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HRM 101 SELECTION

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the process of choosing from a group of qualified applicants the individual best suited for a particular position.?

a)

recruitment

b)

Selection

c)

HR planning

d)

job bidding

2.

Applicant tracking systems are primarily used for ________.

a)

A) generating legally appropriate interview questions

b)

B) sorting résumés from online job boards

c)

C) measuring the quality of applicants

d)

D) tracking HR manager requisitions

3.

Applicant tracking systems are primarily used for ________.

a)

A) generating legally appropriate interview questions

b)

B) sorting résumés from online job boards

c)

C) measuring the quality of applicants

d)

D) tracking HR manager requisitions

4.

The purpose of ________ is to help a company manage potential and actual applicants in an organized manner.

a)

A) applicant tracking

b)

B) candidate relationship management

c)

C) human capital metrics

d)

D) work-sample validity

5.

Applicant tracking systems are primarily used for ________.

a)

A) generating legally appropriate interview questions

b)

B) sorting résumés from online job boards

c)

C) measuring the quality of applicants

d)

D) tracking HR manager requisitions

6.

What is the length of the typical probationary period?

a)

A) 30 to 60 days

b)

B) 60 to 90 days

c)

C) 90 to 180 days

d)

D) one year

7.

Which of the following is the primary factor that determines the success or failure of a company?

a)

A) visionary business strategy

b)

B) high-tech control systems

c)

C) sound organizational structure

d)

D) competent employees

8.

The selection process typically begins with the ________.

a)

A) application review

b)

B) employment interview

c)

C) background check

d)

D) preliminary interview

9.

Carlos, an HR manager, has reviewed the applications and résumés of five candidates for a data analyst position at his firm. Which of the following is the most likely next step that Carlos will take in the selection process?

a)

A) interviewing applicants for prescreening

b)

B) having applicants take physical exams

c)

C) checking applicants' references

d)

D) giving applicants selection tests

10.

What is a software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently?

a)

A) applicant tracking system

b)

B) selection tracking process

c)

C) cognitive aptitude test

d)

D) job selection system

11.

What are the two possible outcomes of a good selection decision?

A) cognitive invalid or valid

a)

A) cognitive invalid or valid

b)

B) a qualified candidate is offered employment or an unqualified candidate is not offered employment

c)

C) qualified candidate not offered employment or unqualified candidate offered employment

d)

D) low reliability or high validity

12.

The primary purpose of the preliminary interview is ________.

a)

A) gathering a detailed work history from applicants

b)

B) measuring the likelihood of an applicant's success

c)

C) eliminating unqualified applicants

d)

D) determining applicant interest

13.

Tyra, an HR manager at an automotive parts facility, received 500 online applications for 30 job openings in the production department. To determine if an applicant is qualified, Tyra will most likely compare the information provided in each application to a ________.

a)

A) job description

b)

B) job-knowledge test

c)

C) merit pay program

d)

D) gainsharing assessment

14.

Which of the following should NOT be requested on a job application form?

a)

A) experience

b)

B) education

c)

C) birthplace

d)

D) skills

15.

A goal-directed summary of a person's experience, education, and training developed for use in the selection process is known as a(n) ________.

a)

A) résumé

b)

B) application form

c)

C) job requisition

d)

D) work sample test

16.

Which term refers to words or phrases that are used to search databases for résumés that match?

a)

A) application match

b)

B) job objective

c)

C) résumé hit

d)

D) keyword

17.

Which of the following factors would most likely be rated in a selection test?

a)

A) habits

b)

B) family life

c)

C) motivation

d)

D) financial equity

18.

The uniformity of the procedures and conditions related to administering tests is referred to as ________.

a)

A) objectivity

b)

B) norms

c)

C) standardization

d)

D) reliability

19.

When everyone scoring a test obtains the same results, the test is said to be ________.

a)

A) reliable

b)

B) objective

c)

C) valid

d)

D) consistent

20.

What provides a frame of reference for comparing an applicant's performance with the performance of similar individuals?

a)

A) norms

b)

B) keywords

c)

C) objectivity

d)

D) reliability

21.

A selection tool that provides consistent results is said to be ________.

a)

A) valid

b)

B) reliable

c)

C) objective

d)

D) standardized

22.

A student takes an IQ test one week and scores 140. The student retakes the test one week later and scores 90. Which of the following best describes the test?

a)

A) unreliable

b)

B) abnormal

c)

C) subjective

d)

D) objective

23.

The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure is known as ________.

a)

A) reliability

b)

B) subjectivity

c)

C) validity

d)

D) objectivity

24.

Which of the following can serve as a substitute for certain selection tools and as a method of determining an employee's suitability?

a)

A) probationary period

b)

B) stress interview

c)

C) reference check

d)

D) selection ratio

25.

Which of the following selection ratios indicates the highest number of qualified applicants for a position?

a)

A) 10.0

b)

B) 1.00

c)

C) 0.10

d)

D) 0.01

26.

What recruitment/selection metric focuses on the number of applicants who accepted the job divided by the number who were offered the job?

a)

A) recruiting costs

b)

B) selection rate

c)

C) acceptance rate

d)

D) turnover rate

27.

What does the unstructured interview involve?

a)

A) asking candidates probing, open-ended questions

b)

B) using novice interviewers to assess candidates

c)

C) validating candidate test scores against norms

d)

D) asking identical questions to all candidates

28.

The term "False Starts" refers to which of the following?

a)

A) job candidates who are from competing firms

b)

B) job candidates who fail employee selection tests

c)

C) employees who fail to meet performance goals

d)

D) employees who quit within 120 days of being hired

29.

The most basic interviewing rule is to ________.

a)

A) dominate every aspect of the interview

b)

B) never let a job applicant see you sweat

c)

C) ask only job-related questions

d)

D) save the realistic job preview until after the candidate has been hired

30.

When are employers required to validate their selection tests?

a)

A) There is no such requirement

b)

B) All selection tests are validated automatically.

c)

C) when an employment discrimination lawsuit has been filed

d)

D) when the selection process results in an adverse impact on a protected group

31.

When criterion-related validity is used, the scores on the selection test are compared to ________.

a)

A) scores on the pre-test

b)

B) job performance factors

c)

C) scores on the post-test

d)

D) a national norm

32.

During the selection process for an IT position, Jeff was required to take a test that measured his memory and vocabulary. Which type of test did Jeff most likely take?

a)

A) work-sample

b)

B) psychomotor abilities

c)

C) job knowledge

d)

D) cognitive ability

33.

Robert, an HR manager, is preparing to interview candidates for a software engineer position. Which of the following is LEAST likely to appear on Robert's interview planning checklist?

a)

A) developing questions related to the qualities sought

b)

B) prescreening additional applicants with behavioral selection tests

c)

C) comparing an applicant's application and résumé with job requirements

d)

D) preparing a step-by-step plan to present the position, company, division, and department

34.

Several applicants interacting in the presence of one or more interviewers is typical of what type of interview?

a)

A) stress

b)

B) board

c)

C) group

d)

D) role-play

35.

A structured interview where applicants are asked to relate actual incidents from their past relevant to the target job is referred to as a ________.

a)

A) stress interview

b)

B) career related preview

c)

C) behavioral interview

d)

D) realistic interview

36.

A structured interview usually contains all of the following questions EXCEPT ________.

a)

A) situational questions

b)

B) job knowledge questions

c)

C) job sample simulation questions

d)

D) family and medical history questions

37.

What does the unstructured interview involve?

a)

A) asking candidates probing, open-ended questions

b)

B) using novice interviewers to assess candidates

c)

C) validating candidate test scores against norms

d)

D) asking identical questions to all candidates

38.

What is a goal-oriented conversation in which the interviewer and applicant exchange information called?

a)

A) recruitment interview

b)

B) training interview

c)

C) development interview

d)

D) employment interview

39.

Kim is applying for a job as an accounts specialist, which will require extensive use of Excel. During the selection process, the employer provides Kim with data and asks her to compile an Excel spreadsheet with the information. Which type of test did Kim most likely take?

a)

A) cognitive aptitude

b)

B) psychomotor abilities

c)

C) job knowledge

d)

D) work-sample

40.

During the selection process for a telemarketing position, Alex was given a test to measure his awareness of the job's duties. Which type of test did Alex most likely take?

a)

A) psychomotor abilities

b)

B) cognitive aptitude

c)

C) job knowledge

d)

D) work-sample

41.

During the selection process for a telemarketing position, Alex was given a test to measure his awareness of the job's duties. Which type of test did Alex most likely take?

a)

A) psychomotor abilities

b)

B) cognitive aptitude

c)

C) job knowledge

d)

D) work-sample

42.

A test validation method whereby a person performs certain tasks that are actually required by the job is referred to as ________.

a)

A) concurrent validity

b)

B) content validity

c)

C) construct validity

d)

D) predictive validity

43.

Kyla is applying for a job at a telecommunications company as a terminal operator, which primarily involves word processing tasks. Kyla has been asked to take a word processing test, so the firm is most likely using ________ in the selection process.

a)

A) construct validity

b)

B) content validity

c)

C) concurrent validity

d)

D) predictive validity

44.

A test validation method that determines whether a test measures certain traits that job analysis finds to be important in performing a job is referred to as ________ validity

a)

A) construct

b)

B) content

c)

C) concurrent

d)

D) predictive