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Worksheets

400-490

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given temperature is classified as

a)

unsaturated

b)

supersaturated

c)

saturated

d)

dilute

e)

concentrated

2.

The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:

a)

Ca2+

b)

CO32–

c)

2Na1+

d)

CaCO3

e)

All of the substances above would be in the net ionic equation.

3.

Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?

a)

 1.5 m NaC

b)

1.5 m AgCl

c)

2.0 m C6H12O6

d)

2.0 m CaCl2

e)

1.0 m Al2(SO4)3

4.

Which equation is correctly balanced?

a)

Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl

b)

CH4+3O2 →CO2 +H2O

c)

2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2

d)

 H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O

e)

6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + H2O

5.

What color does the litmus acquire in the aqueous medium of potassium carbonate?

a)

red 

b)

green

c)

blue 

d)

colorless

6.

Which of the oxides is amphoteric?

a)

 Zn

b)

SiO2

c)

SiO 

d)

Na2O

7.

How many ions are formed during the dissociation of the (NH4)2SO4 molecule?

a)

2

b)

 9

c)

 3 

d)

 4

8.


What substances form Mn2+ ions during dissociation?


a)

KMnO4

b)

MnCI2

c)

Na2MnO4 

d)

MnO2

9.

Covalent coupling is carried out by:

a)

electronic clouds  

b)

valence electrons

c)

two common electrons, or an electron pair

d)

 electrostatic forces of attraction

10.

What is the number of neutrons in an atom 31 15 P?

a)

 31

b)

16

c)

15

d)

 46

11.

What is the number of orbitals on the f-sublevel?


a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

12.

 The chemical concept of "mole" shows:


a)

 the number of atoms of the substance 

b)

 the number of molecules of the substance


c)

 the amount of the substance 

d)

the molecular weight of the substance

13.

 It does not have amphoteric properties:


a)

 ZnO

b)

Zn(OH)2

c)

Al2O3

d)

Cu2O

14.

The chemical bond between ions is called:

a)

cationic anion 

b)

 ionized

c)

ionic 

d)

hydrogen

15.

If an atom contains 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. What is its mass number?


a)

4

b)

8

c)

2

d)

16

16.

A pure substance made of the same type of atoms is called a(n)

a)

atom

b)

molecule

c)

compound

d)

element

17.

A polar molecule, such as the one involved in a hydrogen bond, is sometimes called _____.

a)

a dipole

b)

simply, hydrogen

c)

 tripole

d)

a covalent bond

18.

What type of bond occurs between two different molecules due to polarity?

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Metallic 

19.

The reactant in a redox reaction that readily donates electrons is called a/an:

a)

dehydrogenase

b)

redox agent

c)

reducing agent

d)

coenzyme

e)

oxidizing agent

20.

Why does salt dissolve in water?

a)

Water is a weaker ion than sodium.

b)

Salt does not dissolve in water.

c)

Water is a stronger ion than chlorine.

d)

Water is a polar substance.

e)

Water is a non-polar substance.


21.

If a carbon atom has four valence electrons, which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. Carbon can form a triple covalent bond with another carbon atom.

II. A carbon atom CANNOT form two double bonds simultaneously.

III. A carbon atom can form four single covalent bonds simultaneously.

a)

I

b)

I and III

c)

III

d)

I and II

e)

I and III

22.

An ionic bond occurs when a _____ and an _____ come together and form a bond.

a)

Cation: Anion

b)

Proton: Electron

c)

Nucleus: Outer shell

d)

Neutron: Electron

23.

 Which of the following statements is true?

I. In an ionic bond, electrons move toward the atom that is more electronegative.

II. A cation is a negatively charged atom.

III. A positively charged atom is called an anion.

IV. Under biological conditions, ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds.

a)

I

b)

IV

c)

III and IV

d)

II

e)

III

24.

 What are the three particles that make up all atoms?

a)

protons, neutrons, and isotopes.

b)

neutrons, isotopes, and electrons

c)

positive, negative, and neutrals

d)

Protons, neutrons, and electrons

25.

Simple substances include a substance whose formula under normal conditions is:

a)

P4

b)

N

c)

 B

d)

CO2

26.

Using the device shown in the figure below, by the method of displacement of air in a test tube, you can collect gas:

a)

hydrogen

b)

methane

c)

carbon monoxide (IV)

d)

ammonia

27.

The composition of all organic substances includes a chemical element:

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon

c)

silicon

d)

oxygen

28.

Set the correspondence between the element indicated in brackets and its oxidation state: a) -2 b) -3 c) +4 d) +6


a)

1a, 2d, 3c

b)

1b, 2d, 3c

c)

1a, 2c, 3d

d)

1b, 2c, 3a

29.

With the water displacement method, gas can be collected:

a)

 hydrogen bromide

b)

  1. ethane

c)

 sulfur dioxide

d)

ammonia

30.

Choose the correct statements:

a) among metals there are both s-, p-, d-, f-elements;

b) allotropic modifications form only sulfur and carbon;

c) all non-metals are in a gaseous state of aggregation;

d) iodine and bromine form molecular crystal lattices.


a)

a, c

b)

a, b, d

c)

a, d

d)

b, c

31.

 Indicate the number of hydrogen atoms in a sample of zinc acetate dihydate ((CH3COO)2Zn∙2H2O) weighing 131.4 g:

a)

3.612∙1023

b)

1.445∙1024

c)

2.167∙1024

d)

3.612∙1024

32.

 Nitrogen in the laboratory with minimal losses can be collected using the device shown in the figure:


a)

A, B, C

b)

 A, B, D

c)

A, B

d)

B

33.

The amount (mol) of CO2 that contains the same number of carbon atoms as there are in 1.4 g of CO2 is:

a)

0.025

b)

0.05

c)

 0.1

d)

0.15

34.

  Using the least-loss water displacement method, you can collect:

a)

  1. hydrogen

b)

 hydrogen chloride

c)

  1. ammonia

d)

  1. hydrogen bromide

35.

Which of the following elements can exhibit multiple oxidation states?

a)

Carbon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Silicon

e)

Sulfur

36.

 Which of the following compounds is an example of an ionic compound?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NaCl 

d)

CH4

37.

What is the name of the process that produces hydrogen gas from coal?

a)

Gasification

b)

Hydrogenation

c)

Pyrolysis

d)

Liquefaction

38.

Which of the following elements is a transition metal?

a)

Calcium

b)

 Copper 

c)

Potassium

d)

Aluminum

39.

 Which of the following is a powerful oxidizing agent?

a)

 Nitric acid

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Chlorine gas

d)

Potassium permanganate

40.

What is the oxidation state of carbon in methane (CH4)?

a)

+1

b)

 -1

c)

0

d)

-4

41.

Which compound is commonly used as a desiccant in laboratories?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Silica gel

c)

Magnesium oxide

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

42.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a phosphorus atom?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p3

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p3

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p3 6s2 4f14 5d10 6p3

43.

Which of the following is NOT an allotrope of carbon?

a)

 Graphene

b)

Diamond

c)

Silicon carbide

d)

Buckminsterfullerene

44.

What is the coordination number of a central metal atom in a square planar complex?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

45.

Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water?

a)

 NaCl

b)

AgCl 

c)

KCl

d)

NH4Cl

46.

What is the molecular shape of ammonia (NH3)?

a)

 Linear

b)

Trigonal planar

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Octahedral

47.

Which of the following compounds is an example of a Lewis acid?

a)

NH3

b)

H2O

c)

BF3

d)

 HCl

48.

Which of the following is a paramagnetic species?

a)

O2 

b)

N2

c)

CO2

d)

 H2O

49.

What is the pH of a solution with a hydronium ion concentration of 1 x 10^-9M?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

9

d)

5

50.

What is the acid-base reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide?

a)

 HCl + NaOH -> NaCl + H2O

b)

HCl + NaOH -> H2O + NaCl

c)

NaOH + H2SO4 -> Na2SO4 + H2

d)

 HClO4 + NaOH -> NaClO4 + H2O4

51.

Which of the following compounds exhibits paramagnetism?

a)

 CO

b)


O2

c)

 C6H6

d)

 N2

e)

H2O

52.

onsider the compound XCl4, where X represents an element. Which of the following elements could X be?

a)

 Sulfur (S)

b)

Chlorine (Cl)

c)

Oxygen (O)

d)

Phosphorus (P)

53.

The compound M3N2 is synthesized by the reaction of metal M with nitrogen gas (N2). If 0.50 moles of M3N2 is produced, how many moles of nitrogen gas were consumed in the reaction?

a)

0.25 moles

b)

1.0 moles

c)

2.0 moles

d)

3.0 moles

54.

Which of the following coordination compounds exhibits geometric isomerism?

a)

[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+

b)

[Co(NH3)4Cl2]2+

c)

[Co(en)2Cl2]2+

d)

[Co(NH3)4(en)]3+

e)

[Co(NH3)4(en)]2+

55.

Which of the following is not a physical process?

a)

distillation 

b)

filtration

c)

chromatography 

d)

evaporation

e)

none of the above

56.

The mass in grams of 2.6 x 1022 chlorine atoms is:

a)

4.4

b)

11

c)

0.76

d)

1.5

e)

3.2

57.

The valence electron equal to …?

a)

The number of electros in atom

b)

The number of electrons in cation

c)

The number of electrons in anion 

d)

The number of electrons in outer shell 

e)

The number of electrons in inner shell 

58.

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:

a)

2

b)

10

c)

6

d)

14

e)

8

59.

An electron dot diagram shows:

a)

protons 

b)

electrons 

c)

neutron 

d)

valence electron

e)

none of them 

60.

What is the correct CHEMICAL name for H2O

a)

water

b)

hydrogen oxide

c)

dihydrogen oxide

d)

dihydrogen monoxide

e)

all of them

61.

Neutral oxides:

a)

NO, CO, Na2O

b)

NO, N2O, CO

c)

Na2 O, CO, NO

d)

N2 O3 , NO, CO2

e)

Na2 O, CO, N2 O3 

62.

Which is the strongest acid?

a)

HClO4

b)

HClO3

c)

HClO2

d)

HClO

e)

HF

63.

 Which molecule is nonpolar?

a)

H2Se

b)

BeH2

c)

PF3

d)

CHCl3

e)

SO2

64.

Calculate  Ho for the reaction:

Na2O(s) + SO3(g)   Na2SO4(g)

given the following information:

Ho (1) Na(s) + H2O(l)   NaOH(s) + 1/2 H2(g) -146 kJ

(2) Na2SO4(s) + H2O(l)   2NaOH(s) + SO3(g) +418 kJ

(3) 2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g)   4Na(s) + 2H2O(l) +259 kJ

a)

+255 kJ

b)

-435 kJ

c)

-581 kJ

d)

+531 kJ

e)

-452 kJ

65.

 The Ellingham diagram cannot tell

a)

  1. about the speed of reaction

b)

about the feasibility of a reaction

c)

about which substance is a better reducing agent

d)

about the thermodynamic concept of a reaction

66.

Chromatography is based on the principle of

a)

  1. difference in density

b)

difference in absorption

c)

  1. difference in mass

d)

difference in adsorption

67.

The process of conversion of precipitates into the colloidal solution is called

a)

  1. dialysis

b)

  1. dissolution

c)

peptization

d)

electrophoresis

68.

In Van Arkel method, the metal is heated with

a)

bromine

b)

  1. chlorine

c)

carbon

d)

iodine

69.

Magnesium metal is not used for the reduction of alumina because

a)

  1. it is thermodynamically not feasible

b)

  1. the temperature requirement is high

c)

magnesium is not a good reducing agent

d)

  1. it is evident from Ellingham diagram

70.

Which of the following is the best reducing agent?

a)

Lithium

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Magnesium

71.

Ellingham diagram tells that

a)

  1. how easily a substance can be reduced

b)

how easily a substance can be oxidised

c)

  1. how easily a substance can oxidise other substance

d)

  1. none of the above

72.

What is the process of reduction of alumina using carbon called?

a)

Mond's process

b)

Van Arkel method

c)

Hydrometallurgy

d)

Hall-Heroult process

73.

In Ellingham diagram, the temperature range for the feasibility of a reaction is indicated by

a)

  1. the increase in slope of the curve

b)

the decrease in slope of the curve

c)

the point of intersection of the curves

d)

x-axis of the curve

74.

 Free energy charge is

a)

  1. inversely related to rate constant

b)

directly related to rate constant

c)

  1. directly related to negative value of rate constant

d)

  1.  directly related to minus log of rate constant

75.

 Choose the correct statements:

a) among metals there are both s-, p-, d-, f-elements;

b) allotropic modifications form only sulfur and carbon;

c) all non-metals are in a gaseous state of aggregation;

d) iodine and bromine form molecular crystal lattices.


a)

 a, c

b)

a, b, d

c)

a, d

d)

 b, c

76.

A polar molecule, such as the one involved in a hydrogen bond, is sometimes called _____.

a)

a dipole

b)

simply, hydrogen

c)

a tripole

d)

a covalent bond

77.

High purity oxygen in used in which of the mentioned cases?

a)

Combustion

b)

Medical purposes

c)

Chemical reactions

d)

Oxidation processes

78.

An Isochore is a graph which is plotted at

a)

 constant pressure

b)

constant temperature

c)

constant volume

d)

not any constant parameter

79.

To speed up the process of ultrafiltration

a)

  1. high temperature is required

b)

  1. pressure or suction is applied

c)

  1. high temperature and high pressure is applied

d)

more volume has to be taken

80.

The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges is called

a)

  1. electrode potential

b)

e.m.f.

c)

zeta potential

d)

reduction potential

81.

The change in slope in the Ellingham diagram indicates

a)

  1. change in phase

b)

  1. ease of reduction

c)

  1. increase in entropy

d)

decrease in free energy

82.

When copper is heated with  conc. HNO3 it produces 

a)

Cu(NO3)2 and NO2

b)

Cu(NO3)2  and NO

c)

Cu(NO3)2 and NO2,NO

d)

Cu(NO3)2 and N2O

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