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PTN Section 6 Review

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization?

a)

Undulating periodization

b)

Linear periodization

c)

Nonlinear periodization

d)

Localized periodization

2.

How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?

a)

60 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

90 minutes

3.

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?

a)

Battle ropes

b)

Strength machines

c)

Sandbags

d)

TRX Rip Trainer

4.

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?

a)

Reverse crunch

b)

Floor bridge

c)

Knee-up

d)

Standing cobra

5.

During which Phase of OPT should the exerciser be most concerned with increasing the speed (repetition tempo) of exercises?

a)

Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance

b)

Phase 4 Maximal Strength

c)

Phase 3 Muscular Development

d)

Phase 5 Power

6.

Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout?

a)

Activation

b)

Client's choice

c)

Skill development

d)

Resistance training

7.

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration?

a)

Kettlebell

b)

Medicine ball

c)

Suspended bodyweight training

d)

Resistance band

8.

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension?

a)

Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver

b)

Ball bridge

c)

Standing cable hip extension

d)

Floor bridge

9.

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer?

a)

An annual physical

b)

Dietary assessment

c)

Overhead squat assessment

d)

PAR-Q+

10.

Which is a primary adaptation of the Power Training phase?

a)

Muscle growth

b)

Rate of force production

c)

Stability

d)

Muscular endurance

11.

What two activities are part of a client's warm-up?

a)

Core

b)

Resistance

c)

Flexibility and cardio

d)

Plyometrics

12.

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?

a)

Warm-up

b)

Cool-down

c)

Resistance

d)

Skill development

13.

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?

a)

65 cm

b)

75 cm

c)

45 cm

d)

55 cm

14.

Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?

a)

Single-leg hops and ball push-ups

b)

Deadlifts and squats

c)

Bench press and stability ball push-ups

d)

Power step-ups and ice skaters

15.

What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis?

a)

A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic

b)

A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic

c)

A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg

d)

A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher

16.

How often should elastic resistance bands be checked?

a)

Prior to every use

b)

Once a day

c)

Once a week

d)

Only when there are signs of wear

17.

Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization?

a)


Increases intensity while decreasing volume

b)

Changes acute variables on a weekly basis

c)

Involves training multiple styles each week

d)

Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring

18.

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?

a)

Stabilization

b)

Strength

c)

Power

d)

Strength Endurance

19.

Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?

a)

Bench press

b)

Pull-up

c)

Barbell squat

d)

Push-up

20.

Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?

a)

Barbell chest press

b)

Stability ball wall squat

c)

Terra-Core push-up

d)

Selectorized machine lat pull down

21.

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate?

a)

Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy.

b)

Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.

c)

Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart.

d)

Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

22.

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one?

a)

Offer users the ability to change resistance easily

b)

Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

c)

Provide an increased range of motion

d)

Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures

23.

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down?

a)

Increase breathing rate

b)

Reduce body temperature

c)

Reduce heart rate

d)

Provide a transition period

24.

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypotension

d)

Hypoglycemia

25.

What is unique about a kettlebell when compared to a dumbbell?

a)

Kettlebells and dumbbells are the same.

b)

A kettlebell is heavier.

c)

A dumbbell is safer.

d)

With a kettlebell, the center of mass is farther from the handle.

26.

What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

a)

Macrocycle

b)

Undulating

c)

Mesocycle

d)

Linear

27.

Increasing which of the following is the best way to improve a client's adherence to an exercise plan?

a)

Length-tension relationship

b)

Cool-down

c)

Strength

d)

Self-efficacy

28.

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?

a)

Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

b)

Clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time

c)

Clients with an underactive gluteal complex

d)

Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused

29.

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

a)


It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

b)

It decreases challenges to balance and stability.

c)

It increases muscular hypertrophy.

d)

It decreases core muscle activation.

30.

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise?

a)


Push-ups

b)

Machine leg extension

c)

Biceps curls

d)

Lat pulldown

31.

Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge, and multiplanar movement are all known as what?

a)

Phases

b)

Sports skills

c)

Movement patterns

d)

Exercises

32.

The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?

a)

Adduction and abduction

b)

Flexion and extension

c)

Supination and pronation

d)

Abduction and extension

33.

What disease is a condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction due to mucus production?

a)


Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis

b)

Chronic obstructive lung disease

c)

Type 1 diabetes

d)

Type 2 diabetes

34.

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?

a)

Focusing on improving muscular growth

b)

Improving the rate of force production

c)

Utilizing supersets during training

d)

Mastering basic movement patterns

35.

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s worth of programming?

a)

Mesocycle

b)

Microcycle

c)

Macrocycle

d)

Megacycle

36.

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain?

a)

Transverse plane

b)

Frontal plane

c)

Posterior chain

d)

Anterior chain

37.

Balance is best described as which of the following?

a)

Increased ability to overcome the force of gravity during jumping

b)

The ability to change direction quickly and accelerate

c)

The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position

d)

The ability to control the motion of the spine over a given longer duration

38.

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month’s mesocycle?

a)

Resistance

b)

Reassessment

c)

Cardio

d)

SAQ

39.

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed?

a)

Periodization

b)

Macrocycle

c)

Acute variables

d)

Training plan

40.

Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

80%

d)

60%

41.

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Peripheral arterial disease

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Restrictive lung disease

42.

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?

a)

Feed-forward activation

b)

Asymmetrical resistance loading

c)

Integrative function

d)

Proprioceptively enriched environment

43.

What causes coronary heart disease?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Cirrhosis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Atherosclerosis

44.

The goal of the Certified Personal Trainer in utilizing machines in Phase 1 of the OPT model should be to do what?

a)

Regress their clients to less-challenging movements and utilize more dumbbells

b)

Prepare their clients to perform 1RM before moving on to dumbbells or other advanced modalities

c)

Progress their clients to more proprioceptively enriched exercises

d)

Increase muscle size before moving their clients to Phase 2

45.

Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.

a)

Loaded

b)

Bilateral

c)

Proprioceptive

d)

Unilateral