wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SMS 1 Final Exam AP 2023

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Thin layer of gray matter on surface of cerebrum is called ____.

a)

Gyrus (convolution)

b)

Cerebral Cortex

c)

Midbrain

d)

Medulla Oblongata

2.

This brain structure contains the Thalamus and Hypothalamus of the cerebrum.

a)

Corpus Callosum

b)

Pons

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Ventricle

3.

Internal brain chamber filled with cerebrospinal fluid is called ___.

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Ventricle

c)

Pons

d)

Diencephalon

4.

Part of the brainstem that is continuous with the spinal cord is called _____

a)

Central Sulcus

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Ventricle

5.

This structure is the rounded bulge on underside of brainstem and responsible for respiration is called___.

a)

Central Sulcus

b)

Pons

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Cerebral Cortex

6.

Part of brainstem between diencephalon and pons that is responsible for visual and auditory reflexes is called____.

a)

Gyrus (convolution

b)

Pineal Gland

c)

Ventricle

d)

Midbrain

7.

The ridges on surface of cerebrum that are responsible for convolution are called _____.

a)

Gyrus

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebral Cortex

d)

Central Sulcus

8.

What is the normal levels of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain/spinal cord?

a)

120-150ml

b)

100-120ml

c)

300-400ml

d)

70-100ml

9.

Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is formed capillaries located on the top of each ventricle. The name of this structure is called __.

a)

Choroid plexuses

b)

Fornix

c)

Tegmentum

d)

Infundibular stalk

10.

At which level is the lumbar puncture needle being inserted for spinal tap procedure?

a)

In between 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae

b)

In between 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae

c)

In between 5th and 6th lumbar vertebrae

d)

In between 3rd and 5th lumbar vertebrae

11.

Clinical condition if CSF pressure increase is

a)

Dehydration

b)

Meningitis

c)

CSF Leakage

d)

Circulatory collapse (Shock)

12.

Substances present in the CSF are controlled by the...

a)

Blood-CSF barrier

b)

Arachnoid granulations

c)

Presence of one way valves

d)

Blood-brain barrier

13.

The main type of cell which produce CSF

a)

astrocyte

b)

basket cell

c)

ependymal cell

d)

schwann cell

14.
Where is the Central Nervous System? (CNS)
a)
Organs & Limbs
b)
Brain & Spinal Cord
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Sensory Neurons
15.

Through which apertures/structures is CSF reabsorbed into circulation?

a)

Cerebral Aqueduct

b)

Lateral Apertures

c)

Median Aperture

d)

Arachnoid Granulations

16.

What cranial nerve is highlighted in yellow (#5)?

a)

CN II Optic Nerve

b)

CN III Oculomotor Nerve

c)

CN IV Trochlear Nerve

d)

CN X Vagus Nerve

17.

What cranial nerve is highlighted in yellow (#1)?

a)

CN V Trigeminal Nerve

b)

CN XII Hypoglossal Nerve

c)

CN XI Accessory Nerve

d)

CN VII Facial Nerve

18.

The left side of your brain controls the _______ side of your body.

a)

Right

b)

Left

c)

Front

d)

Back

19.

What consists of the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord.

a)

Somatic System

b)

Autonomic System

c)

Central NS

d)

Peripheral NS

20.

What consists of the brain and spinal cord?

a)

Somatic System

b)

Autonomic System

c)

Central NS

d)

Peripheral NS

21.

Which is the medulla oblongata?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

22.

Which is the mid brain?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

23.

Which Lobe of the cerebrum is the arrowing pointing to in the diagram?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

24.

Which Lobe of the cerebrum is the arrowing pointing to in the diagram?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

25.

Which Lobe of the cerebrum is the arrowing pointing to in the diagram?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

26.

Wernicke's area helps

a)

produce language.

b)

understand language.

27.

Broca's area helps

a)

produce language.

b)

understand language.

28.

Damage to this area and it may damage your VISION.

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

29.

Damage to this area and you may have difficulty PLANNING, DECISION-MAKING, and SPEAKING.

a)

frontal lobes

b)

parietal lobes

c)

temporal lobes

d)

occipital lobes

30.

The ___________ lobe is associated with your SENSES and BODY POSITION.

a)

frontal

b)

parietal

c)

occipital

d)

temporal

31.
Which of the four lobes is typically responsible for receiving and processing auditory information?
a)
frontal
b)
parietal
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
32.
The role of the cerebellum is to 
a)
detect emotions
b)
coordinate posture and balance
c)
process visual information
d)
think symbolically
33.

The left cerebral hemisphere generally controls the right side of the body and vice versa. This is referred to as _____________________ organisation.

a)

Unilateral

b)

Contralateral

c)

Ipsilateral

d)

Bilateral

34.

The corpus callosum

a)

manages our understanding of speech and language

b)

cannot process messages sent from the left hand

c)

is a deep fissure in the cerebral cortex

d)

is a thick band of nerve fibres linking the two hemispheres of the brain

35.
B cells mature in the
a)
thymus
b)
intestine
c)
bone marrow
d)
heart
36.
Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n
a)
lymph cell
b)
antigen
c)
antibody
d)
neutrop
37.
Where do T cells mature?
a)
lymph node
b)
bone marrow
c)
thymus
d)
liver
38.

The process whereby a person receives blood is called blood ...

a)

transgression

b)

diffusion

c)

transmission

d)

transfusion

39.

This Immunoglobulin can trigger histamine to be released from mast cells when it binds to an antigen, It causes an alergic response. It also protects against parasitic worms

a)

Ig M

b)

Ig A

c)

Ig D

d)

Ig E

40.

Immunity brought about by antibodies

a)

cellular immunity

b)

immunoglobulins

c)

compliment system

d)

adaptive humoral immunity

41.

The innate immune system is...

a)

Always working and doesn't require any special preparation

b)

Needs to be "primed" before it can work to its full effectiveness

c)

Very specific and only defends against a specific pathogen

d)

Not very effective at preventing intruders

42.

A part of the innate immunity. The bodies defensive response caused by microbial infection, physical damage or chemical agents. Showing redness, swelling, and phagocytes coming to the area to engulf the microbe.

a)

phagocytosis

b)

edema

c)

cytotoxicity

d)

Inflammation

43.

If the body produces antibodies in response to an antigen, this is called _________.

a)

passive immunity

b)

antibodies

c)

active immunity

d)

antigens

44.

_________ form and mature in the bone marrow.

a)

antigen

b)

antibodies

c)

B cells

d)

T cells

45.

The programmed cell death where phagocytes will dispose of the dead fragments is called _____

a)

opsonation

b)

agglutination

c)

immunoglobulin

d)

apoptosis

46.
Pacinian Corpuscles are located deep in the _____________________.
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis (Fatty Tissue)
d)

Cutaneous

47.
Meissner's Corpuscles are located near the top of the _____________________.
a)
Epidermis
b)
Dermis
c)
Hypodermis (Fatty Tissue)
d)

Subcutaneous

48.

Another name for sweat glands is ___________.

a)
sebaceous 
b)
sudoriferous
c)

odiferous

d)

glandulous

49.
Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle
a)
Arrector pili
b)
Apocrine
c)
Eccrine
d)
Sebaceous
50.
Why does your skin tan?
a)
Apocrine glands secrete melanin into the stratum corneum
b)
The cells produce Keratin to protect the cell from UV radiation.
c)
Skin produces melanin to protect DNA in the cell's nucleus
d)
None of the above
51.

The process whereby a person receives blood is called blood ...

a)

transgression

b)

diffusion

c)

transmission

d)

transfusion

52.

Which of the following blood groups is that of the ‘Universal donor’?

a)

A

b)

O

c)

AB

d)

B

53.

Which of the following components of blood fights infections?

a)

Plasma

b)

Platelets

c)

Red blood cells

d)

White blood cells

54.

What do we call the liquid component of the blood?

a)

plasma

b)

red blood cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

platelets

e)

water

55.
The lack of sufficient red blood cells in the blood system is called
a)
cyanosis
b)
anemia
c)
hemochromatosis
d)
hypoxia
56.
Blood becomes bright red in color because of the
a)
amount of folic acid present
b)
amount of hemoglobin present
c)
amount of oxygen present
d)
amount of iron present
57.
Another name for white blood cells is
a)
erythrocytes
b)
plasmocytes
c)
leukocytes
d)
thrombocytes
58.
What is the function of hemoglobin?
a)
to carry iron
b)
to carry wastes
c)
to carry oxygen
d)
to produce oxygen
59.

Another name for red blood cells is_____.

a)
thrombocytes
b)
neutrophils
c)
monocytes
d)
erthryocytes
60.

The process of creating a blood clot and stopping bleeding is called________.

a)
homeostasis
b)
hemostasis
c)
phagocytosis
d)
dermatographia
61.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
62.

Scar tissue is formed during which phase of wound healing?

a)

Inflammatory

b)

Proliferative

c)

Remodeling

d)

Haemostasis

63.

Found in the epidermis of the skin and responsible for skin color is ___________.

a)
Melanin
b)
Oil
c)
Perspiration
d)
Pores
64.
Your fingerprints are formed in this layer of skin.
a)
Papillary Dermis
b)
Epidermis
c)
Reticular Dermis
d)
Hypodermis
65.

Which layer of skin contains sebaceous and sudoriferous glands?

a)

Dermis

b)

Sebaceous

c)

Sudoriferous

d)

Keratin

e)

Apocrine

66.
Which layer is mostly adipose (fat) tissue?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Hypodermis
c)
Peridermis
d)
Dermis
67.
What is the function of hemoglobin?
a)
to carry iron
b)
to carry wastes
c)
to carry oxygen
d)
to produce oxygen
68.
Which layer of the integument system contains hair bulbs and follicles?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)

Peridermis

69.

The structure that holds the root of the hair firmly in place is called _____.

a)
Hair follicle
b)
Hair shaft
c)
Hypodermis
d)
Sweat pore
70.

The sebaceous glands produce _____ lubricates the skin to protect against friction and makes it more impervious to moisture.

a)
Melanin
b)

Oil (Sebum)

c)

Perspiration (Sweat)

d)
Pores
71.

What layer of skin are fingerprints formed in?

a)
Papillary Dermis
b)
Epidermis
c)
Reticular Dermis
d)
Hypodermis
72.
To what structure is #4 pointing?
a)
Sweat gland and duct
b)
Sweat pore
c)
Arrector pili muscle
d)
Sebaceous oil gland
73.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
74.
Which layer is mostly adipose (fat) tissue?
a)
Epidermis
b)
Hypodermis
c)
Peridermis
d)
Dermis
75.
Which layer of skin has veins and arteries?
a)
Hypodermis
b)
Peridermis
c)
Dermis
d)
Epidermis
76.

What are a person's nails made out of?

a)

Carotene

b)
Melanin
c)
Fibrin
d)
Keratin 
77.
Keratinocytes here have spine-like projections which gives rise to this cell layer name: 
a)
Stratum granulosum - 3
b)
Stratum spinosum - 4
c)
Stratum basale - 5
d)
melanocyte - 6
78.
Merkel cells are present and respond to touch:
a)
Stratum spinosum - 4
b)
Stratum basale - 5
c)
melanocyte - 6
d)
dermis - 7
79.
Which layer of the integument system contains hair bulbs and follicles?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
80.

Which sweat gland is located all over the body, primarily used for temperature regulation?

a)

Apocrine glands

b)

Eccrine glands

81.

Body parts located above the transverse plane are (aka TOP) is the following anatomical term___

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

82.

The plane that divides the body into right and left parts is

a)

Saggital

b)

transverse

c)

Frontal

d)

Medial

83.

Horizontal Plane that divides the body into a top and bottom half

a)

Superior

b)

Transverse

c)

Medial

d)

Inferior

84.

Body parts close to the midline are (directional position - hint point "in")

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Inferior

d)

Superior

85.

Which plane divides the body directly down the middle with equal right and left parts

a)

Saggital

b)

Midsaggital

c)

Transverse

d)

Frontal

86.

Which cavity contains the mouth, teeth, cheeks and tongue

a)

nasal

b)

buccal

c)

cranial

d)

spinal

87.

Which plane divides the body into front and back / anterior and posterior parts

a)

Saggital

b)

Midsaggital

c)

Frontal

d)

Transverse

88.

If I tell you my stomach is hurting, which abdominal region would you report to your physician

a)

Right Iliac region

b)

Left lumbar region

c)

Epigastric region

d)

Hypogastric region

89.

The pelvic cavity is _______to the cranial cavity

a)

Lateral

b)

Superior

c)

Medial

d)

Inferior

90.

The stomach is _______to the spine

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Anterior

d)

Posterior

Similar Resources on Wayground

Earth Sci Spring Final Study Guide 2025

90 questions

Earth Sci Spring Final Study Guide 2025

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

Earth Science semester 1 final study guide

90 questions

Earth Science semester 1 final study guide

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Physical and Chemical Properties and Changes

92 questions

Physical and Chemical Properties and Changes

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Digestive Organs

94 questions

Digestive Organs

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

Ch 2 Semester 1 Exam Review

93 questions

Ch 2 Semester 1 Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

SCIENCE FORM 3 ;CHAPTER 1; STIMULI AND RESPONSES REVIEW

93 questions

SCIENCE FORM 3 ;CHAPTER 1; STIMULI AND RESPONSES REVIEW

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Chemistry Semester 2 Final Exam Review

90 questions

Chemistry Semester 2 Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

SEM 1 Review 2021

86 questions

SEM 1 Review 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th - 9th Grade