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Chemistry Final Review

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is most likely a covalent bond?

a)

Na-I

b)

N-H

c)

O-O

d)

Ca-O

2.

Consider the following equilibrium:

 

HPO42-(aq) + H2O(l) ⇌ H2PO4-(aq) + OH-(aq)

 

Which of the following is correct?

a)

The equilibrium lies predominantly to the left and Kc > 1

b)

The equilibrium lies predominantly to the right and Kc < 1

c)

The equilibrium lies predominantly to the right and Kc > 1

d)

The equilibrium lies predominantly to the left and Kc < 1

e)

The equilibrium lies predominantly to the right and Kc = 1

3.

The pH of 0.200 M Sr(OH)2(aq) is ______________.

a)

0.70

b)

13.3

c)

0.40

d)

13.60

e)

Kb for Sr(OH)2 is needed to calculate the pH

4.

1.   Given the following data for the reaction A --> B, determine the activation energy, Ea, of the reaction.

a)

2.34 kJ/mol

b)

19.4 kJ/mol

c)

2.02 kJ/mol

d)

38.2 kJ/mol

e)

18.6 kJ/mol

5.

The National Primary Drinking Water Regulations limit the concentration of lead in drinking water to 0.015 mg/L, which is __________.

a)

0.015 ppb

b)

15 ppm

c)

150 ppb

d)

1.5 ppb

e)

15 ppb

6.

In the diagram below, one beaker contains pure water and the other contains an equal volume of seawater. Seawater has various salts dissolved in it. The beakers are sitting in a totally enclosed chamber, and the outside temperature and pressure are held constant. Identify the statements below about this situation that are not correct.

I. Water will be transferred from the pure water beaker to the seawater beaker.

II. Water will be transferred from the seawater beaker to the pure water beaker.

III. The vapor pressure of the pure water is higher than the vapor pressure of the seawater.

IV. Pure water evaporates at a faster rate than seawater.

V. Water in the gas phase condenses into both beakers at the same rate.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

7.

Which of the following gases do you expect to be most soluble in water?

a)

NH3

b)

O2

c)

CO2

d)

Ar

e)

N2

8.

3. Which of the solutions shown here will have the lowest vapor pressure (highest boiling point)? White circles indicate solvent molecules; black circles indicate molecules of a nonvolatile solute.

a)

b)

c)

d)

9.

4. The solubility of any gas in a liquid can always be increased by __________________

a)

using a solvent that can form hydrogen bonds.

b)

increasing the temperature.

c)

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

d)

using a solvent that is nonpolar.

e)

increasing the pressure of the gas above the solvent.

10.

A solution contains 6.50 mol water, 0.300 mol sucrose, and 0.200 mol glucose. The solutes are nonvolatile. What is the vapor pressure of the solution at 35 °C given that the vapor pressure of water is 42.2 torr?

a)

35.0 torr

b)

36.0 torr

c)

37.0 torr

d)

39.2 torr

e)

39.0 torr

11.

2. A 15.0 mg sample of a protein was dissolved in water to produce 5.00 mL of solution at 25.1°C. The osmotic pressure of this solution was measured and found to be 6.50 torr. What is the molar mass of this protein?

a)

427 g/mol

b)

941 g/mol

c)

8580 g/mol

d)

4270 g/mol

e)

561 g/mol

12.

A 300 mg sample of compound Z (nonelectrolyte) was dissolved in 10.0 g of camphor (Kf = 39.7 °C/m), decreasing the freezing point of camphor by 3.07 °C. What is the molar mass of Z?

a)

47.0 g/mol

b)

194 g/mol

c)

388 g/mol

d)

94.0 g/mol

e)

97.0 g/mol

13.

4. A 1.35 m aqueous solution of compound X had a boiling point of 101.4 °C. Which one of the following could be compound X? The boiling point elevation constant for water is 0.52 °C/m.

a)

CH3CH2OH

b)

C6H12O6

c)

Na3PO4

d)

CaCl2

e)

KCl

14.

Indicate which aqueous solution has the fastest evaporation rate

a)

0.1 M KCl

b)

0.2 M Na2CO3

c)

0.2 M NaCl

d)

0.1 M MgCl2

e)

0.2 M MgCl2

15.

Which solution will have the lowest osmotic pressure when measured against pure water?

a)

0.10 M sodium chloride

b)

0.10 M sodium sulfate

c)

0.10 M sodium sulfide

d)

0.10 M sodium phosphate

e)

0.10 M sodium carbonate

16.

1. Which of the following statements regarding chemical kinetics is incorrect?

a)

The rate of a chemical reaction typically decreases with time.

b)

The instantaneous rate of a reaction can be obtained from the slope of a line tangent to a plot of concentration versus time

c)

A reaction that is spontaneous will be a fast reaction.

d)

Understanding a reaction mechanism allows us to facilitate a reaction.

e)

The series of steps by which a reaction takes place is called a reaction mechanism

17.

Which of the following statements regarding chemical kinetics is incorrect?

a)

A spontaneous reaction may occur so slowly that no appreciable products are formed for months or years.

b)

In order to be useful, a chemical reaction must occur at a reasonable rate.

c)

The area of chemistry that studies reaction rates is called chemical kinetics.

d)

One goal of the study of chemical kinetics is to understand the mechanism of a reaction

e)

The rate of a reaction is defined as the difference between the initial and final concentrations of a reactant

18.

In general, as activation energy increases, reaction rate _________________.

a)

goes down if it is exothermic

b)

goes down if it is exothermic

c)

goes down regardless of whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic

d)

does not change regardless whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic

e)

none of the above

19.

Of the following, _________ will lower the activation energy for a reaction.

a)

increasing the concentrations of the reactants

b)

increasing the concentrations of the products

c)

adding a catalyst for the reaction

d)

removing products as the reaction proceeds

e)

increasing the pressure

20.

Using the formula:

N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g).

Which curve is nitrogen?

a)

dashed curve

b)

gray curve

c)

clack curve

d)

black or gray

e)

all of the above

21.

2. For the reaction.

2A + 3B  4C + 5D

How is the rate of this reaction related to the rate at which the concentration of a reactant or product changes?

I. Rate = (-½)[A]/t II. Rate = -[B]/t

III. Rate = [C]/t IV. Rate = (1/5)[D]/t

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

22.

3. At a certain time in a reaction, substance A is disappearing at a rate of 4.0 × 10–2 M/s, substance B is disappearing at a rate of 2.0 × 10–2 M/s, and substance C is appearing at a rate of 6.0 × 10–2 M/s. Which of the following could be the stoichiometry for the reaction being studied?

a)

2A + B → 3C

b)

A → 2B + 3C

c)

2A → B + 3C

d)

4A → 2B + 3C

e)

A + 2B → 3C

23.

4. A flask is charged with 0.124 mol of A and allowed to react to form B according to the reaction A(g) →B(g). The following data are obtained for [A] as the reaction proceeds:

The average rate of disappearance of A between 10 s and 20 s is ________ mol/s.

a)

2.2 × 10-3

b)

1.1 × 10-3

c)

454

d)

4.4 × 10-3

e)

9.90 × 10-3

24.

Which of the following must be true of an intermediate in a reaction mechanism? An intermediate is ________

 

I. produced by an elementary step

II. consumed in an elementary step

III. not included in the overall balanced reaction equation.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

all of the above

25.

For a hypothetical reaction, the rate of the reaction in terms of the changes in the concentrations of the reactants and products is in the picture. The balanced equation is:

a)

3C + 2D --> A + 2B

b)

A + 1/2 B --> 1/3 C + 1/2 D

c)

A + 3B --> 4C + 5D

d)

A + 2B --> 3C + 2D

26.

The rate law of the overall reaction:

   3A + 2B + 5C → D 

is:

Rate = k[A]2[C]

Which of the following is not correct?

a)

Doubling [A] will increase the rate by a factor of 4

b)

The unit of k is M-2.s-1

c)

The reaction is zero order in [B]

d)

The reaction is third order overall

e)

Doubling the [B] will double the reaction rate

27.

A proposed mechanism for the decomposition of ozone in the stratosphere is:

 

Step 1: Cl(g) + O3(g) --> ClO(g) + O2(g)

Step 2: ClO(g) + O3(g) --> Cl(g) + 2 O2(g)

 

What is the molecularity of step 2?

a)

unimolecular

b)

bimolecular

c)

termolecular

d)

zeromolecular

e)

there is not enough info

28.

Arrange the following bonds in order of increasing bond polarity. Start with the least polar bond.

A.) Mg-F

B.) F-F

C.) O-F

D.) Be-F

E.) K-F

F.) N-F

G.) I-I

a)

G=B, C, F, D, A, E

b)

G, B, C, F, D, A, E

c)

A, E, D, F, C, B=G

d)

A, E, D, F, C, B, G

29.

What is the molecular formula for the molecule below?

a)

C13H28

b)

C13H12

c)

C13H52

d)

C13H13

30.

4ED has ____ hybridization

a)

sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp3d

31.

Consider the following Lewis structures for the sulfate (SO42-) ion. Which of these structures is the best one (i.e., has the greatest contribution toward the actual structure of the ion?

a)

b)

c)

32.

How many valance electrons are in the (PO43-) ion?

a)

32

b)

29

c)

26

d)

35

33.

Is the (PO43-) ion polar or nonpolar?

a)

polar

b)

nonpolar

34.

which of the following are structural isomers of n-octane (C8H18)?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

35.

The name of the compound it:

a)

1-chloro-6-bromohexane

b)

1-chloro-8-bromooctane

c)

1-chloro-7-bromoheptane

d)

1-bromo-8-chlorooctane

e)

1-bromo-6-chlorohexane

36.

How many sigma bonds are present?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

2

37.

Arrange the following ionic compounds in order of increasing the lattice energy:

 FeP, MgCl2, CsBr, SrCl2, NaF

a)

CsBr < NaF < SrCl2 < MgCl2 < FeP

b)

FeP < MgCl2 < SrCl2 < NaF < CsBr

c)

MgCl2 < SrCl2 < CsBr < NaF < FeP

38.

Determine the interaction (binding) energy of calcium oxide if the radius of the calcium ion is 146 pm and that of the oxide ion is 94 pm.

 

a)

−3.85×10−18-3.85\times10^{-18}

b)

3.85⋅10−183.85\cdot10^{-18}

c)

−3.85⋅1018-3.85\cdot10^{18}

39.

Which of the following regarding LDF is not true?

a)

At room temperature, F2 is a gas and I2 exists as a solid because I2 is more polarizable and has a stronger LDF

b)

n-heptane has a stronger LDF than n-hexane

c)

At room temperature, H2O(l) has a stronger LDF than H2S(g)

d)

All hydrocarbons only have LDF

e)

When mixed together, LDF is the only type of intermolecular forces that exist between H2O (l) and CCl4 (l)

40.

Which of the following is not true?

a)

NaCl has a higher bp than CH3-CH2-OH

b)

Both CH3F and CH3-O-CH3 have H-bonding in them

c)

The predominant attractive force between the particles in MgF2(s) is ion-dipole forces.

d)

ICl (bp = 97 °C; molecular weight = 162 amu) has a higher boiling point than Br2 (bp = 59 °C; molecular weight = 160 amu) due to the dipole-dipole interactions in ICl that do not exist in Br2.

e)

Ice is less dense than liquid water due to hydrogen bonding.

41.

Which of the following pairs of compounds (liquids) is most likely to be immiscible?

a)

H2O and CH3OH

b)

C6H14 and C6H6

c)

Br2 and CCl4

d)

HF and CH3CH2OH

e)

HF and CH3CH2OH

42.

Which of the following has the highest rate of evaporation?

a)

He

b)

CH3CH2OH

c)

C3H8

d)

Br2

e)

HOCH2OH

43.

List the substances 

Ar,Cl2,HCl(aq), CaBr2,CH3COOH 

in order of increasing strength of intermolecular attraction forces. Start with the substance that has the weakest intermolecular forces

a)

Ar < HCl < Cl2 < CH3COOH < CaBr2

b)

Ar < Cl2 < HCl < CH3COOH < CaBr2

c)

Ar < Cl2 < HCl < CaBr2 < CH3COOH

d)

CaBr2 < CH3COOH < HCl < Cl2 < Ar

e)

Cl2 < Ar < HCl < CH3COOH < CaBr2

44.

What information about water is needed to calculate the enthalpy change for converting 1.0 mol H2O(s) at 0 °C H2O(g) at 100 °C?

a)

heat of fusion

b)

heat of vaporization

c)

specific heat of H2O (g)

d)

specific heat of H2O (l)

45.

Which alcohol should be most soluble in hexane, C6H14?

a)

CH3OH

b)

CH3CH2CH2OH

c)

CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

d)

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

e)

CH3CH2OH

46.

Which of the following is not true?

a)

The viscosity of a liquid decreases as the temperature increases

b)

The surface tension of a liquid increases as the molecular weight of the liquid increases

c)

The attractive force that holds NaCl(s) in the solid state operate only between adjacent Na+ and Cl- ions

d)

The attractive force that holds NaCl(aq) in solution are LDF and ion-dipole forces

e)

The boiling point of NaCl(s) is higher than that of NaCl(aq)

47-50.

Based on the following table, answer the questions

47.

_______ is most likely to have the strongest DDF.

a)

HCl

b)

Br2

c)

HBr

d)

HI

e)

Ne

48.

________ is likely to have the weakest DDF.

a)

Br2

b)

HI

c)

HBr

d)

HCl

49.

______ is likely to have the strongest LDF

a)

I2

b)

Br2

c)

I2

d)

Ne

50.

________ is likely to have the weakest LDF

a)

HCl

b)

Br2

c)

Ne

d)

I2

e)

HI

51.

Arrange the following in order of increasing boiling point. Start with the compound that has the lowest boiling point.

A) H2O

B) CO2

C) CH3OH

D) CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH3

E) CH3-CH2-OH

a)

A < E < C < D < B

b)

B < D < C < E < A

c)

A < B < C < D < E

d)

A < B < C < E < D

52.

ΔS is positive for the reaction ________.

a)

2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g)

b)

2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)

c)

CO2(g) → CO2(s)

d)

BaF2(s) → Ba2+(aq) + 2F-(aq)

e)

2Hg(l) + O2(g) → 2HgO(s)

53.

Rank the following solutions A, B, and C from the most exothermic to the most endothermic.

a)

A, C, B

b)

C, A, B

c)

A, B, C

d)

C, B, A

e)

B, C, A

54.

The dissolution of CH3OH in CCl4 is principally prevented by

a)

London dispersion forces between CCl4 molecules

b)

dipole-dipole attraction between CCl4 molecules

c)

ion-dipole attraction between CH3OH and CCl4 molecules

d)

repulsion between like-charged CH3OH and CCl4 molecules

e)

hydrogen bonding between CH3OH molecules

55.

The solubility of a compound is determined by

a)

solute–solvent interactions

b)

solute–solute interactions

c)

solvent–solvent interactions

d)

ΔS

e)

all of the above

56.

A supersaturated solution ________.

a)

is one with more than one solute

b)

is one that has been heated

c)

must be in contact with undissolved solid

d)

exists only in theory and cannot actually be prepared

e)

is one with a higher solute concentration than the solubility

57.

Which one of the following is most soluble in C6H6?

a)

CH3OH

b)

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

c)

CH3CH2CH2OH

d)

CH3CH2OH

e)

CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

58.

A solution contains 20% by mass of potassium nitrate. This means that _____________.

a)

there are 20 g of potassium nitrate in 1.0 mL of this solution

b)

100 mL of the solution contains 20 g of potassium nitrate

c)

100 mL of the solution contains 20 g of potassium nitrate

d)

100 mL of the solution contains 20 g of potassium nitrate

e)

100 mL of the solution contains 20 g of potassium nitrate

59.

The solubility of nitrogen gas (N2) in water at 25 °C and a nitrogen pressure of 0.80 atm is 5.5 × 10-4 M. The solubility of nitrogen in water at a nitrogen pressure of 1.00 atm is __________ M.

a)

5.5 × 10-4

b)

8.6 × 10-4

c)

1.2 × 103

d)

6.9 × 10-4

e)

0.80

60.

Calculate the molality of a 17.5% (by mass) aqueous solution of nitric acid (MM = 63.01 g/mol).

a)

0.274 m

b)

3.04 m

c)

3.37 m

d)

4.33 m

e)

density is needed to solve the problem

61.

A solution is prepared by dissolving aluminum sulfate, Al2(SO4)3, in water and diluting to 500.0 mL. If this solution contains 48 ppm sulfate ions, the concentration of aluminum ions is _____________ ppm.

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

64

e)

96

62.

What is the molecular geometry of the ion?

a)

tetrahedral

b)

square planar

c)

square pyramidal

d)

bent

63.

If there are 3ED, the angle measurement is ____.

a)

180

b)

120

c)

109.5

d)

90

64.

63Ni decays by a first-order process via the emission of a beta particle. The 63Ni isotope has a half-life of 100. years. How long will it take for 67% of the nickel to undergo decay?

a)

58 years

b)

160 years

c)

77 years

d)

69 years

e)

25 years

65.

What is the predicted rate law for the following mechanism for the reduction of nitrogen in NO by hydrogen?

a)

Rate = k[H2][NO]2

b)

Rate = k[H2][NO]

c)

Rate = k[H2]2[NO]2

d)

Rate = k[H2]2[NO]2[N2O]2

e)

Rate = k[H2]2[NO]

66.

A first-order reaction is 45% complete at the end of 31 minutes. What is the length of the half-life of this reaction?

a)

27 min

b)

45 min

c)

36 min

d)

1.9 hr

e)

59 min

67.

The steps in a reaction mechanism are as follows. Which species is acting as a catalyst? Which is acting as an intermediate?

a)

Ag+ and Ag2+ are catalysts while Tl2+ is an intermediate

b)

Ag+ and Ag2+ are catalysts while Tl2+ is an intermediate

c)

Tl+ is a catalyst while Ag2+ and Tl2+ are intermediates

d)

Ag+ is a catalyst while Ag2+ and Tl2+are intermediates

e)

 Ag2+ is a catalyst while Tl2+is an intermediate

68.

            2NOB(g) →  2NO(g) + Br2(g)

 is a second-order reaction with a rate constant of 0.80 M-1s-1 at 11 °C. If the initial concentration of NOBr is 0.0440 M, the concentration of NOBr after 6.0 seconds is ________.  

 

a)

0.0276 M

b)

0.0324 M

c)

0.0363 M

d)

0.0348 M

e)

0.0402

69.

Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide are found in photochemical smog. Nitrogen dioxide is formed from nitrogen monoxide in the exhaust of automobile engines. A possible mechanism for this reaction is given below. What is the rate law predicted by the mechanism?

 

Reaction: 2NO(g) + O2(g) --> 2NO2(g)

a)

Rate = k[NO]2[O2]

b)

Rate = k[NO]2

c)

Rate = k[NO][O2]

d)

Rate = k[NO][O]

e)

Rate= [NO2]2/[NO]2[O2]

70.

Which of the following is true for a chemical reaction at equilibrium?

a)

only the forward reaction stops

b)

only the reverse reaction stops

c)

both the forward and reverse reactions stop

d)

the rate constants for the forward and reverse reactions are equal

e)

the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal

71.

Which of the following is true for a chemical reaction at equilibrium regarding the concentration of products?

a)

They will not change because there are no more reactants

b)

They will not change because the limiting reagent is gone

c)

They will not change because this is a constant for each reaction

d)

They will not change because the forward reaction and reverse rates are equal

e)

They will change continually because of reversibility

72.

1.   A chemical equilibrium

2A(aq) ⇌ B(aq)

has a forward rate constant, kf = 10. M –1 s–1, and a reverse rate constant, kr = 5.0 s–1. If the system has a concentration of [A] = 0.10 M at equilibrium, what must be the concentration of B at equilibrium?

a)

20.0 M

b)

2.0 M

c)

0.20 M

d)

0.020 M

e)

200 M

73.

For the hypothetical reaction:

                                     

                          2A(aq) + 3B(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2D(l) + E(aq) + 3F(aq)

 

Which of the following mixtures, if placed in a reaction vessel, would not reach equilibrium?

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

B, C, E, F

c)

C, B, A, F

d)

D, E, A, B, C

e)

All of the mixtures will reach equilibrium

74.

For the following hypothetical equilibrium, what is the value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) if the concentrations at equilibrium are as shown?

a)

0.22

b)

  1. 4. 3 × 105

c)

2.3 × 108

d)

9.5 × 103

e)

9.9

75.

The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the formation of hydrogen iodide from hydrogen and iodine is 45.0 at a certain temperature.

Which of the following is true regarding this equilibrium? 

I. The reaction is product-favored.

II. The reaction is reactant-favored.

III. Equilibrium lies to the right.

IV. Equilibrium lies to the left

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

None are true

76.

Find the equilibrium constant if K is 10.

a)

0.010

b)

0.10

c)

0.20

d)

10

e)

20

77.

Given the following reaction at equilibrium, if Kc = 5.84 × 105 at 230.0 °C, Kp = ________.

a)

3.67 × 10-2

b)

1.41 × 10-4

c)

6.44 × 105

d)

2.40 × 106

e)

2.41 × 107

78.

Given the equilibrium constants for the following two reactions in aqueous solution at 25 ℃, what is the value of Kc for the reaction?

a)

5.4 × 10–3

b)

8.2 × 105

c)

4.1 × 105

d)

4.9 × 10–13

e)

1.8 × 102

79.

Two students measured an equilibrium constant for the same chemical reaction. Ken obtained a value of 130 for the equilibrium constant, but Barbie obtained a value of 11.4. The instructor checked their results and said they were both correct. How can that be?

a)

The values vary according to the way the measurement is made. Ken must have measured product concentrations, while Barbie measured reactant concentrations.

b)

The values vary according to the starting conditions of the reaction prior to equilibrium. Ken must have started with all reactants, while Barbie must have started with all products.

c)

The values vary according to the stoichiometric coefficients that are used. The balancing coefficients that Ken used must have been twice those that Barbie used.

d)

The values vary according to direction of the reaction. Ken must have used the reverse reaction.

e)

The instructor must have made a mistake, because the equilibrium constant for a reaction must always be the same.

80.

Which of the following occurs when products are removed from a chemical reaction in solution or the gas phase at equilibrium?

a)

Q increases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more products

b)

Q increases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants

c)

Q decreases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more products

d)

Q decreases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants

e)

Q is unchanged by the removal of products

81.

In a particular experiment, the partial pressures of H2 and I2 at equilibrium are 0.678 and 0.788 atm, respectively. The partial pressure of HI is ________ atm.

a)

7.87

b)

27.0

c)

5.19

d)

0.103

e)

0.01066

82.

Addition of reactants to a chemical reaction in solution or gas phase at equilibrium results in ___________________________________

a)

an increase in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

b)

a decrease in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

c)

an increase in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more reactants

d)

a decrease in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more reactants

e)

no change in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

83.

The water gas shift reaction shown below can be used to produce hydrogen from water and coal. Given the data in the following table, which experiment will proceed in the forward direction to produce more hydrogen? Under the experimental conditions, Kc = 25 for this reaction.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

84.

Nitrosyl bromide decomposes according to the equation. A sample of NOBr (0.64 mol) was placed in a 1.00-L flask containing no NO or Br2 . At equilibrium, the flask contained 0.16 mol of NOBr. How many moles of NO and Br2, respectively, are in the flask at equilibrium?

a)

0.48, 0.24

b)

0.48, 0.48

c)

0.16, 0.08

d)

0.16, 0.16

e)

0.24, 0.42

85.

Dinitrogentetraoxide partially decomposes according to the equilibrium. A 1.00-L flask is charged with 0.0400 mol of N2O4. At equilibrium at 373 K, 0.0055 mol of N2O4 remains. Keq for this reaction is ________.

a)

2.2 × 10-4

b)

13

c)

0.22

d)

0.022

e)

0.87

86.

The gaseous compound BrCl decomposes at high temperature in a sealed container.

a)

0.040

b)

0.030

c)

0.50

d)

33

e)

2.0

87.

Of the following equilibria, only ________ will shift to the left in response to a decrease in volume.

a)

H2(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2HCl(g)

b)

2SO3 (g) ⇌ 2SO2(g) + O2(g)

c)

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

d)

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) ⇌  2Fe2O3(s)

88.

Solid mercury(II) oxide decomposes when heated to produce liquid mercury and oxygen. 

2HgO(s) ⇌ 2Hg(l) + O2(g)

An amount of mercury(II) oxide is placed in a vessel at a particular temperature and allowed to reach equilibrium. How could the amount of liquid mercury in the vessel be increased?

 

I. Adding more mercury(II) oxide.

II. Removing some oxygen.

III. Increasing the volume of the vessel.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

all of the above

89.

Consider the following aqueous reaction:

 

Cu(H2O)42+(aq) + 4CN-(aq) ⇌  Cu(CN)42-(aq) + 4H2O(l),             ΔH = −348 kJ/mol

   light blue            dark blue                 

 

If the solution is cooled in an ice bath, the equilibrium will _____________ and the absorbance (A) will ___________.

a)

shift left; increase

b)

shift left; decrease

c)

shift right; increase

d)

shift right; decrease

e)

shift right; no change

90.

Consider the following aqueous reaction:

Cu(H2O)42+(aq) + 4CN-(aq) ⇌  Cu(CN)42-(aq) + 4H2O(l),             ΔH = −348 kJ/mol

   light blue                    dark blue

If some H2O(l) is removed, the equilibrium will _____________ and the absorbance (A) will _________.

a)

shift left; increase

b)

shift left; decrease

c)

shift right; increase

d)

shift right; decrease

e)

not change; not change

91.

Consider the following aqueous reaction:

Cu(H2O)42+(aq) + 4CN-(aq) ⇌  Cu(CN)42-(aq) + 4H2O(l),             ΔH = −348 kJ/mol

   light blue                    dark blue

If  some CN- ion is removed, the equilibrium will _____________ and the absorbance (A) will _________.

a)

shift left; increase

b)

shift left; decrease

c)

shift right; increase

d)

shift right; decrease

e)

not change; not change

92.

Consider the following reaction at equilibrium:

 

           C(s) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + H2(g)

 

Which of the following conditions will decrease the partial pressure of CO?

a)

decreasing the volume of the reaction vessel

b)

increasing the volume of the reaction vessel

c)

decreasing the amount of carbon in the system

d)

decreasing the pressure of the reaction vessel

e)

adding a catalyst to the reaction system

93.

Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) is placed in a sealed container. It sublimes to produce carbon dioxide gas and reaches equilibrium at a given temperature. If the amount of dry ice in the container is doubled, then ________.

 

CO2(s) ⇌ CO2(g)

a)

the amount of CO2(g) would double.

b)

the amount of CO2(g) would increase but not double.

c)

the partial pressure of CO2(g) would increase.

d)

the amount of CO2(g) would not change.

e)

the equilibrium amount of CO2(s) would be less.

94.

Carbon dioxide and argon, which is a noble or inert gas, are placed in a vessel and heated. Equilibrium is reached at some particular temperature. Carbon dioxide dissociates by the following reaction.

2CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g) + O2(g)

 

What is the result of increasing the pressure by adding more argon?

 

I. The equilibrium shifts to produce more carbon dioxide and reduce the pressure.

II. The equilibrium shifts to remove carbon dioxide and reduce the pressure.

III. The equilibrium does not change because argon is not involved in the reaction.

IV. The equilibrium does not change because the concentrations are not affected.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

none of the above

95.

Increasing the temperature of an exothermic reaction results in ________

 

a)

more products and fewer reactants

b)

fewer products and more reactants

c)

more reactants and products

d)

fewer reactants and products

e)

no change in the reactants or products

96.

Which of the following is true regarding the effect of a catalyst on chemical equilibrium?

a)

Only the forward rate increases, so the quantity of products increases.

b)

Only the forward rate increases, but the quantity of products remains the same.

c)

Both the forward and reverse rates increase, and the quantity of products increases.

d)

Both the forward and reverse rates increase, but the quantity of products is unchanged.

e)

The effect varies depending on whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic

97.

Addition of reactants to a chemical reaction in solution or gas phase at equilibrium results in ________

a)

an increase in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

b)

an increase in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more reactants

c)

a decrease in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

d)

a decrease in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more reactants

e)

no change in K and a shift in equilibrium to produce more products

98.

Which of the following occurs when reactants are added to a chemical reaction in solution or the gas phase at equilibrium?

a)

Q increases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more products

b)

Q increases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more reactants

c)

Q decreases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more products

d)

Q decreases and the equilibrium shifts to produce more products

e)

Q is unchanged by the addition of reactants

99.

According to the Arrhenius concept, an acid is a substance that ______________.

a)

is capable of donating one or more H+

b)

causes an increase in the concentration of H+ in aq solutions

c)

can accept a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent bond

d)

reacts with the solvent to form a cation formed by ionization of the solvent

100.

Which of the following compounds cannot be a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

 

a)

OH-

b)

H2O

c)

NH3

d)

NH4+

e)

S2-

101.

In the following reaction in aqueous solution, the acid reactant is ________ and its conjugate base product is __________________.

CH3COOH + NH3 ⇌ CH3COO– + NH4+

a)

CH3COOH; CH3COO–

b)

CH3COOH; NH4+

c)

NH3; CH3COO–

d)

NH3; NH4+

e)

CH3COOH; H3O+

102.

The Ka of hypochlorous acid (HClO) is 3.0 × 10-8 at 25 °C. What is the percent ionization of hypochlorous acid in a 0.015 M aqueous solution of HClO at 25 °C?

a)

4.5 × 10-8

b)

14

c)

2.1 × 10-5

d)

0.14

e)

1.4 × 10-3

103.

The hydride ion, H-, is a stronger base than the hydroxide ion, OH-. The product(s) of the reaction of hydride ion with water is/are ___________________.

a)

H3O+(aq)

b)

OH-(aq) + H2(aq)

c)

OH-(aq) + 2H(g)

d)

H2O(aq)

e)

no reaction occurs

104.

Solutions of each of the hypothetical acids in the following table are prepared with an initial concentration of 0.100 M. Which of the four solutions is the most acidic?

a)

HA

b)

HB

c)

HC

d)

HD

e)

All will have the same acidity because the concentrations are the same

105.

Using the data in the table, which of the conjugate acids below is the weakest acid?

a)

NH4+

b)

C5H5NH+

c)

H3NOH+

d)

NH3CH3+

e)

They are all equal

106.

Sometimes liquid ammonia, NH3, is used as a solvent rather than water. Which expression defines the ammonia autoionization counterpart of Kw?

a)

[H3O+][OH–]

b)

[NH3][NH4+]

c)

[NH2–][NH4+]

d)

[H3O+][NH2–]

e)

[NH4+][OH–]

107.

A solution with a pOH of 4.3 has a [H+] of ________

a)

6.8 × 10–9 M.

b)

3.2 × 10–4 M.

c)

4.8 × 10–5 M.

d)

2.0 × 10–10 M.

e)

4.3 M.

108.

Butanoic acid contributes to the rancid odor of spoiled butter. Calculate the acid dissociation constant for butanoic acid if a 0.155 M solution is 1.15% ionized. The abbreviated structural formula for butanoic acid is CH3CH2CH2COOH.

a)

5.1 × 10–3

b)

1.8 × 10–3

c)

1.2 × 10–2

d)

2.1 × 10–5

e)

1.5 × 10–5

109.

Boric acid frequently is used as an eyewash to treat eye infections. The pH of a 0.050 M solution of boric acid is 5.28. What is the value of the boric acid dissociation constant, Ka?

a)

5.25 × 10–6

b)

5.51 × 10–10

c)

5.43 × 10–8

d)

5.79 × 10–4

e)

5.33 × 10–12

110.

What is the pH of a 0.010 M solution of acetic acid? Ka for acetic acid is 1.8 × 10–5.

a)

2.74

b)

4.74

c)

2.00

d)

3.37

e)

6.74

111.

The degree of ionization of a weak acid ________

 

I. varies with the concentration of the acid.

II. depends on which weak acid it is.

III. is 100%.

IV. is greater than 50% but less than 100%.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

112.

Vitamin C, which is ascorbic acid, is a diprotic acid with pKa1 = 5.00 and pKa2= 11.3. What is the pH of a 0.125 M solution of ascorbic acid?

a)

2.95

b)

3.05

c)

5.00

d)

6.10

e)

3.54

113.

The acid-dissociation constant, Ka, for gallic acid is 4.57 × 10-3. What is the base-dissociation constant, Kb, for the gallate ion?

a)

4.57 × 10-3

b)

2.19 × 10-12

c)

 5.43 × 10-5

d)

 7.81 × 10-6

e)

2.19 × 102

114.

What is the pH of a 0.500 M solution of trimethylamine (pKb = 4.13)?

a)

2.22

b)

11.8

c)

0.00609

d)

4.42

e)

5.91

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