wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

3.8-3.17 aviation (99 questions)

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

a)

When advised by the tower to do so

b)

prior to turning off the runway

c)

after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

2.

If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9, the pilot may proceed

a)

via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9

b)

to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

c)

via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made

3.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information's concerning

a)

pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction

b)

nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion

c)

noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas

4.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates

a)

weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums

b)

the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted

c)

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

5.

When a control tower located on an airport within class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation

a)

the airspace designation normally will not change

b)

The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available

c)

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

6.

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

a)

Satellite airports UNICOM

b)

associated Flight Service Station

c)

primary airports control tower

7.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

a)

the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace

b)

5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport

c)

The instrument procedure's for which the controlled airspace is established

8.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports

a)

regardless of weather conditions

b)

only when weather conditions are less VFR

c)

within class D airspace only when weather condtions are less than VFR

9.

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

a)

when the weather minimums are below basic VFR

b)

When the associated control towers is in operation

c)

when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation

10.

When should pilots state their position on airport when calling the tower for takeoff

a)

when visibility is less than 1 mile

b)

when parallel runways are in use

c)

when departing from a runway intersection

11.

The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally

a)

10 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

30 NM

12.

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a staellite airport within Class C airspace

a)

The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure

b)

the pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace

c)

the pilot must contract ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

13.

all operations within Class C airspace must be in

a)

accordance with instrument flight rules

b)

compliance with ATC clearances and instructions

c)

an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability

14.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace

a)

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

b)

contact the tower and requests permission to enter

c)

Contract the FSS for traffic advisories

15.

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

a)

1,200 feet AGL

b)

3,000 feet AGL

c)

4,000 feet AGL

16.

two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace

a)

Class C

b)

Class E

c)

Class G

17.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of Class B primary airport from the surface upwar to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

a)

ab operable VOR or TACAN receiver

b)

instuments and equipment required for IFR operations

c)

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability

18.

What minimum pilot certifications is required for operations within Class B airspace

a)

Recreational Pilot certification

b)

Private Pilot certification or Student Pilot Certification with appropriate logbook endorsements

c)

Private Pilot Certification with an instrument rating

19.

what minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace

a)

Private Pilot Certification or Student Pilot Certification with appropriate logbooks endorsements

b)

Commercial Pilot Certification

c)

Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

20.

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace

a)

500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility

b)

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

c)

clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility

21.

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby". May you enter the Class B airspace

a)

you must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance

b)

you may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions

c)

you may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions

22.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

23.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

24.

VFR flight in controlled airspace over 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance

a)

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace

b)

5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes

c)

5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet aboce the clouds only in Class A airspace

25.

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required

a)

1,000 feet

b)

2,000 feet

c)

1 mile

26.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,00 feet MSL?

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

27.

The minimum distance from clouds required fro VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is

a)

remain clear of clouds

b)

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

c)

500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally

28.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours

a)

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

b)

1 mile visability, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

c)

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

29.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

30.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

31.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more that 1,200 feet AGL, but less that 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a)

500 feet

b)

1,000 feet

c)

1,500 feet

32.

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)

a)

landing at an airport with an operating control tower

b)

overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

c)

flying under the shelf of Class C airspace

33.

No person may takeoff or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the

a)

flight visibility at the airport is at least 1 mile

b)

ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile

c)

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles

34.

During operations of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above the clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a)

500 feet

b)

1,000 feet

c)

1,500 feet

35.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

5 miles

36.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a)

1,000 feet

b)

1,500 feet

c)

2,000 feet

37.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is

a)

500 feet

b)

1,000 feet

c)

1,500 feet

38.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least

a)

1,000 feet and 1 miles

b)

1,000 feet and 3 miles

c)

2,000 feet and 3 miles

39.

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 feet MSL in class E airspace what is the minimum flight visibility

a)

3 SM

b)

5 SM

c)

1 SM

40.

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace

a)

Automated Flight Service Station

b)

Air Traffic Control Tower

c)

Air Route Traffic Control Center

41.

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

a)

less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet

b)

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

c)

at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

42.

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the

a)

flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds

b)

airplane is equipped for instrument flight

c)

flight visibility is at least 3 miles

43.

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night

a)

the airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace

b)

The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder

c)

the pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

44.

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace

a)

1 mile flight visibility

b)

1 mile flight visibility and 1,000 feet ceiling

c)

3 miles flight visibility and 1,000 feet ceiling

45.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace

a)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and ADS-B out equipment

b)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B out equipment

c)

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, ADS-B out equipment, and a VOR or TACAN receiver

46.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class C airspace

a)

two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder

b)

two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and a DME

c)

two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an end=coding altimeter, and ADS-B out equipment

47.

Unless otherwise specified, Federal airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

a)

700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

b)

1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

c)

the surfcae, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL

48.

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

a)

IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles laterial) between all aircraft

b)

warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

c)

sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

49.

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations

a)

clearance delivery

b)

tower, just before takeoff

c)

ground control, on initial contact

50.

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

a)

safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

b)

mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program

c)

wind-shear warning at participating airports

51.

In Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

a)

0000

b)

1200

c)

4096

52.

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code

a)

7200

b)

7000

c)

7500

53.

when making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

4096

54.

when operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

7700

55.

at an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?

a)

Mode A/3, Code 1200

b)

Mode F, 1200

c)

Mode C, Code 4096

56.

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code

a)

1200

b)

7600

c)

7700

57.

what is the hijack code

a)

7200

b)

7500

c)

7777

58.

what is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications

a)

7400

b)

7500

c)

7600

59.

In what event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately

a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

7777

60.

The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of

a)

a hijacking

b)

an emergancy

c)

lost communications

61.

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is

a)

"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE CORTAC, OVER"

b)

"MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER"

c)

"MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE CORTAC, OVER"

62.

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

"FOUR THOUSAND FICE HUNDRED"

b)

"FOUR POINT FIVE"

c)

"FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL"

63.

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

"TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET"

b)

"TEN POINT FIVE"

c)

"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED"

64.

The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is

a)

FIVE POINT FIVE

b)

FIFTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL

c)

FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED

65.

ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock" This advisory is relative to your

a)

true course

b)

ground track

c)

magnetic heading

66.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot fluing on a heading of 090 degrees

"TRAFFIC 5 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND"

where should the pilot look for this traffic

a)

east

b)

south

c)

west

67.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 degrees\

"TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic

a)

Northwest

b)

Northeast

c)

Southwest

68.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight

"TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..."

Where should the pilot look for this traffic

a)

between directly ahead and 90 degree to the left

b)

between directly behind and 90 degree to the right

c)

between directly ahead and 90 degree to the right

69.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind;

"TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND ..."

where should the pilot look for this traffic

a)

South

b)

North

c)

West

70.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control towered, Under these circumstances, the pilot should

a)

discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land

b)

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

c)

abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

71.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport

a)

observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower

b)

enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings

c)

flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport

72.

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

a)

is cleared to land

b)

should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

c)

should return for landing

73.

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxing aircraft is an indication to

a)

taxi at a faster speed

b)

taxi only on taxiways and not cross any runways

c)

return to the starting point on the airport

74.

If the control tower uses a light signals to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a)

flashing red

b)

steady red

c)

alternating red and green

75.

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi

a)

flashing green

b)

steady green

c)

flashing white

76.

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

a)

hold position

b)

exercise extreme caution

c)

not land; the airport is unsafe

77.

When activated, and emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on

a)

118.0 MHz

b)

406 MHz

c)

123.0 MHz

78.

While on VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency

a)

121.5 MHz

b)

122.5 MHz

c)

128.75 MHz

79.

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) programs

a)

recreational pilots only

b)

military pilots

c)

student pilots

80.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

a)

pilot in command

b)

owner/operator

c)

second-in-command

81.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

a)

pilot in command

b)

Air Traffic Control

c)

Second in command

82.

Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)

a)

Special Notices section of the chart supplement

b)

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

c)

14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules

83.

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

a)

when it will compromise safety

b)

Only when the tower operator concurs

c)

pilots cannot decline clearance

84.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance

a)

3 nautical miles

b)

3 statute miles

c)

1 statute mile

85.

What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport

a)

all aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volumes

b)

That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway

c)

delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume

86.

If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance

a)

the full runway length is available

b)

use rule of thumb to determine the distance

c)

ask the controller