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Biology Sem 2 Exam Review

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is replicated in S phase of Interphase?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Cell

c)

DNA

d)

Nucleus

2.

DNA is replicated during which phase of Interphase?

a)

M Phase

b)

Cell Division

c)

G2 Phase

d)

S Phase

3.

Interphase is preparing the cell for...

a)

Cell division

b)

cell fragmentation

c)

cell deterioration

d)

cell proliferation

4.

During M phase, what is being divided?

a)

Cell

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Chromosomes

5.

Which phase is demonstrated in the image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

6.

Which phase is demonstrated in the image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

7.

Which phase is demonstrated in the image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

8.

Which phase is demonstrated in the image?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

9.

What phase is cytokinesis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
10.

What phase is Telephase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

WHAT DOES MEIOSIS CREATE?

a)

CHROMOSOMES

b)

GAMETES

c)

DNA

d)

TRAITS

12.

MEIOSIS IS NEEDED BECAUSE...

a)

IT ACTUALLY ISN'T, BUT CAN BE HELPFUL IN SOME ORGANISMS

b)

TO REDUCE THE CHROMOSOME NUMBER BY HALF

c)

SO THAT EVERY CELL IS EXACTLY IDENTICAL

d)

TO MAKE SURE EVERY HUMAN CELL HAS 92 CHROMOSOMES

13.

A FEMALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

14.

MALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

15.

HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES DO HUMAN GAMETES HAVE?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

47

d)

22

16.

CROSSING OVER ALLOWS FOR WHAT TO HAPPEN?

a)

ALL CELLS TO STAY THE SAME

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

REDUCTION OF CHROMOSOMES

d)

CHROMOSOME NUMBER TO INCREASE

17.

WHEN THE SPERM FERTILIZES THE EGG WHAT IS FORMED

a)

ZYGOTE

b)

EMBRYO

c)

FETUS

d)

FERTILIZATION

18.

FERTILZATION IS ...

a)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND SPERM

b)

THE FUSION OF A DIPLOID EGG AND SPERM

c)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND DIPLOID SPERM

d)

THE FUSION OF TWO EGGS

19.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS WHAT IS HAPPENING WITH THE CHROMOSOMES?

a)

NON- DISJUNCTION

b)

METAPHASE

c)

TELOPHASE

d)

CROSSING OVER

20.

The idea of non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome means the following:

a)

complete seperation of chromosomes

b)

complete seperation of genes

c)

failure for chromosomes to seperate

d)

failure for genes to seperate

21.

Explain the karyotype of this individual

a)

Male - no genetic defect

b)

Male - Down's Syndrome

c)

Female - no genetic defect

d)

Female - Down's Syndrome

22.

In which cell(s) will meiosis occur? (Check all that apply)

a)

muscle cell

b)

gamete

c)

sperm cell

d)

skin cell

23.

In Metaphase II, _________ line up on equatorial plane.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

single chromosomes (made up of 2 sister chromatids)

c)

tetrads

d)

centrosomes

24.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase I
25.

Crossing over usually occurs between:

a)

Sister Chromatids

b)

Homologous Chromosomes

c)

Alleles

d)

Non-Homologous Chromosomes

26.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

27.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Anaphase II

28.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

29.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

30.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

31.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

32.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

33.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

34.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

35.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

36.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

37.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

38.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

39.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
40.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
41.
The function of ______ is to combine with proteins to form ribosomes.
a)
rRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
42.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
43.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
44.
What is the mRNA strand that would result from the DNA template strand CCTA?
a)
GGAT
b)
CCAT
c)
GGAU
d)
CCAU
45.
The process where mRNA is translated into amino acids happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
46.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
47.
Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT in RNA?
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Guanine
48.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
49.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
50.

Mutations can be spontaneous.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Mutations can leave to evolutionary change.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Which of the following is not a type of mutation?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Prescription

d)

Deletion

53.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is the normal message, what type of mutation is this: ZHEBIGFATREDCATSAT

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

54.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is normal, what would this be:

THESBIGFATREDCATSAT

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

55.

THEBIGFATREDCATSAT is normal, what is this:

THEBIGFATREDATSAT

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion

56.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

57.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

58.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

59.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

60.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

61.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

62.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

63.

Identify the DELETION mutation form the following:

ATG CCA AAT

a)

ATG TCA AAT

b)

ATG CCT AAA T

c)

ATC CA AT

d)

ATG CCA AAT

64.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

65.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

66.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
67.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA 
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
68.
Mutations affect the ________ of a protein. Because of this the proteins ______ is affected as well. 
a)
gene, function 
b)
sequence, gene
c)
shape,function
69.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
70.

Who is known as the "father of genetics"?

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Karl Ernst von Baer

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Francis Franklin

71.

In pea plants, tall (T) plant alleles are dominant to short (t) plant alleles. If two tall plants (each with the genotype Tt) are crossed, what is the probability that the cross would result in a short pea plant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

72.

How many alleles do you inherit from EACH parent for a specific trait?

a)

1

b)

2

73.

A tool used to predict the probability of offspring inheriting certain traits is called a ...

a)

karyotype

b)

Punnett Square

74.

The study of heredity is called ....

a)

biology

b)

genetics

c)

chemistry

75.

The physical expression of a trait is called the ...

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

76.

Genotype: Aa

a)

homozygous dominant

b)

homozygous recessive

c)

heterozygous dominant

77.

Which of the following is a PHENOTYPE for flower color in pea plants?

a)

Pp

b)

PP

c)

Purple

78.

Is, Dd, a phenotype or genotype?

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

N/A

d)

Tik Tok

79.

TT an example of a....

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

80.

A flower's red color an example of a....

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

81.

If white color is recessive in flowers, what would a homozygous recessive flower's genotype look like?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

82.

If red color is dominant in flowers, what would a heterozygous flower's genotype look like?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

83.

Natural selection results in change in a population's _____________ traits over time.

a)

inherited

b)

acquired

84.

Individuals undergo evolution.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

86.

Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?

a)

People selectively breeding hamsters for size.

b)

Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.

c)

Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.

d)

Male birds of certain species inheriting colorful feathers that are more attractive to females.

87.

The pelvic bone of whales is not needed for movement within the water. This is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

88.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

89.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

90.

Below are the % similarities of DNA between whales and other species. Based on this, which are whales most closely related to?

a)

Pig, 68.4%

b)

Hippo, 83.4%

c)

Mouse, 38.4%

91.

Which best describes the phrase survival of the fittest?

a)

strongest in a population are most successful

b)

fastest in a population are most successful

c)

those that can survive and reproduce are most successful

d)

those that can live the longest are most successful

92.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
93.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
94.
The study of the early stages of development that is one evidence of evolution is:
a)
Homologous Structures
b)
Embryology
c)
Vestigial Organs
95.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
96.

The cave fish and minnow are related to each other but the cave fish is blind and only has the remnants of an eye. What type of structure is this?

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

97.

What are the three reactants of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

light energy

98.

What are the two products of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

light energy

99.

Which organisms are capable of performing photosynthesis?

a)

some bacteria

b)

animals

c)

algae

d)

plants

100.

Photosynthesis nourishes almost the entire living world. Producers perform photosynthesis and consumers eat producers.

a)

true

b)

false

101.

C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for this important molecule made during photosynthesis

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

light energy

102.

During photosynthesis ​ (a)   energy is converted into ​ (b)   energy.

Choose from the below words
light
chemical
ATP
electric
103.
The process of converting sunlight energy into chemical energy stored in a molecule is called
a)
Cellular respiration
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Carbon dioxide
104.
One molecule given off by plants during photosynthesis is
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Water
c)
Oxygen
d)
Mitochondria
105.
Photosythesis happens in a cell's 
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cell Wall
106.

Which plant organelle transforms light into glucose to use as food?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Chloroplasts

d)

Nucleus

107.
What is an autotroph?
a)
an organism that can make their own food. 
b)
an organism that cannot make their own food
c)
Herbivore
d)
Omnivore
108.
Energy is released from ATP when
a)
a phosphate group is added
b)
adenine bonds to ribose
c)
ATP is exposed to sunlight
d)
a phosphate group is removed
109.
Plants need carbon dioxide from their environment to produce glucose during which stage of photosynthesis? 
a)
The light-dependent stage
b)
The light-independent stage 
c)
The electron transport chain
d)
ATP formation
110.
What molecule absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
111.
Which term is the part of photosynthesis which uses ATP from the first stage in order to produce glucose? Hint:  Occurs in the stroma!
a)
light- independent reactions
b)
cellular respiration
c)
light- dependent reactions
d)
 photosynthesis
112.
Which bond of the ATP molecule is broken in order to release energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
113.

Plants gather energy with light-absorbing molecules called

a)

thylakoids.

b)

pigments.

c)

chloroplasts.

d)

glucose.

114.

What happens when chlorophyll is struck by sunlight?

a)

A chemical reaction turns chlorophyll into high energy carbohydrates.

b)

Energy from fat molecules is released.

c)

The electrons in the chlorophyll molecule become energized.

d)

The chlorophyll molecule is broken into two parts.

115.

Which structure in the figure above represents a single thylakoid?

a)

Structure A

b)

Structure B

c)

Structure C

d)

Structure D

116.

If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant's environment, what would you expect to happen to the plant's production of high-energy sugars?

a)

More sugars will be produced.

b)

The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.

c)

No sugars will be produced.

d)

Fewer sugars will be produced at first, but then the plant will recover.

117.

What two energy molecules are made by the light reaction? Select both answers.

a)

NADPH

b)

glucose

c)

ATP

d)

oxygen gas

118.

What is this reaction showing? (select 2 correct)

a)

production of carbon dioxide

b)

production of oxygen gas

c)

production of sugar

d)

production of water

119.

Which of the following is NOT a limiting factor for photosynthesis? (It is not needed for photosynthesis)

a)

light

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

temperature

120.

Which wavelengths of light do chlorophyll absorb the best

a)

Green and red

b)

Green and blue

c)

Red and blue

d)

Red green and blue

121.
Why do leaves look green?
a)
it reflects all colors but green
b)
it reflects yellow and blue
c)
it reflects green light
d)
it absorbs green light
122.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reactions?

a)

Oxygen

b)

NADPH

c)

ATP

d)

Glucose (Sugar)

123.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

124.

Which structure is made of tissue?

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Organism

125.

Which structure is made of tissue?

a)

Cell

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Organism

126.

Which system transports nutrients and oxygen to the parts of the body?

a)

Respiratory System

b)

Digestive System

c)

Circulatory System

d)

Integumentary System

127.

Which system consists of the skin, hair, and nails?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Respiratory

c)

Nervous

d)

Integumentary

128.

What is the most complex structure?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Organ System

d)

Cell

129.

Which systems are at work when you are sweating?

a)

Circulatory and Respiratory

b)

Integumentary and Nervous

c)

Muscular and Skeletal

d)

Respiratory and Integumentary

130.

Which system is responsible for the absorption of nutrition?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Integumentary

c)

Digestive

d)

Respiratory

131.

Which system takes in information through the 5 senses?

a)

Nervous

b)

Respiratory

c)

Circulatory

d)

Digestive

132.

Which system includes the lungs and trachea?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Nervous

c)

Respiratory

d)

Skeletal

133.

Which system is this?

a)

Integumentary

b)

Respiratory

c)

Nervous

d)

Digestive

134.

Which two structures is this?

a)

Organs and Organ Systems

b)

Organs and Tissues

c)

Cells and Tissue

d)

Cells and Organ Systems

135.

Reorder the following from simplest to most complex.

a)

Organelle

b)

Cell

c)

Tissue

d)

Organ

e)

Organ System

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
136.

Match the organ system with its function

a)

Nervous System

1.

Controls the body

b)

Circulatory System

2.

Transports oxygen and nutrients through the body

c)

Muscular System

3.

Helps move the body

d)

Excretory System

4.

Removes waste

137.

Match the organ system with its function(s).

a)

Integumentary System

1.

Protects the body and helps control body temperature

b)

Skeletal System

2.

Provides support, protects organs, helps the body move

c)

Respiratory System

3.

Takes in oxygen and removes carbon dioxide

d)

Digestive System

4.

Breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and removes waste

138.

Someone is cold and shivers. Which systems are at work together?

a)

Respiratory, Skeletal, and Integumentary

b)

Nervous, Integumentary, and Muscular

c)

Nervous, Digestive, and Circulatory

139.

What is the smallest unit of life?

a)

atom

b)

organ

c)

tissue

d)

cell

140.

Drag the images to match the labels.

a)
1.

Cell

b)
2.

Tissue

c)
3.

Organ

d)
4.

Organ System

e)
5.

Organism

141.

Drag the images to match the labels

a)
1.

Cell

b)
2.

Tissue

c)
3.

Organ

d)
4.

Organ System

e)
5.

Organism

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