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Worksheets

CambriLearn December Revision middle School

Total questions: 222

Worksheet time: 7hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is at the center of every atom?
a)
An electron
b)
A compound
c)
A molecule
d)
A nucleus
2.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
3.
In an atom, what is the number of protons equal to?
a)
The number of electrons.
b)
The number of neutrons.
c)
The number of molecules.
d)
The number of nuclei.
4.
The particles with no charge in an atom are the _______.
a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
protons
d)
protons and neutrons
5.
The positively charged particles of an atom are the ________.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
6.
The negatively charged particles of an atom are the ______.
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
protons & neutrons
7.
An electron has this charge
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
8.
A neutron has this charge
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
9.
A proton has this charge
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
10.
A particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n)...
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Quark
11.
The center of an atom that holds protons and neutrons?
a)
model
b)
electron
c)
nucleus
d)
neutron
12.
What does the nucleus of an atom contain?
a)
Electrons and neutrons
b)
Protons and neutrons
c)
Neutrinos and positrons
d)
DNA and RN
13.
What number indicates an electron?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
14.
What number indicates the nucleus?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
15.
Which element has 31 protons ?
a)
Gallium 
b)
Germanium
c)
Gadolinium
d)
Polonium
16.
What is the mass number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom 
c)
the number of electrons
d)
the number of neutrons
17.
What is the atomic number?
a)
number of protons
b)
number of neutrons
18.
Which element has 31 protons ?
a)
Gallium 
b)
Germanium
c)
Gadolinium
d)
Polonium
19.
Oxygen’s atomic number is 8. This means that an oxygen atom must have
a)
8 electrons
b)
8 protons
c)
8 neutrons
d)
a mass number of 8
20.
 What is the mass number of this element?
a)
5
b)
27
c)
32
d)
59
21.

Match the following.

a)

Proton

1.

Nucleus

b)

Electron

2.

Electron Cloud

c)

Neutron

3.

Nucleus

22.

Match the following.

a)

Proton

1.

Positive (+)

b)

Electron

2.

Negative (-)

c)

Neutron

3.

Neutral (0)

23.

Define atoms

a)

A positively charged particle

b)

the smallest particleof an element that keep theproperties of the element

c)

A neutral particle.

d)

A negatively charged Particle

24.

Why is an electron important within the atom?

a)

I'ts important because it tells you the identity of the atom

b)

It's important becaue the atom repells other atoms.

c)

Important becuase is exerts a strong force to balance the atom.

d)

Important because it determines chemical reactivity

25.

Why is the Proton important within the atom?

a)

I'ts important because it tells you the identity of the atom

b)

It's important becaue the atom repells other atoms.

c)

Important becuase is exerts a strong force to balance the atom.

d)

Important because it determines chemical reactivity

26.

Never trust an atom because they make up

a)

Nothing

b)

Protons

c)

everything

d)

somethings

27.

The atomic number on the periodic table can tell us. Use period table https://ptable.com/#Properties

a)

# of electrons

b)

# of protons and the identitiy of the atom.

c)

# of neutrons

d)

# or protons and neutrons.

28.

Use the periodic table: If an atom have 12 protons what element is it. https://ptable.com/#Properties

a)

Magnesium

b)

Manganese

c)

Carbon

d)

Hydrogen

29.

All atoms are nuetral means

a)

Neutrons = protons

b)

Protons = electrons

c)

Neutrons = electrons

d)

None of the above

30.

Which one best desribes PURITY?

a)

it is a substance that is made of the same and different types of atoms

b)

it is a substance that is made of same and one type of atoms

c)

it is a substance that is a mixture of same and different type of atoms

d)

it is a substance that is chemically combined with different type of atoms

31.

Gold is divided into 24 parts, with each single unit called a karat. The higher the karat, the purer the gold. How much is the concentration of gold in a 10 K neclace?

a)


99.5 %

b)

50 %

c)

75 %

d)

41.7 %

32.

if 24 carat gold is considered as pure gold, what is the percentage or purity of the gold you received from your parents a christmass gift having 16 carat gold?

a)

50 %

b)

66 %

c)

75 %

d)

80 %

33.

What is the purity of 24 carat gold?

a)

25 %

b)

50 %

c)

75 %

d)

100 %

34.

What percentage of 9 carat gold is gold?

a)

37.50 %

b)

47.50 %

c)

57.50 %

d)

67.50 %

35.

Gold is divided into 24 parts, with each single unit called a karat. The higher the karat, the purer the gold. How much is the concentration of gold in a 14 K neclace?

a)

99.5 %

b)

75 %

c)

58.3 %

d)


41.7 %

36.

Gold is divided into 24 parts, with each single unit called a karat. The higher the karat, the purer the gold. How much is the concentration of gold in a 10 K neclace?

a)

99.5 %

b)

75 %

c)

58.3 %

d)


41.7 %

37.

If a diamond has 1000 parts, it is said to be pure diamond. If the diamond is mixed with parts of other atoms, what is the concentration of a diamond if it has at least 700 parts?

a)

50 %

b)

70 %

c)

90 %

d)

100 %

38.

A silver is marked by its purity with the number of parts per thousand. So, the silver that is marked 925 has 92.5 % purity of silver and the rest is made of other metallic elements.

If you got yourself an 800 parts of a silver necklace, what is the concentration of the silver in your necklace?

a)

20 %

b)

40 %

c)

60 %

d)

80 %

39.

Which elements may cause a diamond to be green?

Select all that applies

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

nickel

d)

hydrogen

40.

Diamonds are made of______(1) atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have______of different______ mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have______atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a______ colour. The______colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

carbon

b)

elements

c)

boron

d)

nickel

41.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ______(2) of different_____ mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have______ atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a______ colour. The______ colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

nickel

b)

atoms

c)

elements

d)

boron

42.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ATOMS of different______(3) mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have______ atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a______ colour. The______ colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

elements

b)

atoms

c)

rarest

d)

carbon

43.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ATOMS of different ELEMENTS mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have______(4) atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a______ colour. The______ colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

elements

b)

atoms

c)

boron

d)

carbon

44.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ATOMS of different ELEMENTS mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have BORON atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a______(5) colour. The______ colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

green

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

yellow

45.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ATOMS of different ELEMENTS mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have BORON atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a YELLOW colour. The______(6) colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

colourless

b)

rarest

c)

most common

d)

famous

46.

Diamonds are made of CARBON atoms. When diamonds are coloured they have ATOMS of different ELEMENTS mixed in with the carbon atoms. When they have BORON atoms the diamonds will be a blue colour. If diamonds have nitrogen atoms mixed with the carbon atoms, the diamond will be a YELLOW colour. The RAREST colour of diamond is green. Green diamonds have nitrogen, ______ (7)or hydrogen mixed in with the carbon atoms.

a)

carbon

b)

boron

c)

hydrogen

d)

nickel

47.

When there is more than one product they are mixed up together, this means that the product produced is ______.

a)

pured

b)

compound

c)

impured

d)

atom

48.

Some reactions would lead to impurity because it has two or more products during the reaction. Why do you think it is hard to produce pure product?

Select two correct responses.

a)

because some different types of atoms of compounds are mixed up

b)

atoms do not react each chemically

c)

atoms are attracted to each other

d)

because reactants are made up of two different compounds reacting together

49.

The diagram shows a ray of light going from medium A into medium B. Which one of the following statements cannot be correct?

a)

A is air and B is glass.

b)

A is water and B is vacuum.

c)

A is water and B is air.

d)

A is glass and B is vacuum.

50.

A ray of light is shone on a rectangular glass block as shown. Identify A, B and C.

a)

A = Refracted ray, B = Incident ray, C = Normal

b)

A = Incident ray, B = Refracted ray, C = Normal

c)

A = Normal, B = Refracted ray, C = Incident ray

d)

A = Refracted ray, B = Angle of incidence, C = Angle of refraction

51.

When a drinking straw is placed in a container of water so that it is partly submerged, it appears bent because of

a)

apparent depth

b)

Snell's Law

c)

Refraction

d)

lateral inversion

52.

The diagram shows a ray of light AB striking the interface of medium X and medium Y. BC is the refracted ray. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

Medium X is optically less dense than Y and ray BC travels faster than AB.

b)

Medium X is optically denser than Y and ray BC travels slower than AB.

c)

Medium X is optically denser than Y and ray BC travels faster than AB.

d)

Medium X is optically less dense than Y and ray BC travels slower than AB.

53.

When light passes from one medium into another, refraction occurs. This is because of

a)

reflection of light.

b)

a change in color of the light.

c)

a change in velocity of the light.

d)

the absorption of light.

54.

A light ray does not bend at a boundary between two media of different optical densities if its angle of incidence is

a)

180o

b)

45o

c)

0o

d)

90o

55.

The quantity which does not changes during refraction is

a)

direction

b)

speed

c)

frequency

d)

wavelength

56.

The ratio of sin (x °) of the angle of incidence to sin (x °) of the angle of refraction is

a)

Gravitational law

b)

Reflection law

c)

Snell's law

d)

refraction law

57.

The best definition of refraction is ____.

a)

passing through a boundary

b)

changing direction when crossing a boundary

c)

changing speed at a boundary

d)

bouncing off a boundary

58.

When light travels from air into water, the light bends ____________.

a)

towards the normal line

b)

away the normal line

c)

perpendicular to the normal line

d)

in an odd shape

59.

What does the picture below illustrate?

a)

Visible Light Spectrum

b)

Electromagnetic Spectrum

c)

Frequency Indicator

d)

Color Line

60.

What is the saying that can help you remember the order of the visible spectrum?

a)

ROYGBIV

b)

RYOBIVG

c)

ROYBVIG

d)

RIBYOVG

61.

How are we able to see the color white?

a)

All colors except red are absorbed

b)

All colors are absorbed

c)

All colors are reflected

d)

All colors except red are reflected

62.

What does reflection mean?

a)

Bending Light

b)

Bouncing Light

63.

Of the visible spectrum, what color has the longest wavelength?

a)

Blue

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

e)

Violet

64.

What type of wave does a light wave resemble?

a)

Transverse wave

b)

Compressional wave

65.

Light is a type of energy that travels as an ______________ ____________.

a)

Longitudinal Wave

b)

Electric Current

c)

Electromagnetic Wave

d)

Magnetic Wave

66.

A prism can be used to...

a)

separate visible light into colors

b)

make a beam of light brighter

c)

measure the speed of light

d)

make UV light visible

67.

What happens when light transitions into a new medium?

a)

Reflection

b)

Absorbing

c)

Refraction

d)

Mirror

68.

A blue dish appears blue because it

a)

absorbs blue light

b)

absorbs white light

c)

reflects white light

d)

reflects blue light

69.

What is this a picture of?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

70.

___________ is a form of energy that we can see with our eyes.

a)

Radio Waves

b)

Visible Light

c)

Ultraviolet

d)

Reflection

71.

What is visible light used in?

a)

Light Bulbs, TVs, Lasers

b)

Nothing, Visible light cannot be used

c)

Sound

d)

When we Breathe

72.

Is Visible Light Dangerous?

a)

No, Visible light cannot harm you

b)

Yes, visible light is highly radioactive and should be handled carefully. Visible light when in contact with human skin can cause aerial skin cancer.

c)

No, this is because visible light isn't real

d)

Yes, Visible light at high concentrations can cause burns, blindness, and indirect DNA damage but at low levels is harmless

73.

What is the Corona? (BONUS)

a)

The temperature of the sun

b)

The outer most layer of the Sun's atmosphere

c)

Another name for the Electromagnetic Spectrum

d)

The measurement of the crests and troughs on a transverse wave

74.

Found attached to bones throughout the body

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

all

75.

Found in the heart

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

all

76.

Found in the walls of hollow organs; also called visceral

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

all

77.

Use to move materials through contractions

a)

smooth

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

all

78.
What are the 3 types of muscles?
a)
Skeletal, muscular, ligament
b)
Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
c)
Smooth, Cellular, Cerebrum
d)
Cardiac, smooth, brain stem
79.
Skeletal muscles always work _____.
a)
in groups
b)
in pairs
c)
singly
d)
none of the above
80.
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are considered _____ muscles because we can’t control them consciously.
a)
Immovable
b)
Involuntary
c)
Skeletal
d)
none of the above
81.
A ______________________ attach bones to each other at joints.
a)
Ligament
b)
Bone
c)
Joint
d)
Cell
82.
A ______ is a strong connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone.
a)
Tendon
b)
Ligament
c)
Cartilage
83.

What is shown in the colored part of this diagram?

a)

a whole muscle

b)

five muscle fibers

c)

five muscle fascicles

d)

five myofibrils

84.

What is labeled "4" (the blue/purple part) in the diagram?

a)

sarcolemma

b)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

transverse tubules

d)

myofibril

85.

Name the following in order from largest to smallest:

a)

muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle cell, myofibril, filaments

b)

muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle cell, filaments, myofibril

c)

muscle, muscle cell, muscle fascicle, myofibril, filaments

d)

muscle, muscle cell, muscle fascicle, filaments, myofibril

86.

What is the length between Z-lines of an actin molecule called?

a)

fascicle

b)

sarcomere

c)

myosin binding site

d)

sarcoplasmic length

87.

____________ attaches to actin to form the cross bridge.

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Myosin

d)

Calcium

88.

What muscle is the arrow pointing toward?

a)

biceps

b)

traps

c)

pecs

d)

triceps

89.
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Satorius
c)
Hamstring
d)
Gastronecmius
90.

What muscle is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Pectoralis (Pecs)

b)

Biceps

c)

Triceps

d)

Lats

91.

What muscle is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Biceps

b)

Triceps

c)

Lats

d)

Quads

92.
a)
Latissmius Dorise
b)
Erectors
c)
Deltoids
d)
Abdominal
93.
a)
Hamstrin
b)
Quadricep
c)
Tibialis Anterior
d)
Gastrocenmius
94.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Gluteals
c)
Deltoid
d)
Hamstring
95.
a)
Glutueal
b)
Hamstring
c)
Quadricep
d)
External Oblique
96.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Gastronecmius
d)
Satorius
97.
a)
Abdominal
b)
External Oblique
c)
Pectorals
d)
Trapezius
98.
a)
Latissimius Dorsi
b)
Trapezius
c)
Triceps
d)
Erectors
99.
What is the opposing muscle group for the biceps? 
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Abdominals
c)
Trapezius
d)
Triceps
100.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Gastronecmius
d)
Satorius
101.

What connects muscles to bones?

a)

cartilage

b)

tendons

c)

ligaments

d)

flexors

102.

What connects bone to bone?

a)

Tendon

b)

Ligament

c)

Filament

d)

Cartilage

103.
In the equation,          2Mg + O2 ---> 2MgO, which are the reactants?
a)
Mg and O
b)
MgO
c)
Mg and MgO
d)
O and MgO
104.
Balance this equation, Ca + H2O --> CaO + H2
a)
Ca + 2H2O --> CaO + 2H2
b)
2Ca + H2O --> CaO + H2
c)
Its balanced as it is
d)
Cannot be balanced
105.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
Al(OH)3 --> Al2O3  + H2O
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
106.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
CUO + CO2 --> CuCO3
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
107.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
Ca + MgCl2 --> CaCl2 + Mg
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
108.
What is a coefficient?
a)
The small number on the right of the chemical symbol.
b)
The large number to the left of a formula.
109.
What coefficients are needed to correctly balance the equation?
_Bi   +   _O2   >   _Bi2O3
a)
3,2,3
b)
2,3,2
c)
4,3,2
d)
none of these
110.

Why must chemical equations be balanced?

a)

So that the equation doesn't explode

b)

The reaction won't happen until it is balanced

c)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Matter, matter cannot be created or destroyed.

d)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be created or destroyed.e

111.
The left side of the equation below is called
a)
Products
b)
Reactants
112.
The right side of the equation below is called the
a)
products
b)
reactants
113.
What type of reaction is illustrated below?
2HI --> H2  +  I2
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
114.

What type of reaction is illustrated below?

Zn + H2S --> ZnS + H2

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

115.
A number in front of a chemical formula in an equation that indicates how many molecules or atoms of each reactant and product are involved in a reaction.
a)
Coefficient
b)
reactant
c)
subscript
d)
product 
116.
Which of the following options correctly balances the equation below?
__HNO2 + __O2 --> __HNO3
a)
4, 1, 4
b)
1, 2, 1
c)
1, 2, 1
d)
2, 1, 2
117.
Which of the following answers will balance the equation below?
__K + __Br2 --> __KBr
a)
2, 1, 1
b)
2, 3, 2
c)
2, 1, 2
d)
1, 2, 3
118.

A + B > AB

What type of chemical reaction is this?

a)
single
b)
double
c)
synthesis
d)
decomposition
119.
How many atoms of hydrogen (H), sulfur (S), and oxygen (O) are there in sulfuric acid (H2SO4)?
a)
H-6, S-4, O-4
b)
H-1, S-2, O-8
c)
H-2, S-1, O-4
d)
H-2, S-4, O-4
120.

2Ca + O2 > 2CaO 

What is the 2 located behind oxygen (O) called?

a)
coefficient
b)
reactant
c)
subscript
d)
product
121.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
Al(OH)3 --> Al2O3  + H2O
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
122.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
CUO + CO2 --> CuCO3
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
123.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
Ca + MgCl2 --> CaCl2 + Mg
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
124.
What type of chemical reaction is this one?
C2H2 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Synthesis
d)
Single Replacement 
125.
Which of the following could indicate a chemical change? 
a)
All of the answers could indicate Chemical Change 
b)
a color change has occurred 
c)
bubbles appear 
d)
identifying one or more new chemical products 
126.
Evidence of a chemical reaction include:
a)
Phase change
b)
No new substance
c)
Bubbles forming
d)
Shape change
127.
3KOH + H3PO4 --> K3PO4 + 3H2O
a)
Combination
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Double replacement
128.
Magnetism is generated by moving
a)
protons.
b)
electrons.
c)
neutrons.
d)
elements.
129.
What do the lines around this magnet represent?
a)
North Pole
b)
South Pole
c)
Magnetic Declination
d)
Magnetic Field
130.
If you place the North pole of a magnet next to the South pole of another magnet, they will:
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
c)
Do nothing
d)
Shatter
131.
A paper clip is an example of a:
a)
magnetic material
b)
permanent magnet
c)
bar magnet
d)
insulator
132.
What happens when two north poles of a magnet are placed together?
a)
they repel
b)
they attract
c)
they cancel each other out
d)
the strength of the magnet is doubled
133.
In un-magnetized materials the domains are __________ aligned.
a)
super
b)
slightly
c)
randomly
d)
always
134.
Region around a magnet in which magnetic force can act.
a)
Magnetic field 
b)
Magnetic force
c)
Domain
d)
Perimeter
135.
Two south poles will...
a)
attract
b)
repel 
136.
Magnets that are arranged like this will _______. 
a)
move away from each other (repel)
b)
move towards each other (attract)
137.
The strongest part of a magnet is...
a)
the bars.
b)
the force field.
c)
the poles. 
d)
the middle.
138.
Iron and steel can become _____.
a)
magnetized
b)
transformed into plastics
c)
lined up to the poles
d)
part of the equator
139.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)
They will repel each other.
c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
140.
As the distance between two magnets increases (they get farther apart), the force between them:
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the Same
141.
If you cut a magnet in half, what happens to the poles?
a)
One half gets the North Pole, the other half gets the South Pole
b)
Both halves get only a North Pole
c)
Both halves get only a South Pole
d)
Both halves get a North pole and a South Pole
142.
What is responsible for the Magnetic Field around Earth?
a)
The Earth's crust
b)
The Earth's molton iron core
c)
The Earth's mantel
d)
The Sun
143.
An electromagnet's poles may be reversed by:
a)
decreasing the voltage of the coil
b)
increasing the number of coils
c)
changing the direction of current flow
d)
altering the material used to make the coils
144.
The magnet's shown will
a)
not move
b)
attract
c)
repel
d)
all of the above
145.
The magnet's shown will
a)
not move
b)
attract
c)
repel
d)
all of the above
146.
Magnets attract things made of
a)
copper
b)
iron
c)
wood
d)
plastic
147.
All magnets have 2
a)
fields
b)
colors
c)
poles
d)
all of the above
148.
Iron, Nickel and cobalt are all __________________ materials
a)
Shiny
b)
poles
c)
magnetic
d)
cold
149.
Where is the strongest attraction force of the magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
150.
Which of the following is true about a bar magnet?
a)
Its magnetic field is strongest near its center.
b)
It is surrounded by a magnetic field.
c)
The north pole is stronger than the south pole.
d)
The south pole is stronger than the north pole.
151.
The space around a magnet where the force of a magnet can attract best is called__________
a)
magnetism
b)
bar magnet
c)
horseshoe magnet
d)
magnetic field
152.
What kind of magnet can be turned on and off?
a)
refridgerator magnet
b)
electromagnet
c)
magnetite
d)
iron
153.
How is a permanent magnet DIFFERENT from a temporary magnet?
a)
A permanent magnet attracts materials made of iron.
b)
A permanent magnet has poles.
c)
A permanent magnet has a magnetic field.
d)
A permanent magnet keeps its magnetism for a long time.
154.
Why does a compass needle point north?
a)
The compass is a bar magnet
b)
Because north is up
c)
Because it's magic
d)
It lines up with the Earth's magnetic field
155.
Generators are devices that convert _____ energy into _____ energy.
a)
chemical; mechanical
b)
mechanical; electrical
c)
electrical; mechanical
d)
potential; kinetic
156.

In a _______ a spinning turbine moves magnets which generates an electric current.

a)

Motor

b)

Generator

157.

What is the transfer of energy in when you plug in a motor and it spins?

a)

chemical to mechanical

b)

electrical to mechanical

c)

mechanical to electrical

d)

physical to potential

158.
What type of energy comes OUT of a generator?
a)
Mechanical
b)
Electrical
c)
Thermal
d)
Potential
159.
In an electric motor, the energy transformation begins as  ----
a)
electrical and becomes chemical
b)
mechanical and becomes electrical
c)
electrical and becomes mechanical
d)
mechanical and becomes chemical
160.

Process used by plants and other autotrophs to capture light energy and use it to power chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide and water into oxygen and energy-rich carbohydrates such as sugars and starches

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

Photosystems

161.

Organism that obtains food by consuming other living things; also called a consumer

a)

Autotroph

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Stroma

162.

Series of electron carrier proteins that shuttle high-energy electrons during ATP-generating reactions

a)

NADP+

b)

Light-independent

c)

Light-dependent

d)

Electron transport chains

163.

Light-absorbing molecule used by plants to gather the sun's energy

a)

Pigment

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Stroma

d)

Thylakoid

164.

Saclike photosynthetic membranes found in chloroplasts

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Pigments

d)

Photosystems

165.

Compound used by cells to store and release energy

a)

ATP

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Stroma

d)

NADP+

166.

Light-independent reactions of photosynthesis in which energy from ATP and NADPH is used to build high-energy compounds such as sugar

a)

Stroma

b)

ATP synthase

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

Electron Transport Chains

167.

Cluster of proteins that span the cell membrane and allow hydrogen ions to pass through it

a)

Photosystems

b)

Calvin Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

ATP synthase

168.

Principal pigment of plants and other photosynthetic organisms

a)

Stroma

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

NADP+

d)

ATP

169.

Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate; carrier molecule that transfers high-energy electrons from chlorophyll to other molecules

a)

NADP+

b)

ATP

c)

ATP synthase

d)

Calvin Cycle

170.

Cluster of chlorophyll and proteins found in thylakoids

a)

Photosystems

b)

Stroma

c)

Pigments

d)

Electron transport chains

171.

Fluid portion of the chloroplast; outside of the thylakoids

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Stroma

c)

ATP

d)

NADP+

172.

Set of reactions in photosynthesis that use energy from light to produce ATP and NADPH

a)

Light-dependent

b)

Light-independent

c)

Calvin Cycle

d)

Electron transport chains

173.

Set of reactions in photosynthesis that do not require light; energy from ATP and NADPH is used to build high-energy compounds such as sugar; also called the Calvin Cycle

a)

Light-dependent

b)

Light-independent

c)

Electron transport chain

d)

ATP synthase

174.

Organism that is able to capture energy from sunlight or chemicals and use it to produce its own food from inorganic compounds; also called a producer

a)

Autotroph

b)

Heterotroph

c)

Thylakoid

d)

Stroma

175.

ATP is also known as

a)

aldehyde triphosphate

b)

arginine titraphosphate

c)

adenine tetra phosphate

d)

adenine triphosphate

176.

An organism that can make its own food is known as a/an

a)

heterotroph

b)

autotroph

c)

eukaryote

d)

prokaryote

177.

What is the formula for GLUCOSE?

a)

C6H6O6

b)

C12H6O12

c)

C6H12O6

d)

C12H12O12

178.

Which statements is true about both ATP and Glucose?

a)

ATP transfers energy and Glucose stores energy.

b)

ATP and Glucose both store energy.

179.

Which of the following is the correct BALANCED Equation for Photosynthesis?

a)

Light + H2O + CO2 --> 6O2 + C6H12O6

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 --> Light + 6H2O + 6CO2

c)

Light + 6O2 + C6H12O6 --> 6H2O + 6CO2

d)

Light + 6H2O + 6CO2 --> 6O2 + C6H12O6

180.

What organelle is the site of photosynthesis?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

central vacuole

181.

What structure is #1 pointing to?

a)

Granum

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Stroma

182.

What are the molecules that absorb light for photosynthesis called?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

Chlorophyll

d)

Chloroplast

183.

Which molecule safely carries high energy electrons during Photosynthesis?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

Glucose

d)

Phosphates

184.

Which of the following pigments reflect orange light?

a)

chlorophyll a

b)

chlorophyll b

c)

caretenoid

185.
Carbon dioxide is absorbed by producers to make what in photosynthesis?
a)
oxygen
b)
carbon
c)
carbohydrates
d)
water
186.
When is most of the carbon dioxide that is exhaled from plants formed?
a)
respiration
b)
circulation
c)
photosynthesis
d)
when it starts the carbon cycle
187.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the _______ as carbon dioxide
a)
water
b)
atmosphere
c)
sun
d)
air
188.
Which of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
189.
Combustion is another word for
a)
burning
b)
melting
c)
exploding
d)
incinerating 
190.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle
a)
respiration and decomposition
b)
respiration and photosynthesis
c)
death
d)
burning
191.
How does the carbon in grass become part of a living animal?
a)
by eating the grass
b)
It doesn't end up in the animal no matter what
c)
It ends up in its food chain
d)
It breathes in carbon given out by the plant
192.
Why is the increase in greenhouse gasses an issue
a)
It causes climate change and increase in the global temperature 
b)
It can lead to a major increase in greenhouses
c)
It leads to more factories
d)
It causes a moajor decrease in people
193.
What process keeps Earth's temperature suitable for life
a)
Convention currents
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
Albedo Effect
d)
Water Cycle
194.
What is a carbon footprint
a)
the total amount of greenhouse gases that are emitted into the atmosphere
b)
the release of gas
c)
a place or environment where a plant or animal naturally or normally lives or grows
d)
a certain type of greenhouse gas
195.
Why does too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere cause climate change?
a)
It cools our planet
b)
Blocks out UV rays
c)
Traps heat and warms planet
d)
Lets light escape
196.
Which is a greenhouse gas
a)
methane
b)
Oxygen
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Ammonium
197.
Which of the following adds oxygen to the atmosphere
a)
forest fires
b)
photosynthesis
c)
weathering of rocks
d)
life processes of animals
198.
What does CFC stand for
a)
Carbon Fiber Chlorine
b)
Chlorofluorocarbon
c)
Care for Carbon
d)
Carbon Footprint Caste
199.
How do humans affect the carbon cycle
a)
Inhaling oxygen
b)
Exhalation of carbon dioxide
c)
Using CFCs
d)
Wearing sunscreen
200.
How are the burning of fossil fuels and volcanic eruptions similar with respect to their effects on the carbon cycle
a)
both remove carbon from the atmosphere
b)
both aff carbon to the atmosphere
c)
both add carbon to the lithosphere
d)
both remove carbon from the lithosphere
201.
Deforestation contributes to the greenhouse gasses by
a)
loss of trees that would otherwise remove carbon dioxide from the air
b)
as trees are cut, they release carbon dioxide
c)
increasing the amount of oxygen in the air
202.
Carbon is stored in
a)
trees and other living things
b)
oceans
c)
underground in soil and fossil fuels
d)
all are correct
203.
Water vapor is a greenhouse gas
a)
True
b)
False
204.
What is the mixture of gases surrounding the Earth called
a)
atmosphere
b)
carbon
c)
concentration
d)
emissions
205.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
206.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
207.
What does not produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
208.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a)
respiration and photosynthesis
b)
 decomposition and respiration
209.
How does the carbon in grass become part of a lion?
a)
The lion eats the grass
b)
Carbon from grass doesn't end up in a lion. 
c)
The carbon ends up in the lion's food chain. 
d)
The lion breathes in carbon given out by the plant
210.

Carbon Dioxide is a gas produced by _ and used by _

a)

plants and animals

b)

photosynthesis and carbon dioxide

c)

animals and plants

d)

carbon dioxide and photosynthesis

211.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
212.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
213.

If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon would _________.

a)

Stay the same

b)

Increase

c)

Decrease

214.

Carbon can be found in...?

a)

The atmosphere

b)

Inside of the Earth

c)

Fossil fuels

d)

All of the above!

215.

If there is a fire in a forest, there will be more _ in the environment?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

216.

How is the burning of fossil fuels related to global warming?

a)

Magic

b)

Fuels are hot

c)

Greenhouse effect

d)

Photosynthesis

217.

The circulation of the element Carbon among Earth's atmosphere, land, oceans, and organisms is called _____________.

a)

the Carbon Cycle

b)

the Oxygen Cycle

c)

the Carbon dioxide Cycle

d)

the Water Cycle

218.

How do scientists collect evidence about climate?

a)

using remote sensing from space with satellites

b)

by ground-based measurements of surface temperatures, carbon dioxide concentration and sea level

c)

by collecting “proxy data” from tree rings, ice cores, and historical records

d)

all of the above

219.

Which of the following have been linked to climate change?

a)

droughts

b)

flooding

c)

melting of polar ice caps

d)

all of the above

220.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
221.

Climate change causes extreme weather conditions such as:

a)

excessive heat

b)

drought

c)

extreme storms

d)

all of these

222.

Which food source would contribute to climate change the least?

a)

Corn

b)

Eggs

c)

Pork

d)

Beef

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