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2023 Fall AP Government Final Exam

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The foundation of the US legal structure is

a)

the Federalist Papers

b)

the Constitution

c)

the  Supreme Court

d)

the state constitutions

2.

The legislative branch is established in

a)

Article IV

b)

Article VII

c)

Article I

d)

Article III

3.

The Supremacy Clause is found in

a)

Article IV

b)

Article V

c)

Article VI

4.

In the United States political system, the term Federalism refers to

a)

limits on the powers of the state governments

b)

limits on the powers of the national government

c)

the division of powers between the levels of government

d)

the legal authority of the courts to hear cases

5.

The idea that governments only have power with the consent of the governed is called

a)

Social Contract

b)

Republicanism

c)

Natural rights

d)

Popular sovereignty

6.

Which of the following is American federalism most clearly exemplified by?

a)

A system of checks and balances among the three branches of government

b)

A process by which international treaties are completed

c)

The special constitutional status of Washington DC

d)

The 10th Amendment to the Constitution

7.

Of the following, the most significant difference between the Constitution of 1787 and the Articles of Confederation was that the Constitution

a)

made states sovereign over the national government, while the Articles were based on national sovereignty

b)

was difficult to amend, while the Articles included an easier process requiring approval by a simple majority of states

c)

created a dominant national executive, while the Articles established a dominant national legislature

d)

provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the Articles created a weak central government with few independent powers

8.

Based on the text, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

a)

The United States Constitution explicitly prohibits the government from restricting the press

b)

The amendment process would create confusion about the meaning of the United States Constitution.

c)

The Bill of Rights could potentially be used to limit civil liberties

d)

The media ought to be held accountable for publishing untrue information about public figures.

9.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of Federalist and Anti-Federalist views on government?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

10.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of constitutional provisions?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

The Full Faith and Credit Clause states that...

a)

all states must honor the laws in other states

b)

the national government has supremacy

c)

all rights not listed in the constitution are reserved by the people

12.

Allows Congress to make any laws that they need to for carrying out their other powers

a)

Establishment Clause

b)

Privileges and Immunities Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Necessary and Proper Clause

13.

Accords citizens of each state most of the rights of citizens of other states

a)

Establishment Clause

b)

Privileges and Immunities Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Necessary and Proper Clause

14.

What article of the U.S. Constitution deals with the Executive Branch?

a)

Article 1

b)

Article 2

c)

Article 3

d)

Article 4

15.

What happens if the President is no longer able to serve?

a)

The Speaker of the House takes over

b)

Congress picks a new president

c)

The Vice President becomes president

d)

The country reelects a new president in a special election

16.

What is the Electoral College?

a)

A political institution where people go to become politicians.

b)

The people solely in charge with picking the president.

c)

A group of people who accurately guess who the president will be every election.

d)

A set of electors who are selected to elect a candidate to particular offices.

17.

Which of the following BEST describes the Bureaucracy?

a)

A small, complex organization of elected officials.

b)

A small, complex organization of appointed officials.

c)

A large, complex organization of appointed officials.

d)

A large, complex organization of elected officials.

18.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an expressed power?

a)

Declaring war

b)

Coining money

c)

Borrowing money

d)

Creating the IRS to collect taxes

19.

How many votes are needed from Congress to pass an amendment?

a)

1/3

b)

At least half

c)

2/3

d)

Every member has to vote in favor

20.

How many members are in the House of Representatives?

a)

100

b)

335

c)

435

d)

535

21.

What article of the Constitution deals with the Judicial Branch?

a)

Article 1

b)

Article 2

c)

Article 3

d)

Article 4

22.

How many federal judges are there on the Supreme Court?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

23.

When a justice agrees with the outcome of a case but for a different reason, this is called a...

a)

Majority opinion

b)

Minority opinion

c)

Concurring opinion

d)

Dissenting opinion

24.

How many justices need to vote in order for it to be a MAJORITY opinion?

a)

3/9

b)

4/9

c)

5/9

d)

6/9

25.

In Tinker v. Des Moines (1969), the Supreme Court upheld a student's right to wear an armband in protest. The wearing of the armband was protected as a form of which of the following?

a)

Prior restraint

b)

Symbolic speech

c)

Redress of grievances

d)

Peaceful public protest

26.

When the process of incorporation is referred to as "selective," it is in reference to the fact that

a)

the Court only incorporates a right in some cases but not all.

b)

incorporation has happened on an amendment-by-amendment basis.

c)

extension of rights may be withheld from some groups, such as students.

d)

decisions from those cases do not set precedent for future cases.

27.

Schenck v. United States established that "Clear and Present Danger" could limit which basic right?

a)

Freedom of Speech

b)

Freedom of Press

c)

Freedom of Religion

d)

Cruel and Unusual Punishment

28.

Where are American civil liberties found?

a)

the Preamble

b)

the Bill of Rights

c)

the Declaration of Independence

d)

Article IV

29.

This is when there are written lies about a person to damage their reputation.

a)

Censorship

b)

Slander

c)

Libel

d)

Bail

30.

Which amendment protects you from being searched without a warrant? 

a)

First Amendment

b)

Second Amendment

c)

Third Amendment

d)

Fourth Amendment

31.

Which clause prohibits the US government form interfering with a citizen's right to practice religion.

a)

establishment clause

b)

necessary and proper clause

c)

free exercise clause

d)

supremacy clause

32.

Which clause of the 14th Amendment is used as the basis for selective incorporation?

a)

Citizenship

b)

Equal Protection

c)

Due Process

d)

Privileges and Immunities

33.

If one is arrested for a misdemeanor and cannot afford an attorney the suspect is entitled to a lawyer free of charge courtesy of what case?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

34.

Which of the following is NOT one of the core values that most Americans agree with regarding government and politics?

a)

Rule of Law

b)

Equality of Opportunity

c)

Party Ideology

d)

Limited Government

35.

Freedom of private business to organize and operate for profit in a competitive system without interference by government describes which core American value?

a)

Rule of Law

b)

Free Enterprise

c)

Individualism

d)

Equality of Opportunity

36.

This is a principle under which all persons, institutions and entities are accountable to laws that are published and equally enforced.

a)

Individualism

b)

Free Enterprise

c)

Rule of Law

d)

Limited Government

37.

Which agent of political socialization do most political scientists agree is the strongest?

a)

Parents

b)

Media

c)

Religion

d)

Schools

38.

True or False: People tend to become more politically active and more conservative as they grow older.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Events such as marriage, having kids, buying a house and retiring can change a person's priorities and political views. These are known as...

a)

Generational Effects

b)

Lifecycle Effects

c)

Demographic Factors

d)

Period Effects

40.

True or False: public opinion polls influence public policies, elections, and the decisions made by government institutions.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Buddy will vote for absolutely anybody as long as they are Republican. Buddy’s behavior is typical of which type of voting?

a)

Retrospective

b)

Prospective

c)

Rational-choice

d)

Party-line

42.

What is the most likely result in states that require photo ID for voting?

a)

Lower voter turnout, especially among low income and older populations

b)

Increased voter turnout

c)

No effect on voter turnout

d)

A significant decrease in instances of voter fraud

43.

All of the following are barriers to third party success EXCEPT

a)

Single member congressional districts

b)

State laws banning minor parties

c)

Winner-take-all

d)

Plurality system

44.

Which of the following highlights a difference between political parties and interest groups?

a)

Interest groups are always nonpartisan

b)

Only political parties engage in fundraising

c)

Only interest groups recruit and nominate candidates for office

d)

Interest groups are focused on a narrower set of issues than a political party

45.

Which of the following best describes an iron triangle?

a)

A political party, interest groups, and a PAC

b)

President, congress, and Supreme Court

c)

A symbiotic relationship between an interest group, a congressional committee, and a bureaucratic agency

d)

Federal, state, and local governments

46.

The Electoral College is an example of which model of democracy?

a)

Participatory democracy

b)

Pluralist democracy

c)

Elite democracy

d)

Direct democracy

47.

Which of the following statements about campaign finance is FALSE?

a)

PACs and Super PACs are allowed to independently spend an unlimited amount of money

b)

Citizens United paved the way for the creation of Super PACs

c)

Corporations and unions can give an unlimited amount of money to PACs

d)

Most PAC contributions are made to incumbent candidates

48.

What is a result of today’s consumer-driven and ideologically oriented news programming?

a)

People are mostly exposed to sources that reaffirm their biases

b)

People are better informed

c)

People have fewer options and ways to receive news

d)

There is increased political unity and out political discourse has never been loftier

49.

The political arm of an interest group that is legally entitled to raise money in order to contribute funds to candidates or political parties.

a)

527 Groups

b)

Independent expenditures

c)

PACs

d)

SuperPACs

50.

Organization that regulates campaign finance in the United States.

a)

FDC

b)

FCC

c)

FEC

d)

FRC

51.
Law that banned soft money and forced candidates to explicitly acknowledge approval of all TV ads.
a)
Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act of 1946
b)
Federal Election Commission Act of 1971
c)
Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 (McCain-Feingold Act)
d)
Hatch Act of 1939
52.
A list of positions and programs that the party adopts at the national convention.  Each position is called a plank.
a)
Elite theory
b)
Pluralism
c)
Party polarization
d)
Party platform
53.
Liberal ideology favors...
a)
strong central government to solve national issues
b)
state governments to solve national issues
c)
the private sector solves national issues
d)
isolationism for safety
54.
Conservative ideology believes...
a)
Strong central government is needed to solve problems
b)
No national government is needed
c)
A strong private sector is needed to solve problems
d)
Isolationism is good for international issues
55.
Political parties are part of the 4 linkage institutions.
a)
True
b)
False