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EOC Units 5-6

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Genetically modified food (or GM food) is food produced from plants or animals whose DNA has been altered through genetic engineering.

a)

True

b)

False

2.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
3.

The process of asexually producing a cell, group of cells, or organism that is produced asexually from and is genetically identical to a single ancestor.

a)

Genetic Modification

b)

Genetic Engineering

c)

Cloning

d)

Bioremediation

4.

The discipline dealing with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation.

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Ethics

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

Bioremediation

5.
Stem cells are used to __________.
a)
make clones
b)
create new species of animals
c)
make babies
d)
grow different types of tissues
6.

Which of the following best describes a gene?

a)

A section of DNA

b)

A bundle of DNA

c)

Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of genes

d)

All of the genetic material in your cells

7.

Which of the following best describes "genome"?

a)

A section of DNA

b)

A bundle of DNA

c)

Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of genes

d)

All of the genetic material in an organism

8.

Besides the nucleus, which other organelle in your cell has DNA in it?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Vacuole

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Lysosomes

9.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following best describes "stem cells?"

a)

A cell without a job

b)

A cell with a specific job in your body

c)

A cell that can turn into ANY type of cell in your body

d)

A cell that has procured a viral infection

10.

Gene therapy is when:

a)

A person's genes are edited

b)

New genes are added to a person's genome

c)

Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the human genome

d)

Stem cells are used to cure a disease

11.

Adaptations can be:

a)

camouflage

b)

ability to survive cold weather

c)

hunting skills

d)

all of the above

12.

Natural selection occurs during the lifetime of a single organism.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is most likely to happen to moth populations in the picture shown?

a)

Light moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

b)

Dark moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

c)

Light moths--hunted easily, light moths--population increase

d)

Lights moths will change their color to match dark moths.

14.

TRUE or FALSE: Natural selection will still occur if individuals are exactly the same.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

How do you "win" at natural selection?

a)

survive

b)

go extinct

c)

survive & reproduce

16.

Due to pollution, a pond becomes darker over time. Which trait variation became more common?

a)

light fish

b)

dark fish

17.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
18.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
19.

According to natural selection, light colored tree trunks would favor

a)

light colored moths

b)

dark colored moths

c)

red colored moths

d)

red and light colored moths

20.

Natural Selection is driven by a change in the environment and survival of the

a)

Earth

b)

Fastest

c)

Fittest

d)

Biggest

21.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
22.
Definition: fitness
a)
ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment
b)
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce at a greater rate
c)
a growing population causes a scarcity of resources
d)
differences in the DNA sequence
23.
What type of selection is depicted in the picture? 
a)
stabilizing 
b)
directional 
c)
disruptive 
d)
the answer is not here
24.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional 
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
25.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage

26.

Which statement is best supported by the observable structures of the different humerus bones?

a)

The primates lived in similar environments.

b)

The primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

The primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

The primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

27.

Scientists use zebra fish to study human genetic diseases because zebra fish and humans share many of the same genetic diseases.


Which statement describes why zebra fish experience similar genetic diseases as humans?

a)

Zebra fish have an omnivorous diet similar to that of humans.

b)

Zebra fish have nucleotide sequences similar to those of humans.

c)

Zebra fish go through embryonic stages similar to those of humans.

d)

Zebra fish produce gametes through a process that is similar to that of humans.

28.

The diagram below gives evidence to what principle of evolution?

a)

Species that live in the same geographic region are more likely to be closely related.

b)

Embryonic similarities indicate how some species develop in common ways.

c)

Humans are anatomically more advanced than other species.

d)

Bones structures are homologous among many different species.

29.

The diagram above can be used as a model for:

a)

cell division through mitosis

b)

resemblances in embryonic development

c)

DNA similarities between organisms

d)

natural selection

30.

Two organisms are closely related on an evolutionary tree. They should:

a)

share the same predators and prey

b)

have similar embryonic development

c)

have no anatomical differences

d)

have undergone the same genetic mutations

31.

Which of the following are possible scenarios for this model?


I. A new predator migrates into an ecosystem and preys on lizards that are unable to camouflage.

II. A virus kills a number of organisms that do not have a specific genetic resistance.

III. A forest fire reduces the population of cedar trees in a particular region.

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

32.
Which two orgainsms have hair? 
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
33.

All the animals to the right of the salamander would have the common characteristic of...

a)

Fur

b)

Claws or nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Jaws

34.

The arm of a human, the flipper of a whale, and the wing of a bat all have similar bone structures. Therefore, these parts of the body would all be considered...

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

transitional fossils

d)

common ancestors

35.

The tail bone, wisdom teeth, and appendix are all parts of the human anatomy that would be considered...

a)

homologous structures

b)

vestigial structures

c)

fossils

d)

extinct

36.

A bird's wing and a butterfly's wing have the same function, but they have very different structures. These structures are classified as follows:

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

embryological homologues

37.

Based on the number of differences in amino acid sequence, which pair of organisms is least related to each other?

a)

Fruit fly-wheat

b)

Human - wheat

c)

Fruit fly- pigeon

d)

Human-horse

38.

In this example of natural selection, what environmental factor is acting as a selection force - or environmental pressure - on the giraffe?

a)

Food is found on tree tops

b)

Having a long neck

c)

Being cursed with beauty

d)

Having spots that act as camouflage

39.

The study of embryological development provides anatomical evidence for evolution because...

a)

all vertebrate embryos pass through the same stages of development in the same sequence.

b)

all vertebrates are born with gills and a tail.

c)

all vertebrate embryos have completely different stages of development that look nothing alike.

d)

all plants and animals have wings, even if you can't see them when they are born.

40.

Convergent evolution is when

a)

Species share traits due to a common ancestor

b)

Species have similar traits because of similar environment

c)

Species have same traits due to different environments

41.

If you have a dramatic change resulting in a new species in between long stretches of time with no change this would be

a)

Gradualism

b)

Swift speciation

c)

Punctuated Equilibrium

42.

Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

43.

Coevolution is the

a)

Species looking similar due to a common ancestor

b)

Species looking similar due to a common environment

c)

evolution of two species that do not interact

d)

evolution of one species in response to evolution in another species

44.

If an animal evolves to be more camouflaged in an environment, and another animal evolves a better ability to sense movement. This would be

a)

Divergent Evolution

b)

Coevolution: predator Pray

c)

Coevolution: mimicry

45.
Which best describes mutations?
a)
Always helpful
b)
Always harmful
c)
Can be helpful or harmful
d)
Always neutral
46.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
47.

Which of the following are selection pressures in nature?

a)

Selective breeding by humans

b)

Available food

c)

classification of organisms

d)

Competition for mates

e)

Hot, dry climate

48.

Which of the following are examples of geographic isolation?

a)

When a storm blows a population of finches to a new island so they can no longer mate with the finches on the mainland

b)

A mountain range prevents two types of goat from mating, causing the gene pool to become less varied

c)

Two populations of deer living near each other happen to mate during different times of the year

d)

A deepening canyon cuts two populations of squirrels off from each other

e)

Two populations of birds have developed different mating calls

49.

What does the similarity of these structures tell us about these organisms?

a)

They grow at different rates

b)

they have a common ancestor

c)

They evolved slowly

d)

They do the same thing

50.

The Endosymbiotic Theory explains

a)

the origin of prokaryotes

b)

how bacteria lives

c)

the origin of eukaryotes

d)

how species develop

51.

Bacteria are an example of a ____ cell.

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

plant

d)

animal

52.

_____ and _____ are organelles that arose from endosymbiosis

a)

nucleus and cell membrane

b)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

c)

cell wall and chloroplasts

d)

mitochondria and nucleus

53.

Which type of cell does NOT contain membrane-bound organelles?

a)

plant cells

b)

animal cells

c)

prokaryotic cells

d)

eukaryotic cells

54.

Which of the following is evidence to support the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is similar to prokaryotic DNA.

b)

Fossil evidence shows that the first forms of life were prokaryotic cells.

c)

All eukaryotic cells have a double-layered membrane composed of phosplipids and proteins.

d)

Prokaryotes have the same number and types of enzymes as eukaryotes.

55.

Thermophiles, Halophiles, and Methanogens all exist in extreme environments. What domain do these organisms belong to?

a)

Eukarya

b)

Archaea

c)

Bacteria

56.

Where is the alligator and T. rex's common ancestor?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

57.
Examples of a producer
a)
frog
b)
algae
c)
worm
d)
mouse
58.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
59.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
60.
In the energy pyramid here, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
61.
In the energy pyramid below, which organism has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
62.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
63.
The largest group of organisms found in a food web would be:
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
64.

What amount of percentage does the energy decrease as it goes up the pyramid?

a)

100%

b)

1000%

c)

10%

d)

1%

65.
Biodiversity is 
a)
the variety of species within an ecosystem
b)
a large number of the same species in an ecosystem
c)
an abundant amount of the same primary consumers 
d)
the ability to have an abundant source from the same species
66.

Photosynthesis is important because...

a)

it makes carbon dioxide

b)

it makes food for the food webs

c)

it makes water

d)

it's not important

67.
A population is...
a)
A group of one species in one area
b)
Multiple species that live in one area
c)
All of the living and nonliving things in an area
d)
None of these
68.
If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what will happen to the growth of the population?
a)
It will increase.
b)
It will decrease.
c)
It will stay the same.
d)
It will fluctuate.
69.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

70.

What type of growth model is shown in image A?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

71.
Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population of another organism is known as __________.
a)
a limiting measure
b)
a limiting factor
c)
factorization
d)
materialization of precipitation
72.

This graph shows ....

a)

When one population increases, the other decreases.

b)

When one population decreases, the other increases.

c)

When one population increases, the other increases instantly.

d)

When one population increases, it causes the other to increases shortly after.

73.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

74.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

75.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)
1.8 million
b)
1.25 million
c)
1.6 million
d)
1.o million
76.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
77.

In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat?

a)

80%

b)

90%

c)

10%

d)

20%

78.

What is the correct order of changes during primary succession?

a)

Climax community, consumers, producers, pioneer species

b)

Soil, producers, consumers, climax community

c)

New rock, pioneer species, producers, consumers, climax community

79.

What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area in primary succession, such as a glacier receding or a volcano covering land with lava?

a)

Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees

b)

Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses

c)

Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees

d)

Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees

80.

Which of these is an abiotic factor?

a)

Competition between organisms for food

b)

Seasonal variations in precipitation and temperature

c)

Predators

d)

Parasites that affects the host

81.

Why is nitrogen limited when the atmosphere is 78% nitrogen?

a)

It isn't limited

b)

Not many organisms can fix nitrogen, which means turn it into a useful form

c)

Nitrogen is so light that it floats above the rest of the gases in the atmosphere and most organisms can reach it

82.

Cell membranes are semipermeable, which means that some things can go through the membrane, but some things cannot. If a membrane is permeable to iodine, but not permeable to starch, which molecules will move through the membrane

a)

Only starch

b)

Only iodine

c)

Neither

d)

Both

83.

What would happen if an alien destroyed all the decomposers in an ecosystem?

a)

The ecosystem would become more stable because there would be fewer organisms.

b)

The ecosystem would become less stable because nutrients could not be recycled and returned to the soil

c)

Nothing would change.

84.

Using this picture, how is carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere?

a)

root respiration

b)

factory emission

c)

sunlight

d)

photosynthesis

85.

What is the usable form of nitrogen that plants need according to this diagram?

a)

assimilation

b)

nitrites

c)

nitrates

d)

ammonification

86.

Why do plants need nitrogen?

a)

to build proteins

b)

to get energy

c)

to photosynthesize

d)

to transport water from roots to leaves

87.

What process not pictured can be completed by symbiotic bacteria in bean plants and by lightning?

a)

nitrification

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

respiration

d)

ammonification

88.

Which organisms conduct nitrification?

a)

animals

b)

bacteria

c)

plants

d)

humans

89.

What process will transfer carbon dioxide directly out of the food chain?

a)

consumption

b)

decomposition

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

90.

Which of the following processes does not return CO2 into the atmosphere?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Burning fossil fuels

d)

Decomposition

91.

This image represents the

a)

Water Cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

c)

Nitrogen Cycle

d)

Phosphorous Cycle

92.

The most important factor in converting nitrogen into usable forms during the nitrogen cycle is...

a)

Animals

b)

Plants

c)

Bacteria

d)

Decomposers

93.

You can use the nitrogen in the atmosphere

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Too much nitrogen and phosphorus from fertilizers can runoff into freshwater and....

a)

be used to synthesize lipids.

b)

be absorbed directly by phosphate rock.

c)

be decomposed and returned to large bodies of water.

d)

lead to algal blooms, which causes eutrophication

95.

When water turns to vapor and rises into the atmosphere from the ocean, it is called

a)

condensation

b)

transpiration

c)

evaporation

d)

sublimation

96.

How does most of the carbon in an organism's body return to the environment after the organism dies?

a)

Decomposers break the body down into simpler compounds

b)

Heat from the sun causes the carbon in the body to evaporate

c)

Geological processes cause the body to turn into a fossil fuel

d)

Rain water dissolves the carbon in the body and carries it to the ocean.

97.

What is a keystone species?

a)

A species that helps to hold an ecosystem together

b)

A species that lives in or around rocks

c)

Keys and stones have nothing to do with ecology

d)

A keystone isn't a living thing, it's just a stone

98.

Why are bees considered a keystone species?

a)

The honey they make supports the bear population

b)

They pollinate flowers that produce fruit which supports the ecosystem

c)

They sting when threatened

d)

They live in hives

99.

Why are some sharks considered a keystone species?

a)

Because they are a top predator

b)

They scare off smaller fish that may overgraze an area of sea grass

c)

They are tertiary consumers

d)

They are cartilaginous

100.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

1000

b)

8000

c)

800

d)

600

101.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

around 500

b)

more than 800

c)

less than 300

d)

around 700

102.

What is the carrying capacity of the graph?

a)

around 500

b)

more than 800

c)

less than 300

d)

around 700

103.

When the death rate rises and the birth rate lowers...

a)

population increases

b)

population decreases

c)

population stays the same

d)

all of these

104.
what is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases 
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
105.
Scientists think people have directly caused the extinction of some species through ______________.
a)
habitat destruction
b)
poaching
c)
pollution
d)
All of these

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