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Year 10 Semester Quiz preparation

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The only force acting on the nebulae is ________.
a)
thermal
b)
singular
c)
gravity
d)
microscopic
2.
A star is born when ________________ begins to happen.
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
nuclear abrasion
c)
crying
d)
nuclear fission
3.
The core of a Red Giant collapses and becomes a ___________________.
a)
White Dwarf
b)
Blue Supergiant
c)
Red Supergiant
d)
Black Hole
4.
After a supernova, the core can collapse into a neutron star, or if massive enough even a ___________.
a)
Black Hole
b)
White Dwarf
c)
Brown Dwarf
d)
Black Dwarf
5.
A black hole is an object so dense with so much gravity that even ________ cannot escape.
a)
man
b)
bacon
c)
spaceships
d)
light
6.
a gigantic explosion that causes the death of a large star
a)
pulsar
b)
red giant 
c)
supernova
d)
black hole
7.
The color of a star depends on its
a)
size
b)
temperature
c)
shape
d)
magnitude
8.
What color are the hottest stars?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
orange
d)
blue
9.
As our sun continues through its life cycle, it will _________.
a)
gradually get smaller and smaller until it dies out.
b)
Gradually get larger until its outer layers drift off.
c)
become denser and denser until it forms a black hole.
d)
become hotter and hotter until it becomes a blue hypergiant.
10.
All stars in the main sequence stage are fusing ________ into ________ in their cores.
a)
hydrogen into helium
b)
helium into carbon
c)
oxygen into iron
d)
helium into hydrogen
11.
What is the correct life cycle of a star like our Sun?
a)
Nebula, main sequence, red supergiant, supernova, black hole, neutron star
b)
nebula, main sequence, red giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf, black dwarf 
c)
Main sequence, white dwarf, red giant, red supergiant, nebula
d)
Nebula, main sequence, brown dwarf, white dwarf, black dwarf
12.
Which stage do stars spend the majority of their lives in?
a)
Nebula Stage
b)
Main Sequence
c)
Red Giant Stage
d)
Dying stage
13.
Why won't our sun ever become a black hole?
a)
It is too massive
b)
It is too old
c)
It is too young
d)
It is too small
14.
This is an image of the formation of a star, also known as a .... 
a)
Main Sequence
b)
Planetary Nebula
c)
Supernova
d)
Stellar Nebula
15.
what stage of the life cycle of a star is this? 
a)
Planetary Nebula
b)
Black Hole
c)
Neutron Star
d)
Giant/Supergiant
16.
What determines if a star becomes a giant or a supergiant?
a)
star size
b)
star temperature
c)
star color
d)
star luminosity
17.
What is the location of fusion in a star?
a)
in the cloud
b)
on the surface
c)
in the core
d)
in the red cloud
18.
Which planet is the largest?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
19.
The order of the planets is:
a)
Mars,Venus,Earth,
Mercury,Saturn
Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth,Venus,Mars
Jupiter, Neptune,
Mercury,Saturn,
Uranus
c)
Mercury,Venus,Earth
Mars,Jupiter,
Saturn,Uranus
Neptune
20.
Day and night is caused by the _____________ of earth on its axis.
a)
revolution
b)
orbit
c)
rotation
21.
The greater mass a planet has, 
a)
the greater the gravitational force it has
b)
the less gravitational force it has
c)
gravitational force does not depend on mass
22.

Which is the smallest planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Earth

d)

Venus

23.
What is the definition of "weight"?
a)
measure of the force of gravity on your body
b)
the time it takes to get on a ride 
c)
the amount of matter in an object
d)
the size of an object
24.
A measure of how much matter an object has is--
a)
weight
b)
gravity
c)
mass
d)
volume
25.
The weight of an object _________ as it moves away from the center of Earth.
a)
increases
b)
stays the same
c)
triples
d)
decreases
26.
On which celestial object would you weigh the most?
a)
Earth
b)
Jupiter
c)
Sun
d)
You would weigh the same on all celestial objects
27.

Why do all of the planets orbit the sun rather than Earth?

a)

the sun has more mass

b)

the sun is a star

c)

the Earth is heavier

d)

the sun is in the middle of the milky way

28.
As an object's mass increases, its gravitational pull will ____________.
a)
decrease
b)
increase
c)
stay the same
d)
get weaker
29.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
30.

John measures the length of each side of a square. He uses that value to calculate the perimeter.

IV: ​ ​ ​ (a)  

DV: ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
length of each side
perimeter
square
cannot be determined
31.

David measures how many inches his tomato plant grows every week.

IV: ​ (a)  

DV: ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
week
inches
David
sunlight
32.

Jake works as a sales representative. He earns $1,275 per month

plus an 8 percent commission on his total sales.

IV: ​ (a)  

DV: ​ ​ (b)   ​

Choose from the below words
total sales
total earnings
commision
$1,275 per month
33.

According to the Newton’s Universal Law of Gravitation, the force of gravity between two objects is directly proportional to

a)

The distance between the objects.

b)

The product of the masses of the objects.

c)

The gravitational constant.

d)

The square of the distance between the objects.

34.

What is the reason for the motion of the Moon on its orbit?

a)

The gravitational force exerted on the Earth by the Moon.

b)

The gravitational force exerted by the Sun.

c)

The gravitational force exerted by the Planets.

d)

The gravitational force exerted on the Moon by the Earth

35.

A satellite moves around the Earth in its orbit and does not escape from the space because the satellite

a)

Become weightless

b)

Move in vacuum

c)

Always pulled by the Earth gravitational force

d)

Move with highest speed

36.
Light Years are a measure of:
a)
time
b)
speed
c)
distance
d)
light
37.
A light year is...
a)
The speed light travels
b)
How long it takes light to get to you from the sun
c)
The distance light can travel in a year
d)
How many years it takes light to be emitted
38.
Scientist use Light years to measure objects in space rather than units such as Miles or Kilometers because of how massive the Galaxy and Universe is.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
A scale diagram of four galaxies is provided. Which galaxy has a diameter closest to 75,000 light years?
a)
Galaxy JK23
b)
Galaxy TO37
c)
Galaxy RB17
d)
Galaxy WD28
40.
It takes 8.9 years for light produced on Carinae V602 to reach the sun.  If Star X is 30 times as far from the sun as Carinae V602 is, how far is Star X from the sun, to the nearest light year?
a)
267
b)
5358
c)
632
d)
68
41.

Nitrogen bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

polar bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

phosphate bonds

d)

deoxyribose bonds

42.

Cytosine bonds with ____

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

43.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Denitrogenous acid

c)

Deribonucleic acid

d)

Diribonucleic acid

44.

The human body contains ____ chromosomes and ___ cells

a)

23 pairs of chromosomes and 75 million cells

b)

46 pairs of chromosomes and 150 trillion cells

c)

48 pairs of chromosomes and 75 trillion cells

d)

23 pairs of chromosomes and 75 trillion cells

45.

Which of the following is a base pair?

a)

Adenine - Cytosine

b)

Cytosine - Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose - Cytosine

d)

Cytosine - Guanine

46.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

47.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

48.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

49.
......... variable is the variable being tested and measured
a)
right
b)
wrong
c)
dependent
d)
independent
50.
the ........variable is the variable that  can be changed or controlled in a scientific experiment
a)
dependent
b)
controlled
c)
indipendant
d)
independent
51.

For scientific Drawings: True or False

You should make your drawing as large as possible?

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Validity is a concept that... (choose the best answer)

a)

Measures the consistency of the measurement taken under the study.

b)

Covers the the full range of the issue set for the study

c)

Measures the accuracy of the concept that it supposes to measure.

53.

A fair test is a __________ experiment.

a)

reliable

b)

valid

c)

accurate

d)

scientific

54.

To ensure results are reliable the experiment should be

a)

Done once

b)

Repeated

c)

Done as exactly the same as the method outlines

d)

Repeated if necessary

55.

A method is valid if

a)

A list of equipment is provided

b)

Variables are controlled

c)

Variables are not controlled

d)

They are detailed,logical and easy to understand

56.

A reliable experiment produces results which

a)

are consistent

b)

vary greatly

c)

are different from sample answers

d)

are not consistent

57.

Repetition _______________ the effect of outliers and allows them to be removed.

a)

increases

b)

minimises

c)

equals

d)

justifies

58.

Can results be reliable without being valid

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Results collected from repeat trials of an experiment should be

a)

averaged

b)

graphed

c)

added up

d)

subtracted

60.

A faulty thermometer can consistently provide a wrong value therefore providing reliably

a)

Invalid results

b)

Valid results

c)

Accurate results

d)

Weird results

61.
A girl is pedaling her bicycle at a speed of 0.10 km/min.  How far will she travel in two hours? (pay attention to units) 
a)
20 km 
b)
.2 km
c)
3 km 
d)
12 km 
62.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
63.

  1. What is the Big Bang theory?

a)

  1. A. A theory about the creation of stars

b)

  1. B. A theory about the origins and evolution of the universe

c)

  1. C. A theory about the formation of galaxies

d)

  1. D. A theory about the expansion of black holes

64.

  1. What does redshift refer to in the context of the Big Bang theory?

a)

  1. A. The shifting of light towards longer wavelengths

b)

  1. B. The shifting of light towards shorter wavelengths

c)

  1. C. The movement of galaxies towards each other

d)

  1. D. The movement of galaxies away from each other

65.

  1. How does redshift provide evidence for the Big Bang theory?

a)

  1. A. It shows that galaxies are stationary and not moving

b)

  1. B. It demonstrates the existence of black holes

c)

  1. C. It indicates that galaxies are moving away from each other, supporting the idea of an expanding universe

d)

  1. D. It supports the concept of a steady-state universe

66.

  1. Which of the following is not a piece of evidence supporting the Big Bang theory?

a)

  1. A. Cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR)

b)

  1. B. Red shift

c)

  1. C. The presence of helium

d)

  1. D. The existence of black holes

67.

  1. The Big Bang theory suggests that the universe originated from a:

a)

  1. A. Steady-state model

b)

  1. B. White hole

c)

  1. C. An infinitely dense and small point called singularity

d)

  1. D. Black hole

68.

  1. The redshift of distant galaxies indicates that:

a)

  1. A. The universe is contracting

b)

  1. B. The universe is expanding

c)

  1. C. The universe is stationary

d)

  1. D. The speed of light is decreasing

69.

What phase of Meiosis is in this picture?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

70.

Which phase of meiosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

71.

Which phase of meiosis does the picture on the left happen?

a)

prophase I

b)

prophase II

c)

metaphase I

d)

telophase II

72.

After meiosis II, which of the following is true about the cells that are produced?

a)

Four cells are produced. They are identical to each other and each contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

b)

Four cells are produced. Each is unique and contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

c)

Four cells are produced. Each is unique and contains the same number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

d)

Two cells are produced. Each is unique and contains the same number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

73.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

74.

After meiosis I, which of the following is true about the cells that are produced?

a)

Two cells are produced. They are identical to each other and each contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

b)

Two cells are produced. They are unique to each other and each contains half the number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

c)

Four cells are produced. They are unique to each other and contain the same number of chromosomes that the parent cell has.

d)

Only one cell is produced. It is identical to the parent cell and contains the same number of chromosomes.

75.

The four cells that are produced after Meiosis are _______.

a)

haploid because they contain just half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

diploid because they contain as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

diploid because they contain twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

76.
What is the correct order of the stages of mitosis? 
a)
Metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase 
b)
Telophase, prophase,  anaphase metaphase, 
c)
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
Anaphase,  telophase, metaphase, prophase
77.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

78.

How many chromosomes to do most human cells have?

a)

2

b)

46

c)

92

d)

Identical to your age

79.

In mitosis, the two resulting cells are

a)

different from the starting cell and identical to each other.

b)

different from the starting cell and different from each other.

c)

identical to the starting cell and different from each other.

d)

identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.

80.

Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...

a)

16 chromosomes.

b)

46 chromosomes.

c)

8 chromosomes.

d)

4 chromosomes.

81.

The two types of alleles are (select two)

a)

dominant

b)

doughnut

c)

expressive

d)

recessive

82.
Which of the following is heterozygous
a)
FF
b)
tt
c)
Gg
d)
RR
83.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
84.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
85.
The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
c)
characteristics
d)
intelligence
86.
How many letters does a genotype contain?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
87.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's phenotype?
a)
Brown Hair
b)
Blonde Hair
c)
Brown and Blonde Hair
d)
Black Hair
88.
Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is Mark's genotype?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
bB
89.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
90.

What does a punnet square show us?

a)

The age of the offspring

b)

The chance of a genotype (trait) showing up in offspring

c)

Numbers

d)

Blue eyes

91.

What are the chances that the offspring will have homozygous recessive traits?

a)

1 in 4

b)

3 out of 4

c)

75%

d)

50%

92.

If the father's genotypes are SS and the mothers are ss, the offspring will have:

a)

All Ss

b)

Half will be SS, half ss

c)

Mostly SS

d)

Only recessive genes

93.

A recessive genotype will show when:

a)

The offspring have both dominant and recessive genotypes

b)

The offspring has two recessive genotypes

c)

The offspring have two dominant genotypes

d)

The mother has blue eyes

94.
Black hair color is dominant to white hair color in mice.  Determine the phenotypic ratio for the offpring of a heterozygous black mouse and a white mouse.
a)
4 Black: 0 White
b)
3 Black: 1 White
c)
2 Black: 2 White
d)
0 Black: 4 White
95.

What does A indicate?

a)

A male that has the trait.

b)

A female that has the trait.

c)

A female that does not have the trait.

d)

A male that does not have the trait.

96.

What does B indicate?

a)

line that indicates someone likes each other

b)

line that indicates a marriage

c)

line that indicates a relationship of parents and children

d)

A male that does not have the trait.

97.

How many generations are represented in the pedigree?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

98.

In the diagram, individual III-3 indicates

a)

a female with no freckles

b)

a male with no freckles

c)

a male with freckles

d)

a female with freckles

99.

In the diagram, individual II-1 indicates

a)

a female with no freckles

b)

a male with no freckles

c)

a male with freckles

d)

a female with freckles

100.

What were the first two elements formed after the big bang?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Helium

d)

Silicon

101.

The universe is

a)

Expanding

b)

Shrinking

c)

Contracting

102.

Name the scientist that discovered the universe is expanding

(a)  

103.

What is Edwin Hubbles law known as?

(a)  

104.

The single moment when the universe was created is known as

a)

The dawn of man

b)

Big bang

c)

Singularity

d)

Whooosh

105.

What temperature was the universe when it first formed?

a)

Hot

b)

Cold

106.

Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) is the term used to describe the residual microwave radiation observed everywhere in the universe that seems to have no single source. The observation of CMBR is used as evidence of the Big Bang Theory because it is believed to be -

a)

the result of collisions between neighboring galaxies.

b)

particles of dust that have absorbed radioactivity.

c)

radiation left over from the rapid expansion of matter.

d)

light energy emitted from the source of the Big Bang.

107.

The red-shift in the spectral lines of light, reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ____________.

a)

Are moving closer to one another

b)

Are moving farther apart from one another

c)

Are in rapid rotation

d)

Redshift doesn´t exist

108.

First Scientist to to present observational evidence that supported that the universe is expanding. (aka... red shift)

a)

Edwin Hubble

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

George Gamow

d)

Georges Lemaitre

109.

What color is the longest wavelength?

a)

Green

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Red

110.

When objects move towards you, the wavelength....

a)

Increases (gets longer)

b)

Decreases (gets shorter)

111.

When objects move away from you, the wavelength....

a)

Increases (gets longer)

b)

Decreases (gets shorter)

112.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
113.
If a star is being observed from Earth and it's light has shifted towards the blue side of the electromagnetic spectrum it would be...
a)
Moving towards the Earth
b)
Moving away from the Earth
c)
This is a trick question that cannot be answered
d)
It isn't a star, it is a very large blueberry.
114.
The vast majority of galaxies in our universe are moving away from us.  We know this because we observe __________ in the galaxies absorption spectra.
a)
Redshift
b)
Blueshift
c)
Turbulance
d)
Superposition
115.
If Star X is 50 times as far from the Sun as Wolf 359 is, how far is Star X from the Sun, to the nearest light year?
a)
7.8 ly
b)
50 ly
c)
359 ly
d)
390 ly
116.

Identify the components in a justified conclusion

a)

Comment on overall relationship (refer to data), link to RQ, link to claim (if applicable) and statement about reliability and validity

b)

Comment on overall relationship, link to RQ, link to claim (if applicable) and statement about reliability and validity

c)

Comment on overall relationship (refer to data), link to RQ, link to claim (if applicable) and statement about validity

d)

Comment on overall relationship (refer to data), link to claim (if applicable) and statement about reliability and validity

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