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MI 1.1 Quiz

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 3hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is not a medical intervention?
a)
Toothbrush
b)
Appendectomy
c)
Physical therapy
d)
None of these
2.
In an ELISA assay, ________ and ________ are added to facilitate a color change.
a)
antibodies and antigens
b)
primary antibodies and secondary antibodies
c)
enzymes and substrates
d)
antigen and enzymes
3.
Sue Smith was inflicted with 
a)
viral meningitis
b)
mononucleosis
c)
bacterial meningitis
d)
influenza H1N1
4.
Which of the following most definitively identifies a pathogen during an epidemic?
a)
Consensus of the symptoms of those that are affected.
b)
Presence or absence of a rash.
c)
Response to antibiotics.
d)
DNA sequencing.
5.
A sample of spinal fluid is taken from a college student suspected to have contracted spinal meningitis.Which diagnostic test will confirm the diagnosis fastest?
a)
Culturing the spinal fluid and testing for bacterial colony growth in a Petri dish.
b)
An ELISA Assay to determine the presence of antigens or antibodies.
c)
DNA sequencing
d)
Protein Chromatography
6.

What component of DNA sequencing allows for the copying of pathogen DNA and not human or other DNA?

a)

The use of fluorescent nucleotides

b)

DNA primers

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

Heating and cooling during PCR

7.

The collection, classification, storage and analysis of biochemical and biological information using computers, especially as applied to molecular genetics and genomics is known as which of the following?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Bioinformatics

c)

Immunological assay

d)

ELISA

8.
Small amounts of DNA of a pathogen can be amplified to produce millions of copies by which process?
a)
ELISA
b)
DNA sequencing
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Serial Dilution
9.

Which of the following base pairs is matched correctly?

a)

Guanine and Thymine

b)

Cytosine and Adenine

c)

Adenine and Thymine

d)

Thymine and Cytosine

10.

During PCR, what happens during the Denaturation step?

a)

DNA strands are separated according to size using gel electrophoresis.

b)

Primers form base pairs with the single-stranded template DNA.

c)

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the primer to elongate the new strand.

d)

Hydrogen bonds between bases are broken using high heat to separate DNA strands.

11.

During which PCR step do primers form complementary base pairs with single-stranded template DNA?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Annealing

c)

Extension

d)

Synthesis

12.

DNA has a ___________ charge and will migrate through a gel towards the ___________ electrode.

a)

positive, negative

b)

positive, positive

c)

negative, positive

d)

negative, negative

13.

Larger DNA fragments move through a gel _____________ smaller DNA fragments.

a)

faster than

b)

at the same rate as

c)

slower than

14.

Place the steps of DNA Sequencing below into their correct order.

A. Detection of fluorescence w/ lasers & sensors

B. PCR w/ fluorescent dideoxynucleotides

C. Separate DNA by size w/ gel electrophoresis

D. Match DNA sequence using BLAST database

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

B, C, A, D

c)

B, A, C, D

d)

D, B, C, A

15.

Write the correct sequence that matches this chromatogram.

(a)  

16.

Any measure whose purpose is to improve health or alter the course of a disease is called

a)

quality of life

b)

medical intervention

c)

medication

d)

philosophy

17.

What is a pathogen?

a)

finding connections between individuals and track disease exposure

b)

A sudden rise in the incidence of a disease

c)

A specific causative agent of disease

d)

covering mouth and nose with a mask

18.

What is an outbreak?

a)

finding connections between individuals and track disease exposure

b)

A sudden rise in the incidence of a disease

c)

A specific causative agent of disease

d)

covering mouth and nose with a mask

19.

What is contact tracing?

a)

finding connections between individuals and track disease exposure

b)

A sudden rise in the incidence of a disease

c)

A specific causative agent of disease

d)

covering mouth and nose with a mask

20.

A protein serving as a catalyst; a chemical agent that changes the rate of reaction without being consumed

a)

Enzyme

b)

Antigen

c)

Genome

d)

Primer

21.

The collection, classification, storage, and analysis of biochemical and biological information using computers especially as applied in molecular genetics and genomics

a)

Substrate

b)

Serial Dilution

c)

Bioinformatics

d)

Concentration

22.

A specific agent causing the body harm or disease

a)

Outbreak

b)

Primer

c)

Antigen

d)

Pathogen

23.

A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances, which may be solids, liquids, gases, or a combination of these

a)

Solvent

b)

Solution

c)

Solute

d)

Antibody

24.

A short segment of DNA that acts as the starting point for a new strand

a)

Solvent

b)

Primer

c)

Genome

d)

Enzyme

25.

A substance, usually a liquid, capable of dissolving another substance

a)

Solute

b)

Substrate

c)

Concentration

d)

Solvent

26.

A substance dissolved in another substance

a)

Solute

b)

Solution

c)

Solvent

d)

Outbreak

27.

The amount of a specified substance in a unit amount of another substance (usually reported out as mass/volume)

a)

Solution

b)

Substrate

c)

Serial Dilution

d)

Concentration

28.

A foreign macromolecule that does not belong to the host organism and elicits an immune response

a)

Enzyme

b)

Antigen

c)

Antibody

d)

Pathogen

29.

A stepwise dilution of a substance in solution

a)

Concentration

b)

Solute

c)

Serial Dilution

d)

Solvent

30.

A quantitative diagnostic test for an antibody or antigen in which the test material (sample) is absorbed on a surface and exposed either to a complex of an enzyme linked to an antibody specific for the antigen OR an enzyme linked to an anti-immunoglobulin specific for the antibody followed by reaction of the enzyme with a substrate to yield a colored product corresponding to the concentration of the test material

a)

Enzyme

b)

Solvent

c)

ELISA

d)

Bioinformatics

31.

An organism's genes; all of an organism's genetic material

a)

Genome

b)

Primer

c)

Enzyme

d)

Solute

32.

The reactant on which an enzyme works

a)

Solute

b)

Solvent

c)

Substrate

d)

Solution

33.

An antigen-binding protein, produced by B cells

a)

Pathogen

b)

Antibody

c)

Antigen

d)

Enzyme

34.

A sudden rise in the incidence of a disease

a)

Outbreak

b)

Pathogen

c)

Antigen

d)

Medical Intervention

35.

What does ELISA stand for

a)

Enzyme linked immunosorbent Assay

b)

Enzyme Leuko-immune Standard Assessment

c)

Estimated Lymph Integrated System Assessment

d)

Ecoli Immune System Antigen

36.

In an ELISA assay, ________ and ________ are added to facilitate a color change.

a)

antibodies and antigens

b)

primary antibodies and secondary antibodies

c)

enzymes and substrates

d)

antigen and enzymes

37.

Which of the following most definitively identifies a pathogen during an epidemic?

a)

Consensus of the symptoms of those that are affected.

b)

Presence or absence of a rash.

c)

Response to antibiotics.

d)

DNA sequencing.

38.

Small amounts of DNA of a pathogen can be amplified to produce millions of copies by which process?

a)

ELISA

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Serial Dilution

39.

After adding the secondary antibody and enzyme complex to the ELISA, what is added next (after washing) to create the color change?

a)

substrate

b)

primary antibody

c)

enzyme #2

d)

antigen

40.

Which one cannot be determined by ELISA

a)

Concentration of antigens

b)

Presence of disease

c)

Genetic sequence of a pathogen

d)

Order of infection

41.

What component of DNA sequencing allows for the copying of pathogen DNA and not human or other DNA?

a)

The use of fluorescent nucleotides

b)

DNA primers

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

Heating and cooling during PCR

42.

What test would diagnose possible meningitis the fastest

a)

Culturing, and testing colony growth

b)

ELISA to see if there are antigens or antibodies

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Protein Chromatography

43.

What do dideoxynucleotides (the fluorescent bases) do when added to a growing DNA strand during Cycle Sequencing?

a)

They stop the elongation of that strand.

b)

That double the length of that strand.

c)

They shorten the length of the strand.

d)

They denature the strand.

44.

Place the steps of DNA Sequencing below into their correct order.

A. Detection of fluorescence w/ lasers & sensors

B. PCR w/ fluorescent dideoxynucleotides

C. Separate DNA by size w/ gel electrophoresis

D. Match DNA sequence using BLAST database

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

B, C, A, D

c)

B, A, C, D

d)

D, B, C, A

45.

Imagine you are a doctor. A patient comes to you with symptoms like fever, lethargy, and a stiff neck. However, they also have a rash with scabs. Based on your knowledge, which of these is NOT a typical symptom of a meningitis infection?

a)

Fever

b)

Lethargy

c)

Stiff Neck

d)

Rash with scabs

46.

A college student, John, has been experiencing severe headaches and neck stiffness. His doctor suspects he might have contracted spinal meningitis and decides to take a sample of his spinal fluid.Which diagnostic test will John's doctor use to confirm the diagnosis fastest?

a)

Culturing the spinal fluid and testing for bacterial colony growth in a Petri dish.

b)

An ELISA Assay to determine the presence of antigens or antibodies.

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Protein Chromatography

47.
The mass of the beaker was 122 grams.
a)
Qualitative data
b)
Quantitative data
48.
It tastes sour.
a)
Qualitative data
b)
Quantitative data
49.
When a positive + result occurs ELISA, then one could conclude that...
a)
a + result always means illness
b)
the antibody is present
c)
it is a false + and no illness
d)
an enzyme is present 
50.
What does the symbol μL stand for?
a)
nanoliters
b)
milliters
c)
microliters
d)
muliters
51.
Which of the following are commonly tested for using the ELISA method?
a)

Covid

b)
Pregnancy
c)

Strep Throat

d)
All of these
52.

When determining the genetic sequence of an organism; PCR is used to duplicate DNA, enzymes cut it into different sized pieces, electrophoresis is used to sort it and laser is used to

a)

read the genetic sequence based on fluorescent nucleotides

b)

cut the DNA fragments into individual genes segments

c)

calculate the speed at which the DNA fragments move through the gel

d)

All of these

53.

While working in a pathogen lab an epidemiologist asks you to run a BLAST, what are they expecting you to do?

a)

Search a national database to match the genome sequence of the sample

b)

Use restriction enzymes to cut DNA fragments into smaller and smaller pieces

c)

Use hot vapor to disinfect a room contaminated by an unknown pathogen

d)

Determine what anitbodies are needed to deactivate a specific antigen

54.

What does it mean to 'amplify' a DNA sample

a)

Recombine DNA using restriction enzymes

b)

Grow bacteria that host that DNA fragment in a petri dish

c)

Use PCR to make many more copies

d)

Run the DNA fragment through a sequence to get the genome

55.

B cells produce uniquely shaped proteins called antibodies that bind to ______ to mark them for destruction.

a)

Enzymes

b)

Secondary Antibodies

c)

Antigens

d)

Hormones

56.

What is the role of the substrate in an ELISA test?

a)

It binds to the enzyme and causes a color change

b)

No substrate is used in an ELISA

57.

Which is the correct sequence when performing an ELISA

a)

substrate > antigen > primary antibody > secondary antibody > enzyme

b)

primary antibody > secondary antibody >substrate > antigen > enzyme

c)

secondary antibody >substrate > antigen > primary antibody > enzyme

d)

antigen > primary antibody > secondary antibody > enzyme > substrate

58.

This ELISA samples show different tints of blue. What can we infer about the patients who's test resulted in light tinted blues?

a)

They are likely sickest because this shows their body isn't making many antibodies

b)

They are probably getting over being sick because the light color indicates they have very few antigens

c)

We can ONLY determine that they have a lower number of antigens

d)

We can ONLY determine that they have the most antibody activity

59.

In and ELISA test the secondary antibody is specially created in a lab to have an enzyme attached to it. What is the role of that enzyme

a)

The enzyme binds to the antigen to inactivate it and keep the lab safe

b)

The enzyme causes the color change in the substrate

c)

The enzyme helps wash antigens out of the test

d)

The enzyme binds the secondary antibody to the primary antibody

60.

What information is needed to best use the BLAST bioinformatics tool?

a)

The symptoms of the disease

b)

The number of people infected

c)

The concentration of the the ELISA results

d)

A nucleotide sequence

61.

When developing a genome a DNA stand is cut into fragments that vary by 1 nucleotide in length. How is this DNA then sorted?

a)

A centrifuge spins the DNA and the smallest pieces float to the top and the larger sink to the bottom

b)

A laser is used to read the different amounts of fluorescent nucleotides

c)

Gel electrophoresis is used with the smallest piece of DNA traveling the fastest through the gel

d)

Computer simulations are used to capture the amount of light refracted from the DNA segments

62.

Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?

a)

Because it is cheaper than other polymerases

b)

Because it can replicate DNA at room temperature

c)

Because it is stable at high temperatures

d)

Because it can recognize specific DNA sequences

63.

Which enzyme is used to amplify DNA segments in PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Restriction enzyme