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BIO 189 - Practice final

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the DNA base pairing rules discovered by Erwin Chargaff?

a)

Guanine pairs with Thymine
Adenine pairs with Cytosine

b)

Guanine pairs with Cytosine
Adenine pairs with Thymine

c)

Guanine pairs with Guanine
Adenine pairs with Adenine

d)

Guanine pairs with Adenine
Thymine pairs with Cytosine

2.

Select ALL of the rules that are part of Chargaff's rules for base pairing

a)

% Adenine =
% Thymine

b)

% Guanine -
% Thymine = 50%

c)

% Guanine =
% Cytosine

d)

% Cytosine +
% Thymine = 50%

3.

A section of DNA contains 22% guanine.

What percent of the DNA will be cytosine?

4.

A section of DNA contains 15% thymine.

What percent of the DNA will be cytosine?

5.

If Cytosine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA helix, what percent of the bases are Thymine?

a)
10%
b)
40%
c)
20%
d)
30%
6.

Match the scientist with their important discovery about DNA

a)

Rosalind Franklin

1.

Took X-Ray pictures of DNA

b)

Erwin Chargaff

2.

Determined DNA base paring rules

c)

Watson and Crick

3.

Built the first accurate model of DNA

d)

Hershey and Chase

4.

Showed DNA was the hereditary material

7.

Which scientist(s) were the first to build an accurate model of DNA?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Erwin Chargaff

8.

Which scientist(s) discovered that DNA is the genetic material that is passed from generation to generation?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Watson and Crick

d)

Erwin Chargaff

9.

Last name of scientist who took X-ray images of DNA, which helped prove that DNA is a double helix shape.

(a)  

10.

Type of bond that holds together the 2 nucleotides in a base pair

a)

Covalent bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Friendship bond

11.

Pair the DNA nucleotides according to base pairing rules

a)

Guanine

1.

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

2.

Adenine

c)

Adenine

3.

Thymine

d)

Cytosine

4.

Guanine

12.

Which nitrogenous base is a component of DNA nucleotides, but NOT RNA nucleotides?

a)
Cytosine
b)
Adenine
c)
Uracil
d)
Thymine
13.

The base pairing rules for DNA to RNA are:
DNA Adenine base pairs with RNA ​ (a)  

DNA Cytosine base pairs with RNA ​ (b)  

DNA Guanine base pairs with RNA ​ (c)  

DNA Thymine base pairs with RNA ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
Uracil
Guanine
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
14.

The nucleotide sequence of a section of DNA is: 3' ATTGGGCTA 5'

What is the RNA sequence?

(a)  

15.

Label the chemical components of the nucleotide

16.

The are 4 DNA nucleotides. What chemical component makes each nucleotide different?

a)

Phosphate groups

b)

5-carbon sugar

c)

Nitrogenous base

17.

Select the chemical component that determines the difference between nucleotides.

18.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Double helix

Single-stranded

Located in nucleus

Can move between nucleus and cytoplasm

Made of nucleotides C, G, A, and T

Made of nucleotides C, G, A, and U

A temporary copy of a gene

Genetic material passed from parents to offspring

DNA
RNA
19.

Sort the steps of DNA replication in order

a)

Two strands of DNA unwind

b)

Primase creates primers

c)

DNA polymerase assembles a new DNA strand

d)

Ligase seals gaps in DNA

e)

Two DNA double helices are formed

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
20.

Enzyme involved in DNA replication that joins together nucleotides to form a new strand of DNA.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

21.

Enzyme involved in DNA replication that creates primers.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

22.

Why are primers needed for DNA replication?

a)

Primers unwind the two strands of DNA

b)

Primers prevent mutations

c)

Primers act as a starting point for DNA polymerase

d)

Primers cut out introns

23.

Enzyme involved in DNA replication that creates seals together gaps in the new DNA strands.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

24.

At the end of DNA replication the DNA helicies produced are made of one old DNA strand and one new DNA strand.
What is the term that represents this characteristic of DNA replicaiton?

a)

Semiconservative

b)

Demisynthetic

c)

Dual strand synthesis

d)

Noncomplementary

25.

Match the type of RNA with its function

a)

Carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation

1.

tRNA

b)

A temporary copy of a gene

2.

mRNA

c)

Component of ribosomes

3.

rRNA

26.

Type of RNA that carries amino acids to the ribosome during translation

(a)  

27.

Process of creating an mRNA copy of a gene.

a)

Splicing

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

28.

Decoding the instructions in mRNA to produce a protein.

a)

Splicing

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

29.

During mRNA splicing, ​ (a)   are removed, while ​ (b)   remain and code for a protein.

Choose from the below words
introns
exons
30.

Unit of information encoded in the sequence of nucleotide bases in DNA

(a)  

31.

Process of turning "on" a gene, so that information from a gene is converted into a protein.

(a)  

32.

Enzyme that catalyzes transcription.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Primase

c)

Ligase

d)

RNA polymerase

33.

Enzyme that catalyzes translation.

a)

Ribosome

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Ligase

34.

RNA polymerase is required for which step of gene expression?

(a)  

35.

Three nucleotide sequence that is part of mRNA.

a)

Intron

b)

Anticodon

c)

Codon

d)

Exon

36.

Three nucleotide sequence that is part of tRNA, and is complementary to an mRNA codon

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

Intron

d)

Exon

37.

Codons are three nucleotide sequences in ​ (a)   that are read by ribosomes.

Anticodons are three nucleotide sequences in ​ (b)   ​ that are complementary to codons.

Choose from the below words
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
DNA
38.

Order the following in terms of levels of organization (highest level of organization at the top)

a)

Sister chromatid

b)

Chromosome

c)

DNA

d)

Nucleotide

1)
2)
3)
4)
39.

In humans, what are the typical sex chromosomes for most males?

(a)  

40.

In humans, what are the typical sex chromosomes for most females?

(a)  

41.

How many chromosomes are in a human diploid cell?

42.

How many chromosomes are in a human haploid cell?

43.

Most humans have ​ (a)   pairs of chromosomes, which includes ​ (b)   pair(s) of sex chromosomes and ​ (c)   pair(s) of autosomes.

Choose from the below words
23
1
22
44.

What is the term for this type of image, which shows an individual's chromosomes in an organized image?

a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Allele
d)
Karyotype
45.

Chromosomes that are the same in males and females and are not involved in sex determination.

a)

Sex chromosomes

b)

Autosomes

c)

Somatic cells

d)

Nucleus

46.

The structure that consists of DNA wrapped and organized around proteins

(a)  

47.

Proteins that organize DNA in chromosomes.

a)

Enzymes

b)

Histones

c)

Microtubules

d)

Ribosomes

48.

Exposure to UV light can cause what kind of DNA damage?

a)

Deletions

b)

Nucleotide dimers

c)

Insertions

d)

Translocations

49.

What is a mutation?

a)

Any harmful event that damages a cell's DNA

b)

Changes in the amino acid sequence of a protein that cause disease

c)

Temporary changes in the nucleotide sequence of a gene

d)

Permanant changes in the DNA sequence of a chromosome

50.

Mutations where a single DNA nucleotide is exchanged for a different nucleotide.

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Base-pair substitution

d)

Frameshift

51.

What kind of mutation is this?

Original DNA: AAA TTT CCC

Mutated DNA: AAA TAT CCC

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Base-pair substitution

52.

What kind of mutation is this?

Original DNA: CCGGAA

Mutated DNA: CCTGGAA

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Base-pair substitution

53.

Chromosomes that are the same length and carry the same set of genes

a)
Homologous chromosomes
b)
Analogous chromosomes
c)
Heterologous chromosomes
d)
Dissimilar chromosomes
54.

Mitosis creates ​ (a)   daughter cells, which are genetically ​ (b)   .

Meiosis creates ​ (c)   daughter cells, which are genetically ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
2
4
identical
different
55.

Type of cell division where a diploid parent cell creates haploid daughter cells.

(a)  

56.

First human immortal cell line, which was important for development of vaccines against polio and COVID-19.

(a)  

57.

Most of a cell's life is spent in (a)   .

58.

When chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis.

a)

deletion

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

homologous chromosome

d)

nondisjunction

59.

Match the phase of the cell cycle to the description.

a)

G1 phase

1.

Cell growth

b)

S phase

2.

DNA replication

c)

G2 phase

3.

Cell prepares to divide

d)

M phase

4.

Mitosis and cytokinesis

60.

Two copies of the same chromosome, held together by a centromere.

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Sistermeres

c)

Centrioles

d)

Homologous chromosomes

61.

Select ALL of the processes that occur during interphase

a)

Cell grows in size

b)

DNA replication

c)

Separation of sister chromatids

d)

Duplication of organelles

62.

Sort the phases of mitosis in order

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

1)
2)
3)
4)
63.

Match the description to the phase of mitosis

a)

Chromosomes condense, spindle fibers form

1.

Prophase

b)

Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

2.

Metaphase

c)

Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell

3.

Anaphase

d)

Formation of two new nuclear envelopes

4.

Telophase

64.

The first round of meiosis is Meiosis I, where ​ (a)   separate.

The second round of meiosis is Meiosis II, where ​ (b)   separate.

Choose from the below words
homologous chromosomes
sister chromatids
65.

Process that occurs during meiosis that produces genetic variation by creating new combinations of alleles

a)

Mutation

b)

Anaphase

c)

Fertilization

d)

Crossing over

66.

Genes that increase cell cycle progression. These genes are commonly over-active in cancer cells.

a)

Tumor suppressor

b)

Oncogene

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Missense mutation

67.

Which of the following is an example of homozygous recessive genotype?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

68.

An individual with two copies of the same allele for a trait is (a)   .

69.

An individual's combination of alleles is its ​ (a)   .

The observable traits of an individual is its ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
genotype
phenotype
70.

Label the pedigree

71.

A trait that is determined by more than one gene.

a)

Complicated

b)

Codominant

c)

Polygenic

d)

Polyploid

72.

Which step of cellular respiration produces the most ATP?

a)

electron transport chain

b)

fermentation

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

glycolysis

73.

What is the process of creating an mRNA copy of a gene called?

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

replication

d)

mutation

74.
What chance does the offspring have of showing a recessive trait?
a)
50%
b)
75%
c)
100%
d)
25%
75.
What chance does the offspring have of showing a dominant trait?
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
0%
76.

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. The Punnett square depicts mating a female who carries hemophilia with a male showing no symptoms.

What is the correct way to complete the missing square in the Punnett square?

a)

XH XH

b)

Xh XH

c)

XH Y

d)

Xh Y

77.

Colorblindness is a recessive trait carried on the X chromosome.

Label the phenotypes of the potential offspring of a mating between a colorblind male and a carrier female.

78.

What is the enzyme that carries out transcription?

a)

Ribosome

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

DNA polymerase

79.

What does it mean for cells to be "malignant"?

a)

Normal cells

b)

Evil cells

c)

Benign cells

d)

Cancerous cells

80.

What error during meiosis can lead to genetic disorders caused by chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down Syndrome?

a)

Base-pair substitution mutations

b)

Crossing over

c)

Nondisjunction

d)

Frameshift mutations

81.

Meiosis is two rounds of cell division.
The first round of cell division is called ​ (a)   , and this is when ​ (b)   separate.

The second round of cell division is called ​ (c)   , and this is when ​ (d)   separate.

Choose from the below words
meiosis I
homologous pairs
meiosis II
sister chromatids
82.

Genes that push the cell cycle forward.

a)

Oncogenes

b)

Tumor suppressor genes

83.

Select ALL of the activites that take occur while a cell is in interphase.

a)

Duplicated chromosomes separate

b)

DNA is copied

c)

New organelles are produced

d)

Cell grows larger

84.

Diploid means ​ (a)   of chromosomes. In most humans, diploid cells contain ​ (b)   chromosomes.
Haploid means ​ (c)   of chromosomes. In most humans, haploid cells contain ​ (d)   chromosomes.

Choose from the below words
the normal number
46
half the number
23
85.

Which option has the highest level of organization?

a)

DNA

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

86.

What phase of the cell cycle is when DNA is replicated?

a)
S phase
b)
G2 phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
87.

What happens during S phase of the cell cycle?

a)
Chromosomes condense and become visible under a microscope.
b)
Cell division occurs, resulting in two daughter cells.
c)
Protein synthesis is completed, preparing for mitosis.
d)
DNA replication occurs, resulting in duplicated chromosomes.
88.

How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?

a)
1
b)
4
c)
8
d)
2
89.

Height in humans if controlled by many genes. This is an example of a(n) ______.

a)
polygenic inheritance
b)
genetic drift
c)
environmental influence
d)
monogenic inheritance
90.

If someone is a carrier of an autosomal recessive genetic disease, what is their genotype?

a)

heterozygous (Aa)

b)

it depends on the disease

c)

homozygous recessive (aa)

d)

homozygous dominant (AA)