Which of the following is the definition of a commons?

a)

A public resource that can provide some sort of benefit for the user

b)

Something a person owns that can provide financial gain

c)

A public resource that can provide a financial gain

d)

A private resource that becomes public

8.

Which of the following are solutions to the tragedy of the commons? (Choose all that apply)

a)

Incentives

b)

Regulations

c)

Make the reource private

d)

Give the public ownership

e)

Assign societal value on people who follow the regulations

9.

What is the definition of a MEGACITY?

a)

An unincorporated area that lacks city services

b)

A city with a population of more than 10 million people

c)

A city with a population of more than 20 million people

d)

An urban area that has population growth higher than 10 percent per annum

e)

A city that is more than twice the size of the next largest city in the country

10.

Which of the following is a benefit of mixed-use development?

a)

It promotes liveable urban spaces

b)

It promotes affordable housing

c)

It decreases residential density

d)

It increases transportation networks

e)

it mitigates crime

11.

Which of the below is part of the Infrastructure system:

a)

Residential Buildings

b)

Population growth

c)

Transportation system

d)

Social Organization

12.

The creation of walkable neighborhoods is

a)

a result of urban sprawl

b)

one goal of the Federal Housing Administration

c)

discouraged by multi-use zoning

d)

a principal of smart growth

13.

Which is NOT an environmental benefit of smart growth?

a)

reduced flooding

b)

increased impervious surfaces

c)

reduced fossil fuel consumption

d)

increased open space

14.

buses, trains, trams, etc are part of ...

a)

urban development

b)

public transport

c)

air pollution

d)

residential areas

15.
What is one benefit of a mixed-use development?
a)
Housing is kept far away from the noise and traffic of business districts.
b)
There is plentiful parking because the development is built around the need for cars.
c)
People can live, work, and shop in the same neighborhood.
d)
Housing density is lower, and there is plenty of land between homes.
16.

Which of these best describes mixed-use development?

a)

Knocking an old building down to build a new one.

b)

Building on the edge of an urban area.

c)

Clearing a forest for farming.

d)

Store, office, & apartments in the same building.

17.

Which of the following is a principle of smart growth?

a)

protecting wildlife habitats

b)

focusing development outside of existing urban centers

c)

creating neighborhoods best suited for cars

d)

building up, not out

18.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of urban sprawl?
a)
automobile and highway construction
b)
mixed land use
c)
living costs
d)
urban blight 
19.
The creation of a walkable neighborhood is 
a)
a result of urban sprawl
b)
one goal of the Federal Housing Administration
c)
discouraged by multi-use zoning
d)
a principal of smart growth
20.
Which is a negative effect of urban sprawl?
a)
new, affordable homes
b)
more farmland
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
more people pass their geography quiz
21.
What mode of transportation allowed city workers to live in far away suburbs and commute to their jobs?
a)
A. streetcars
b)
B. horses
c)
C. cars
d)
D. trains
22.

3) Which of the following factors contributed to sprawl in the United States?

a)

more affordable automobiles

b)

improved roads

c)

less expensive land

d)

all of the above

23.

A set of principles for community planning that focuses on strategies to encourage the development of sustainable, healthy communities.

a)

Highway Trust Fund.

b)

Zoning.

c)

Smart Growth.

d)

Induced Demand.

24.

The feeling that an area has distinct and meaningful character.

a)

Urban Blight.

b)

Induced Demand.

c)

Sense of place.

d)

Urban Sprawl.

25.

Turning an old school into apartments would be best described as an example of...

a)

mixed use land

b)

fair and cost effective decision-making

c)

creating walkable neighborhoods

d)

creating a strong sense of space

26.

Which of the following is NOT a good idea for "smart growth" in your community?

a)

creating paths and lanes for the use of bicycles to encourage public transportation options

b)

making vacant lots into community gardens or parks

c)

encourage a mix of housing options as well as new businesses

d)

Foster distinctive, attractive communities with a strong sense of place

e)

make development decisions unpredictable, costly and support a business monopoly

27.
Which is a positive effect of urban sprawl?
a)
more affordable houses
b)
increased pollution
c)
destruction of habitats
d)
decay of older city neighborhoods
28.

Urban sprawl increases carbon dioxide emissions by

a)

generating more factories.

b)

increasing the need to drive.

c)

resulting in more tree growth.

d)

expanding the use of public transportation.

29.

Megacities have a population of ...?

a)

Over 9,000

b)

Over 10 million

c)

Over 50 million

d)

Over 100 million

30.

Where are the majority of megacities located?

a)

Africa

b)

Europe

c)

Asia

d)

The Americas

31.

What is the definition of a MEGACITY?

a)

An unincorporated area that lacks city services

b)

A city with a population of more than 10 million people

c)

A city with a population of more than 20 million people

d)

An urban area that has population growth higher than 10 percent per annum

e)

A city that is more than twice the size of the next largest city in the country

32.

How can cities be more sustainable? (select 2)

a)

Use less energy

b)

Use more public transport

c)

Build on greenfield sites

d)

Build off shore wind farms

33.

Why is traffic a problem in cities? (select 2)

a)

Exhaust releases carbon dioxide and greenhouse gases

b)

Cars are expensive

c)

More cars now than when cities were first designed - roads and parking are not enough

d)

Urbanisation leads to more people living in cities than outside in the rural areas

34.

How can you reduce traffic in city centres? (select 2)

a)

Congestion charging / clean air zone

b)

Build more shops and offices in the centre

c)

Free bus passes or cheaper bus travel

d)

Reduce price of city centre car parking

35.

It is a type of settlement which has the largest population having more than 10 Million people living there.

a)

Hamlet

b)

Town

c)

Village

d)

Megacity

36.

Which one is not a Megacity?

a)

Tokyo, Japan with population of 37 million

b)

Calcutta, India with 14 million people living in the area

c)

New York City with 20 million inhabitants

d)

Vatican City, Italy with only 836 people living in the area.

37.

Having a ____________ is great way to plan for your money.

a)

debit card

b)

credit card

c)

budget

d)

interest

38.

You need to have money in your checking account in order to use a _____________.

a)

credit cards

b)

debit card

c)

check

d)

check and debit card

39.

_________________ is money extended by a bank with our promise to pay it back plus interest.

a)

Debit

b)

Interest

c)

Credit

d)

Savings

40.

An example of a flexible expense is....

a)

utility bill

b)

car payment

c)

going out to dinner

d)

rent

41.

Accounts that allow your money to grow and collect interest are called ______________ accounts.

a)

checking

b)

insurance

c)

debit

d)

savings

42.

All of the following are types of insurance EXCEPT:

a)

medical

b)

life

c)

automobile

d)

natural disaster

43.

Which is not an example of an unexpected expense?

a)

speeding ticket

b)

utility bill

c)

missing work if sick

d)

a fire in your house

44.

Car insurance rates can be based on:

a)

age

b)

gender

c)

type of car

d)

All of the above

45.

If sales tax is 10%, you buy a jacket for $100, how much did you pay for the jacket?

a)

$110

b)

$10

c)

$120

d)

$90

46.

What do sales tax and income tax have in common?

a)

they both apply to things you buy

b)

they are both calculated as percentages

c)

they are both progressive taxes

d)

you pay them both only once a year

47.

An example of a service provided by the federal government

a)

a national chain of stores

b)

public utility service

c)

the internet

d)

An interstate highway or bridge

48.

Money that you earn or receive is called ________________?

a)

fixed expenses

b)

budget

c)

insurance

d)

income

49.

Your credit score could help determine which of the following?

a)

If you will get approved for credit

b)

the interest rate

c)

if you are at risk to the lender

d)

All of the above

50.

What is a tax that is taken from your paycheck?

a)

federal tax

b)

state tax

c)

social security

d)

All of the above

51.

The money you earn before taxes and other deductions is called...

a)
Salary
b)
Net income
c)
Gross income
d)
Wages
52.

Money taken from your income before you are paid is called...

a)
Commission
b)
Retainer
c)
Deductions
d)
Rate
53.
The amount of money you actually receive after the deductions are taken from your gross income.
a)
Net income
b)
Deductions
c)
Wages
d)
Tax
54.

This is money paid out of your income to the Government to help the country run. 

a)
Fees
b)
Wages
c)

Taxes

d)
Salary
55.
A word to describe yearly.
a)
annual
b)
monthly
c)
half-yearly
d)
fornightly
56.

People create and keep a personal budget to help them _____.

a)

set and reach financial goals

b)

apply for loan

c)

buy anything they want

d)

earn promotions at work

57.

Which of the following are considered variable expenses? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Magazine subscription

b)

Electricity

c)

Insurance coverage

d)

Clothing

e)

Recreation and vacation

58.

Which of the following are considered fixed expenses? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Cable subscription

b)

Electricity

c)

Insurance coverage

d)

Rent

e)

Medical fees

59.

Which of the following are considered WANTs? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Concert tickets

b)

Water

c)

A new pair of shoes

d)

Rent

e)

Medical fees

60.

Which of the following are considered NEEDs? (Choose ALL that apply.)

a)

Airpods

b)

Water

c)

A new pair of shoes

d)

Food

e)

Playstation 5

61.

A budget is ___________.

a)

a list of what to buy at a store

b)

a plan for managing your money.

c)

the things you shouldn't do

d)

a way to save money each month

62.

Why do you think having good credit is important?

4 lines
63.

In order to thaw meat you should...

a)

Place it in the microwave on high temperature

b)

Place it in a sink full of hot water

c)

Place it on the countertop at room temperature

d)

Place it in the refrigerator on a plate

64.

Raw foods should not be left out for more than...

a)

1 hour

b)

2 hours

c)

3 hours

d)

4 hours

65.

The danger zone refers to temperatures of...

a)

30 degrees – 100 degrees F

b)

41 degrees – 135 degrees F

c)

20 degrees – 90 degrees F

d)

35 degrees – 180 degrees F

66.

Cook food to the proper ______ temperature

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

surface

d)

all of the above

67.

What type of food has a safe internal cooking temperature of 165 degrees F?

a)

poultry

b)

pork

c)

fish

d)

lamb

68.

Which is not considered part of a record-keeping system?

a)

flow charts

b)

menus

c)

food temperature readings

d)

policy and procedure manuals

69.

How far from the floor should food be stored to prevent pest infestation?

a)

2 feet

b)

1 inch

c)

6 inches

d)

6 feet

70.

If held food drops below 135 degrees F, what should you do?

a)

Reheat to 135 degrees F for one minute

b)

Reheat to 145 degrees F for 30 seconds

c)

Reheat to 140 degrees F for 5 minutes

d)

Reheat to 165 degrees F for 15 seconds

71.

To prevent cross contamination, use _____ cutting boards and containers.

a)

large

b)

dirty

c)

color coded

d)

clear

72.

What should you wear to keep microorganisms from being transmitted to food from your hair?

a)

Hair restraint

b)

Head scarf

c)

Head band

d)

Hair ribbon

73.

What is the main cause of cross-contamination?

a)

Packaging materials

b)

Food handlers

c)

Kitchen counters

d)

Cooking equipment

74.

Using/consuming oldest items first is known as...(choose 2)

a)

HACCP

b)

First in, first out

c)

USDA

d)

FIFO

75.

How long should you be washing your hands?

a)

5 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

20 seconds

d)

45 seconds

76.

Between 41° and 135°F is known as the __________.

a)

"Danger Zone"

b)

"Sweet Spot"

c)

"Optimal Food Temperature"

d)

"Prime Time"

77.

What temperature should you set your refrigerator to?

a)

50°F or lower

b)

0°F or lower

c)

40°F or lower

d)

20°F or lower

78.
 Which is an example of how you can prevent cross-contamination when preparing food?
a)
Use separate cutting boards (e.g., one for raw meat, poultry, and seafood, and one for fruits and vegetables)
b)
wash and sanitize surfaces between tasks
c)
do not place cooked or ready-to-eat food on a dish that previously held raw seafood, meat, or poultry
d)
All of these choices are good examples.
79.
What could happen if you placed cooked food on a plate that previously held raw meat, poultry, or seafood?
a)
Nothing
b)
Since there are bacteria on the plate from the raw juices, you can cause crosscontamination and spread the potentially pathogenic bacteria to the cooked food
c)
You could get the flu
d)
All of the above
80.
Before handling any food, what is the first thing a person should do?
a)
Clean the cutting board
b)
Sharpen the knife
c)
Call friends over
d)
Wash your hands
81.
When checking to see if food is done cooking, what part of the meat, poultry, or seafood should you place the food thermometer?
a)
The middle
b)
The thickest part
c)
The right side
d)
Underneath
82.

Heavy pots and pans should be stored

a)

in the oven when not in use

b)

out of the reach of toddlers

c)

in cabinets above range

d)

on low shelves

83.

When unplugging an appliance grasp the ___ and pull gently

a)

cord

b)

plug

c)

socket

d)

handles

84.

If you have an open wound on your hand, you should ____ when handling foods

a)

use hand sanitizer

b)

continue working

c)

be careful

d)

cover it up

85.

What is the main cause of air pollution?

a)

plowing fields and releasing dust

b)

using solar power

c)

burning fossil fuels

d)

using water power

86.

What are ways that we can decrease air pollution?

a)

carpool

b)

conserving electricity

c)

follow laws made by the EPA

d)

all of the answers are correct

87.
Which of the following is linked to the problem of global warming?
a)
Too much ozone
b)
Too much nitrogen
c)
Too much carbon dioxide
d)
Too much smog
88.
What does the ozone layer protect us from?
a)
carbon monoxide posioning
b)
heat from the sun
c)
UV rays from the sun
d)
smog
89.

What is the major cause of photochemical smog?

a)

burning of fossil fuels

b)

car exhaust

c)

CFC's in the atmosphere

d)

fertilizer use

90.
How are people and animals affected by the hole in the ozone layer?
a)
Breathing problems
b)
Skin infections
c)
Increased cases of skin cancer
d)
Flooding due to higher temperatures
91.
This substance is a major component of smog.
a)
dust
b)
ground level ozone
c)
carbon monoxide
d)
nitrogen oxide
92.
What causes acid rain?
a)
High concentrations of sulfuric or nitric acid from pollution
b)
Fertilizer use
c)
Pesticide use
d)
CFCs
93.
Global warming is due to 
a)
Greenhouse gases
b)
Nitric and sulfuric acids
c)
CFCs
d)
Ozone depletion
94.
Dust, ash and pollen are examples of this air pollutant
a)
Lead
b)
Ground-level ozone
c)
Particulate matter
d)
Nitrogen oxides
95.
Which of the following is an example of a primary pollutant?
a)
Acid rain
b)
Sick building syndrome
c)
Carbon monoxide
d)
Asbestos
96.
A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors, which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.
a)
Water droplets
b)
Allergens
c)
Particulate matter
d)
Combustibles
97.
What is air pollution?
a)
Any harmful substance that builds up in the air 
b)
pollen, dust, gases
c)
industrial pollution
d)
chemicals in the water
98.

Where is the "GOOD" ozone located?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

99.

Which of the following are examples of VOC's ? select 3

a)

paint and paint thinners

b)

gasoline

c)

water vapor

d)

formaldehyde

e)

smog

100.

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for the Clean Air Act?

a)

the USGS

b)

the USDA

c)

the EPA

d)

the USDOJ

101.
Ozone and acid rain are both pollutants formed through reactions in the atmosphere. This makes them
a)
primary air pollutants
b)
secondary air pollutants 
c)
atmospheric transport
d)
atmospheric deposition
102.

78% of troposphere gas is...

a)

argon

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

103.

Smog is caused by ozone, which is a combination of....

a)

UVA & UVB

b)

NO2 & VOCs + sun

c)

methane & NO2

d)

carbon dioxide & water

104.

The Clean Air Act...

a)

sets limits on illegal dumping of pollution in our waterways

b)

cleans the air with scrubbers

c)

sets limits on certain air pollutants & how much can be emitted by companies & industries

d)

helps farmers use less pesticides & fertilizers on their crops

105.

One way to reduce factory pollution is to:

a)

Find alternative methods of production

b)

Reduce the amount of cattle raised for beef

c)

Walk or carpool when you can

d)

Keep your home clean and free of dust and mold

106.

One way to improve indoor air quality is to:

a)

Find alternative methods of production

b)

Reduce the amount of cattle raised for beef

c)

Walk or carpool when you can

d)

Keep your home clean and free of dust and mold

107.

What is the second step of the wastewater treatment plant process?

a)

Secondary Treatment

b)

Preliminary Treatment

c)

Additional Treatment

d)

Primary Treatment

108.

What is the last step of the wastewater treatment plant process?

a)

Secondary Treatment

b)

Preliminary Treatment

c)

Additional Treatment

d)

Primary Treatment

109.

What is the third step of the wastewater treatment plant process?

a)

Secondary Treatment

b)

Preliminary Treatment

c)

Additional Treatment

d)

Primary Treatment

110.

What is the first step of the wastewater treatment plant process?

a)

Secondary Treatment

b)

Preliminary Treatment

c)

Additional Treatment

d)

Primary Treatment

111.

What is Sludge?

a)

The wastewater and other different types of waste.

b)

A network of pipes that carry sewage.

c)

A dense material that sinks to the bottom of the septic tank.

d)

A material that floats at the top of a septic tank.

112.

What is Sewage?

a)

Wastewater and other different types of waste.

b)

A network of pipes that carry sewage.

c)

A dense material that sinks to the bottom of the septic tank.

d)

A material that floats at the top of a septic tank.

113.

Which is the quality of water waste?

a)

Dirty look

b)

Foul smell

c)

Mixed with lather

d)

All of these

114.

Sewage treatment

a)

is a process of waste water treatment.

b)

refers to waste water that is released by homes, industries, hospitals etc.

c)

refers to the rain water that run down the streets during heavy rains.

d)

All of the above

115.

In the treatment of waste water, following steps are involved. (i) aeration (ii) removal of large objects (iii) chlorination The correct order of these steps is

a)

(i),(iii),(ii)

b)

(iii), (ii), (i)

c)

(i), (ii), (iii)

d)

(ii), (i), (iii)

116.

We should not throw cooking oil and paint down the drain because

a)

they break the pipe

b)

they harden and clog the pipe

c)

they flow through the drain freely

d)

None of these

117.

Which of the following is a good practice be followed?

a)

Cooking oil and paint should not be thrown down a drain.

b)

Used tea leaves, solid food and cotton should not be thrown in the drain.

c)

Chemicals like insecticides should not throw in the drain.

d)

All of the above

118.

Which process during waste water treatment helps in eliminating germs?

a)

Aeration

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Chlorination

d)

None of the above

119.

Cleaning of water is process of removing __________

a)

Pollutants

b)

Sewage

c)

Sludge

d)

Chemicals, kitchen waste

120.

The treatment of wastewater is commonly known as

a)

Cleaning of Water

b)

Sewerage Treatment

c)

Sewage Treatment

d)

All of the above

121.

Name liquid waste product

a)

Sewage

b)

Sewer

c)

Sludge

d)

None of the above

122.

A chemical to disinfect water

a)

Copper Sulphate

b)

Distilled Water

c)

Iron Sulphate

d)

Chlorine

123.

How can we save water? (check all that apply)

a)

Check your toilet for leaks.

b)

DeInstall water-saving showerheads or flow restrictors.

c)

Use your toilet as an ashtray or wastebasket.

d)

Take shorter showers.

124.

Which of the following is waste water ?

a)

Water leaking from a damaged tap

b)

Water coming out of a shower

c)

Water coming out of laundry

d)

All of the above

125.

Match the following

a)
1.

production

b)
2.

disposal

c)
3.

extraction

d)
4.

distribution

e)
5.

consumption

126.

What are the common stages of a life cycle assessment?

a)

Birth, marriage, death

b)

raw materials, manufacturing, transport, use, disposal

c)

matierals, cost, transport, disposal

127.

What is never included in an LCA?

a)

Cost

b)

Use

c)

Transport

d)

Disposal

128.

What are the common stages of a life cycle assessment?

a)

Birth, marriage, death

b)

raw materials, manufacturing, transport, use, disposal

c)

matierals, cost, transport, disposal

129.

What is never included in an LCA?

a)

Cost

b)

Use

c)

Transport

d)

Disposal

130.

Which of these would be considered a benefit when considering raw materials?

a)

Made of recycled copper

b)

Uses pure gold

c)

Made from crude oil

131.

Which is the best energy source to consider for manufacturing?

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Gas

d)

Solar

132.

Which of the following are benefits of a paper bag (choose 3)

a)

Made of recyclable wood

b)

Manufactured in China

c)

Carbon neutral

d)

Cannot be used when wet

e)

Can be burned as a fuel when finished with

133.

Is the inability to rot a benefit to disposing of a product?

a)

Benefit

b)

Not a benefit

c)

Does not matter

134.

Is a long battery life a benefit for a product?

a)

Benefit

b)

Not a benefit

c)

Does not matter

135.

What is the final step in LCA process?

a)

Disposal

b)

Manufacturing

c)

Distribution

d)

Raw material extraction

136.

"All steps involved with moving the product from the factory site to the end consumer". This step refers to

a)

distribution

b)

manufacturing

c)

disposal

d)

marketing

137.

Which is the following is NOT part of a life cycle analysis?

a)

Using the product.

b)

Obtaining and processing raw materials.

c)

Advertising a product.

d)

Disposing of the product

138.

Life Cycle Assessment is an objective procedure used to evaluate the ______ impacts associated with a product’s entire life cycle:

a)

Environmental

b)

Economic

c)

Social

d)

Cultural

139.

What does ecological footprint measure?

a)

How much quantity of natural resources humans need as compared to the earth's capacity to provide those resources

b)

The size of cities across the world

c)

The amount of fossil fuels that are burned for energy

d)

The shoe size of the average human

140.

Which is NOT a way to decrease your ecological footprint?

a)

Eating less meat and processed foods

b)

Walking or biking to school

c)

Turning off electricity and water when you're not using it. 

d)

Driving a large car around for fun.

141.

What kinds of resources make up your ecological footprint?

a)

waste production

b)

water and energy use

c)

food, shelter

clothing and transportation

d)

All of the above

142.

Purchasing fewer clothes could reduce your carbon footprint by:

a)

Saving you money which would make you more financially secure

b)

Leading to less land being cleared to grow fibre crops such as cotton

c)

Reducing the fuel required to transport clothes from overseas

d)

Setting a good example for your friends so that you can show them how good a person you are

143.

According to this image, in which continent does the ecological footprint exceed capacity by the largest amount?

a)

Europe

b)

North America

c)

South America

d)

Australia

144.

Ecological Footprint is measured in:

a)

Kilowatts

b)

Carbon Units

c)

Global Hectares

d)

Square Miles

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