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Worksheets

Skeletal System

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a function of the bone?

a)

internal support and protection

b)

provide attachment for muscles

c)

calcium and phosphate storage

d)

red blood cell formation

2.

Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells found within in the _______ and they are derived from ________

a)

perichondrium, fibroblasts

b)

perichondrium, chondroblasts

c)

lacunae, fibroblasts

d)

lacunae, chondroblasts

3.

Which of the following substances make up the major portion of bone?

a)

collagen

b)

hydroxyapatite

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteoblasts

4.

The flexibility of bone is due to

a)

osteoclasts

b)

ligaments

c)

calcium salts

d)

collagen fibers

5.

Which of the following connective tissue membranes cover the surface of mature bones?

a)

periosteum

b)

perichondrium

c)

hyaline cartilage

d)

fibroblasts

6.

A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the

a)

epiphysis

b)

perichondrium

c)

diaphysis

d)

articular cartilage

7.

The portion of the long bone that stores yellow marrow in adults is the

a)

medullary cavity

b)

spongy bone

c)

compact bone

d)

epiphysis

8.

What type of lamellae is found in osteons?

a)

circumferential lamellae

b)

concentric lamellae

c)

insterstitial lamellae

d)

cuboidal lamellae

9.

Intramembranous bone fromation

a)

occurs in the epiphyseal plate

b)

gives rise to the flat bones of the skull

c)

is responsible for bone growth in diameter

d)

occurs within the hyaline cartilage model

10.

The ossification regions formed during embryonic development are

a)

secondary ossification centers

b)

primary ossification centers

c)

cartilage at the ends of bones

d)

medullary cavities

11.

Growth in the length of bone occurs

a)

at primary ossification center

b)

beneath the periosteum

c)

at the diaphysis

d)

at the epiphyseal plate

12.

The prime function of OSTEOCLASTS is to

a)

prevent osteoblats from forming

b)

breakdown bone

c)

secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers

d)

form compact bone

13.

Destruction and remolding of bone may occur

a)

as bones change shape during growth

b)

as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress

c)

during and following the healing of fractures

d)

when a bone is no longer growing

14.

In the healing of bone fractures

a)

a blood clot forms around the break

b)

a callus is formed

c)

both intramembranous and endochondral ossification are involved

d)

the callus may eventually disappear

15.

The average human body has how many bones?

a)

205

b)

206

c)

209

d)

210

16.

What part of bones produce blood cells?

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Red Bone Marrow

c)

Yellow Bone Marrow

d)

Epiphysis

17.

The ends of a long bone are called the

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphyses

c)

metaphyses

d)

endosteum

18.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a long bone?

a)

humerus

b)

tibia

c)

radius

d)

talus

19.

Bone matrix forming cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteogenic cells

20.

Bone matrix destroying cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteogenic cells

d)

osteoclasts

21.

Bone tissue composed of small needle-like pieces of bone with open spaces:

a)

lacunae

b)

compact bone

c)

canaliculi

d)

spongy bone

22.

The bones of the skeletal system can be subdivided into two large groups, the _________

skeleton, and the _________ skeleton.

a)

pelvic / appendicular

b)

axial/ appendicular

c)

axial/ pectoral

d)

pectoral / pelvic

23.
What is the name for the connector that attaches muscle to bone?
a)
ligament
b)
tendon
c)
patella
d)
string
24.
The bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH) to destroy bone matrix an release calcium into the blood are called _________. 
a)
chondrocytes 
b)
osteoblasts
c)
osteocytes 
d)
osteoclasts 
25.

The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the:

a)
epiphysis
b)
periosteum
c)
metaphysis
d)
diaphysis
26.

The patella is an example of a(n) ___ bone.

a)
sesamoid
b)
irregular
c)
long
d)
flat
27.

This cell secretes osteoid, the organic component of the bone matrix.

a)
osteoclast
b)
osteocyte
c)
osteoblast
d)
chondrocyte
28.

The lacunae of osseous tissue contain:

a)
osteocytes
b)
fibroblasts
c)

chondroblasts

d)
chondrocytes
e)

osteoclasts

29.

The lining of the medullary cavity is called the

a)
epiphysis
b)
endosteum
c)
cancellous bone
d)
periosteum
30.

Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the

a)
diaphysis
b)
metaphysis
c)
periosteum
d)
epiphysis
31.
The bone marrow makes
_______________________ cells.
a)
blood
b)
cancer
c)
large
d)
normal
32.

Which cells dissolve and reabsorb calcium salts?

a)

osteoclast

b)

osteoblast

c)

lymphocytes

d)

bone marrow

33.

Spongy bone is also called what?

a)

cancellous bone

b)

osteoblast

c)

osteoclast

d)

compact bone

34.
Which of the following is considered to be a short bone?
a)
tarsal
b)
humerus
c)
femur
d)
radius
35.
Which of the following is considered to be a long bone?
a)
flat bones of the skull
b)
carpals
c)
tarsals
d)
ulna
36.
Which of the following is considered to be a flat bone?
a)
femur
b)
humerus
c)
scapula
d)
facial bones
37.
Which of the following is considered to be an irregular bone?
a)
femur
b)
radius
c)
ulna
d)
vertebrae
38.
The type of bone cells that is involved with bone reabsorption (resorption) is called an:
a)
osteocyte
b)
osteoblast
c)
osteoclast
d)
chondroclast
39.
The type of bone cell that is responsible for producing new bone tissue is a(n):
a)
osteoblast
b)
osteocyte
c)
osteoclast
d)
chondroblast
40.
What type of bone marrow is found in the diaphysis of long bones in adults?
a)
red bone marrow
b)
yellow bone marrow
c)
pink bone marrow
d)
white bone marrow
41.
The unossified portions of an infants skull are referred to as:
a)
sutures
b)
joints
c)
primary ossification centers
d)
fontanels
42.
What type of bone tissue has trabeculae?
a)
compact bone
b)
solid bone
c)
osteonic bone
d)
spongy bone
43.

Blood cells are formed in...

a)

red marrow

b)

blood vessels

c)

osteon systems

d)

osteocytes

44.

What do the bones create?

a)

white blood cells

b)

platlets

c)

red blood cells

d)

protein

45.

Activates osteoclasts to break down bone matrix so calcium is released into the blood:

a)

human growth hormone (hGH)

b)

calcitonin

c)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d)

insulin

46.

Process of bone formation before birth and during childhood:

a)

ossification

b)

hematopoiesis

c)

osteoporosis

d)

atrophy

47.

Mature bone cells that maintain bone matrix:

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteomasts

c)

osteocytes

d)

osteoclasts

48.

Blood cell formation:

a)

ossification

b)

hemostasis

c)

hematopoiesis

d)

hemophilia

49.

The remnant of the growth plate found in adult bones:

a)

epiphyseal plate

b)

diaphysis

c)

epiphyseal line

d)

endosteum

50.

The long shaft of a bone:

a)

epiphyses

b)

diaphysis

c)

periosteum

d)

endosteum

51.

Bone formation is called ossification.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Bone continuously replaces itself throughout adult life.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The tough, fibrous membrane around the surface of a bone is called ____.

a)

endosteum

b)

articular cartilage

c)

periosteum

d)

perichondrium

54.

Trabeculae are found in ____ bone.

a)

compact

b)

spongy

c)

cortical

d)

medullary

55.

The formation of bone within fibrous connective tissue membranes is referred to as _____ ossification.

a)

endochondral

b)

intramembranous

c)

fibrous

d)

sesamoid

56.

The type of ossification that has 2 ossification centers (primary and secondary)

a)

intramembranous

b)

endochondral

c)

appositional

d)

deterministic

57.

The type of ossification that features cartilage growth plates.

a)

intramembranous

b)

endochondral

c)

appositional

d)

deterministic

58.

The type of ossification that produces flat bones.

a)

intramembranous

b)

endochondral

c)

appositional

d)

deterministic

59.

The type of ossification that produces most of your bones -but not flat bones.

a)

intramembranous

b)

endochondral

c)

appositional

d)

deterministic

60.

Inhibits osteoclasts to allow bone matrix growth and deposits calcium in the bones:

a)

human growth hormone (hGH)

b)

calcitonin

c)

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d)

insulin

61.

Concentric layers of bone matrix

a)

lamellae

b)

lacunae

c)

canaliculi

d)

central canals

62.

Small holes in bone matrix that contain osteocytes

a)

lamellae

b)

lacunae

c)

canaliculi

d)

central canals

63.

Small tunnels in bone matrix that connect osteocytes for nutrient transport.

a)

lamellae

b)

lacunae

c)

canaliculi

d)

central canals

64.

The basic units of compact bone

a)

trabeculae

b)

osteons

c)

osteoids

d)

canaliculi

65.

What’s the two main sections of the skeleton?

a)

Axial

b)

Appendicular

c)

Axial and appendicular

d)

Irregular and flat

66.

Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of:

a)

bone matrix.

b)

blood

c)

fibrous cartilage

d)

hyaline cartilage

e)

ligaments

67.

Osteogenesis imperfecta can be caused by abnormally formed

a)

hydroxyapatite

b)

proteoglycans

c)

collagen

d)

osteoblasts

e)

calcium

68.

Brittle bone disorder is another name for:

a)

scurvy

b)

osteomyelitis

c)

osteoporosis

d)

osteomalacia

e)

osteogenesis imperfecta

69.

This is an image of a patient present with osteoarthritis.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

____________ is defined as bone formation in nonosseous tissues (usually muscles and other soft tissue areas).

a)

Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease

b)

Chondrolysis

c)

Heterotopic ossification (HO)

d)

Osteoarthritis

71.

A disease caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency.

a)

Rickets

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Scoliosis

72.

Fragile, porous bones caused by higher osteoclast activity, most common in older females.

a)

osteoporosis

b)

kyphosis

c)

lordosis

d)

Rickets

73.

Most common type of arthritis; caused by wear and tear

a)

osteoarthritis

b)

rheumatoid arthritis

c)

gout

d)

bursitis

74.

Arthritis caused by an autoimmune disorder.

a)

osteoarthritis

b)

rheumatoid arthritis

c)

gout

d)

bursitis