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GNUR 567 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the appropriate treatment for each acne type:

a)

Comedonal Acne

1.

Topical Retinoid

b)

Mild mixed papular/

pustular acne

2.

Topical Retinoid + Topical Antimicrobial

c)

Moderate mixed papular/

pustular acne

3.

Oral Abx + Topical Retinoid +/- Benzoyl

d)

Nodulocystic

4.

Oral Abx, OCP/ Spironolactone + Topicals

2.

Postherpatic neuralgia is a painful condition. What organism is the most common cause?

a)

Herpes Simplex 1

b)

Herpes Zoster

c)

Herpes Simplex 2

d)

Herpes Simplex 7

3.

Match the following

a)

Tension Type Headache

1.

Tightband around the head.

b)

Migraines

2.

Pain

Nausea

Visual changes

c)

Cluster Headaches

3.

Pain around 1 eye.

4.

A 33-year-old-female whom is 32 weeks pregnant presents with right sided facial droop. What differential diagnoses are you considering?

a)

Trigeminal Neuralgia

b)

Bell's Palsy

c)

CVA

d)

Temporal Arteritis

5.

A 72-year-old-female presents with a right sided facial pain. On exam, you notice grimacing and erythema on the right side of her forehead. What differential diagnoses are you considering?

a)

Temporal Arteritis

b)

Herpes Zoster

c)

Sinusitis

d)

Trigeminal Neuralgia

6.

Match the following disorder with the most common symptom(s)

a)

Bell's Palsy

1.

Facial Paralysis

b)

Trigeminal Neuralgia

2.

Brief episodes of mild to severe pain

c)

Temporal Arteritis

3.

Headache with scalp tenderness

7.

Preventative therapy for migraines should only be considered for any patient that has attacks over _ days per month.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

8

8.

Preventative medication for migraines include: select all that apply.

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Calcium Channel Blockers

c)

Anticonvulsants

d)

Antiemetics

e)

Antidepressants

9.

Abortive therapy for cluster headaches include: Select all that apply.

a)

Triptans

b)

100% oxygen

c)

Propranolol

d)

Amitriptyline

10.

Hemodialysis is indicated for which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

Fluid Overload

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Severe Metabolic Acidosis

d)

Severe Hyponatremia

11.

What are the common symptoms of fibromyalgia? Select all that apply.

a)

Fatigue

b)

Insomnia

c)

Pain and stifness in the body

d)

Joint swelling

12.

Match the following disorders to the assessment tools that are helpful when diagnosing

a)

Centor Criteria

1.

Pharyngitis

b)

Rome criteria

2.

IBS

c)

FENa

3.

Acute Kidney Injury

d)

MELD-Na

4.

Cirrhosis survival predicator

13.

A 59-year-old female presents to the urgent care with a history of 2-day history of viral conjunctivitis. She was seen by a mobile clinic and prescribed artificial tears ophthalmic solution. On exam, you notice crusting on her eye lashes. What is your next course of action?

a)

Instruct her to continue artificial tears QID until symptoms resolve.

b)

Prescribe polytrim ophthalmic solution for 10 days

c)

Refer to an ophthalmologist

d)

Obtain a Basic Metabolic Panel and CBC

14.

A clinician decides to use a sterile otic drop for acute otitis externa. What is the rationale for this?

a)

History of diabetes

b)

Unable to determine tympanic membrane patency

c)

Purulent discharge

d)

Severe Pain

15.

A 21-year-old male presents after traveling for a college party with a sore throat, fatigue, lymphadenopathy and low grade fever. Labs reveal a transaminitis. What diagnosis is most likely?

a)

Acute Hepatitis A

b)

Mononucleosis

c)

Acute Hepatitis Secondary to Alcohol

d)

Strep Pharyngitis

16.

You are concerned that your patient has COPD. After pulmonary function tests, you confirm the diagnosis if results show a:

a)

FEV1/FVC <80%

b)

FEV1/FVC <70%

c)

FEV1 <70%

d)

ABG Oxygen Saturation <92%

17.

A 72 year old female presents to the primary care setting for lower back pain and urinary incontinence. She notes some numbness and tingling in her legs. What is your next course of action?

a)

Prescribe Naproxen as needed and a Prednisone 40mg for 5 days

b)

Refer her to orthopedic spine

c)

Call 911 for an emergent MRI

d)

Obtain a urinalysis with microscopy

18.

After referral to GI, you receive a colonoscopy report. The report mentions skip lesions. What disease does the patient most likely have?

a)

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

b)

Ulcerative Colitis

c)

Crohn's Disease

d)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

19.

A 38-year-old female presents with "depression." Her review of symptoms is positive for fatigue, numbness/tingling and menorrhagia. What labs should be obtained initially?

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Iron Panel

c)

TSH

d)

Lyme Titer

20.

A 26-year-old female with a history of anxiety presents for a 2 week follow up after starting Sertraline. She inquires why did she have to come in so soon. What is your response?

a)

Re-evaluate anxiety

b)

Re-assess for suicidal ideations

c)

Assess for sexual dysfunction

d)

Assess if the dose needs to be adjusted

21.

How long does it take for pain to improve after starting a antibiotic for acute otitis media?

a)

12-36 hours

b)

12-24 hours

c)

36-48 hours

d)

48-72 hours

22.

A 68-year-old female presents with a painful red rash on the right side of her forehead with right eye pain. What is your next course of action?

a)

Prescribe NSAIDS

b)

Swab any open lesions and prescribe analgesia

c)

Emergent referral to ophthalmology

d)

Emergent referral to dermatology

23.

Match the following angina types to common symptoms

a)

Stable Angina

1.

Predictable in pattern and frequency.

b)

Unstable Angina

2.

New or uncontrolled chest pain

c)

Prinzmetal Angina

3.

Vasospasm commonly occurring at night

24.

A 72-year-old male presents with a recurrent gout attack. What are the complications of untreated gout?

a)

Tophi and

Kidney Disease

b)

Loss of joint function and tophi

c)

Limb ischemia, venous insufficiency, and kidney disease

d)

Loss of joint function, tophi, and kidney disease

25.

Match the following

a)

Hyperthyroidism

1.

Low TSH

High Free T4

b)

Hypothyroidism

2.

High TSH

Low Free T4

c)

Subclinical Hypothyroidism

3.

High TSH

Normal Free T4

26.

Multiple Sclerosis is most often managed with: Select all that apply

a)

Pain medications

b)

Steroids

c)

Antispasmodics and Antitremor medications

d)

Immunomodulators

e)

Anti-infectives

27.

A 54-year-old-male with a PMHx of Chronic Kidney Disease stage III presents for follow up. His most recent labs show hyperphosphatemia. You should consider: select all that apply

a)

Patiromer

b)

Calcium Acetate

c)

Sevelamer

d)

Calcium Carbonate

28.

You are reviewing a CBC and Differential after starting vitamin b12 supplementation. What lab value would you expect to be elevated 7-10 days after starting treatment?

a)

MCV

b)

WBC

c)

Reticulocyte Count

d)

Platelets

29.

All of the following are symptoms of parkinson's except:

a)

Akinesia

b)

Tremor worsened with movement

c)

Rigidity

d)

Postural Instability

30.

Match the following:

a)

Absence Seizure

1.

Brief impaired consciousness blank stare

b)

Simple Partial Seizure

2.

Focal seizure with preserved awareness

c)

Complex Partial Seizure

3.

Focal seizure with impaired awareness

d)

Grand Mal Seizure

4.

Tonic (stiff)-Clonic (jerking) Seizures

31.

A 53-year old female presents for preventative care. After receiving her Shingrix vaccine, when should she follow up for her booster dose?

a)

Not necessary

b)

1-3 months

c)

2-6 months

d)

12 months

32.

When considering the treatment of pneumonia, what should the clinician review:

a)

Age, PMHx, Allergies

b)

PMHx, Allergies, Recent Hospitalizations

c)

Age, PMHx, Allergies, Recent Hospitalizations

d)

Age, Allergies, Recent Hospitalizations

33.

A clinician should consider antibiotics for sinusitis:

a)

If symptoms persist greater than 3-5 days

b)

If symptoms persist greater than 7-10 days

c)

If symptoms persist greater than 5-7 days

d)

Right away

34.

A 65-year-old female presents for an annual exam. She inquires about her pneumonia vaccine. She received PCV13 last year, and wants to know if she needs another dose. What is an appropriate response?

a)

No additional dose(s) are needed.

b)

Yes, you can receive the PCV13 booster today.

c)

Yes, you can receive the Shringrix vaccine today.

d)

Yes, you can receive the PCV 20 or PCV21 today.

35.

Match the following levels of prevention to the examples provided:

a)

Primary Prevention

1.

Immunizations

b)

Secondary Prevention

2.

Mammogram

c)

Tertiary Prevention

3.

Dialysis

d)

Quaternary Prevention

4.

Ordering a ultrasound instead of an xray

36.

Match the following asthma categories to the expected FEV1 results: and symptoms

a)

Mild intermittent

1.

FEV1 >80%,

Symptoms less than 2 days/week

b)

Mild Persistent

2.

FEV1 >80%,

Symptoms more than 2 days/week

c)

Moderate Persistent

3.

FEV1 60-80%, intermittent symptoms daily

d)

Severe Persistent

4.

FEV1 <60%, continuous symptoms daily

37.

A 22-year-old male presents to occupational health office for a work physical. He is excited to start a job as a nurse. You must determine if he's had a hepatitis B vaccine; what lab should you order?

a)

Hepatitis B Core Antibody (Anti Hbc)

b)

Hepatitis B Surface Antibody (Anti Hbs)

c)

Hepatitis B Antigen

d)

Hepatitis B IgM

38.

What is mostly likely this condition?

a)

Tinea Cruris

b)

Pityriasis Rosea

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Cellulitis

39.

What is most likely this skin condition?

a)

Tinea Capitis

b)

Tinea Cruris

c)

Tinea Corporis

d)

Psoriasis

40.

What is most likely this skin condition?

a)

Scabies

b)

Bed Bugs

c)

Tinea Corporis

d)

Cellulitis

41.

What is the objective difference between open and closed comedones?

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42.

A 45-year-old male with a history of diabetes presents with blurred vision and occasional flashes of light. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

a)

Refer to an ophthalmologist for possible retinal detachment.

b)

Prescribe corrective eyeglasses.

c)

Advise lifestyle modifications and reassess in 6 months.

d)

Order a fasting blood glucose and HbA1c test.

43.

A 34-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of severe headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Migraine

b)

Bacterial Meningitis

c)

Cluster Headache

d)

Tension Headache

44.

A 50-year-old male with hypertension reports intermittent claudication. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate to evaluate the arterial circulation in his legs?

a)

Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)

b)

Lower extremity Doppler ultrasound

c)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d)

Complete blood count (CBC)

45.

23 year old female presents with vaginal pruritus and discharge. After a physical exam, the whiff test is positive. What differential is the most likely?

a)

Vaginal Yeast Infection

b)

Bacterial Vaginosis

c)

Trichomonas

d)

Chlamydia

46.

A 72 year old male presents with acute flank pain, hematuria and diaphoresis. After medical evaluation, he is diagnosed with a renal stone. On examination of the stone, what is the most likely stone type?

a)

Struvite

b)

Calcium Oxalate

c)

Uric Acid

d)

Cystine

47.

During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury, the patient is most likely to have complications of: (select all that apply)

a)

Urinary Tract Infections

b)

Anorexia

c)

Electrolyte Abnormalities

d)

Dehydration

48.

When assessing renal function, what labs are considered biochemical markers? (select all that apply)

a)

Creatinine

b)

BUN

c)

GFR

d)

Potassium

49.

A 36 year old female 31 weeks present presents for blood pressure follow up. Her blood pressure in office is 142/86. Her routine lab work shows stable renal function. Her urine studies shows 2+ bacteria, 1+ ketones and no protein. What is your next course of action? (select all that apply)

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50.

The patient is diagnosed with AKI. Which of the following conditions is the most common cause

a)

Renal stones

b)

Acute Tubular Necrosis

c)

Cardiac Failure

d)

Acute Glomerulonephritis

51.

After diagnosing a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, what pharmacologic interventions can be considered: (select all that apply)

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Gabapentin

c)

Carbamazapine

d)

Fluoxetine

52.

A patient on metformin is planned for a hip replacement. How long should metformin be held prior to surgery?

a)

24-72 hours before surgery

b)

24-48 hours before surgery

c)

12-48 hours

d)

72-96 hours

53.

Mr. Smith has a PMHx of Left Hip osteoarthritis, HTN, HLD and diabetes type II. His medication list includes: Atorvastatin 20mg PO daily, Ozempic 1mg SQ weekly, Losartan 50mg daily and Ibuprofen 400mg PO QID PRN. He presents for diabetes follow up and reports a 1 day history of abdominal pain. What differential diagnoses are most likely: select all that apply

a)

Colitis

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Cholecystitis

d)

Constipation

e)

Gastric Ulcer

54.

Mr. Smith, a 63 year old male with a remote history of bladder cancer, COPD, Chronic Low Back Pain and HTN presents for an sick visit due to "a flare up of my back pain." He reports worsening low back pain. His back pain is described as a 3/10 dull ache similar to normal but becoming more persistent. He's noticing his back pain does not radiate but starting to worsen when laying supine to sleep. He denies constitutional symptoms, fever, chills, trauma and reports feeling well otherwise.

Based on this history, what low back pain red flags does Mr. Smith have?

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