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Worksheets

Final Exam Review (ES1)

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is the fibula?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
10
2.
What bone is this?
a)
Humerus
b)
Fibula
c)
Tibia
d)
Femur
3.
Bones that make the fingers and toes.
a)
phalanges
b)
metacarpals
c)
metatarsals
d)
digitals
4.
Name for the heel bone.
a)
calcaneus
b)
talus
c)
carpals
d)
tarsals
5.
There are _ lumbar vertebrae.
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
12
6.
There are _ pairs of floating ribs.
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7
d)
12
7.
The flares of the hip; largest bone of the hip.
a)
ilium
b)
ischium
c)
pubis
d)
coxa
8.
The bone you wear a ring around.
a)
distal phalange
b)
middle phalange
c)
proximal phalange
d)
metacarpal
9.
What special characteristic or marking is found only on the femur?
a)
Tibial Tuberosity
b)
Lesser Trochanter
c)
Head
d)
Neck
10.

The semilunar valves are the:

a)

Aortic and pulmonary

b)

Pulmonary and Tricuspid

c)

Aortic and mitral

d)

Mitral and Tricuspid

11.

Which cardiac chamber has the thickest muscle?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

12.

The S1 heart sound occurs due to the:

a)

Closing of the AV valves

b)

Closing of the semilunar valves

c)

Opening of the AV valves

d)

Opening of the semilunar valves

13.

The part of the cardiac conduction system that goes down the interventricular septum is the:

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Bundle of His

d)

Purkinje Fibers

14.

What valve is found in between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

Aortic Semilunar

b)

Pulmonary Semilunar

c)

Mitral

d)

Tricuspid

15.

What muscle is this?

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Gluteus Minimus

c)

Gluteus Medius

d)

Deltoids

16.

Name this muscle.

a)

Triceps Brachii

b)

Trapezius

c)

Biceps Brachii

d)

Teres Minor

17.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Pectorals
c)
Sternocleidomastoid
d)
Quadricep
18.

which skeletal muscle is represented in the image?

a)

orbicularis oculi

b)

zygomaticus

c)

orbicularis oris

d)

frontalis

19.

which skeletal muscle is represented in the image?

a)

semitendinosus

b)

semimembranosus

c)

biceps femoris

d)

gastrocnemius

20.

Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row?

Select one:

a. Latissimus dorsi

b. Posterior deltoid

c. Pectoralis major

d. Pectoralis minor

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

21.

Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?

Select one:

a. 80 mm Hg

b. 95 mm Hg

c. 120 mm Hg

d. 135 mm Hg

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

22.

Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?

Select one:

a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.

b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.

c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.

d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

23.

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?

Select one:

a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate

b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate

c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate

d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

24.

A client's maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3 minute step test. This is achieved by:

Select one:

a. subtracting the client’s age from 220

b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220

c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate

d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

25.

Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:

Select one:

a. objective information.

b. subjective information.

c. movement assessment.

d. fitness assessment.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

26.

Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?

Select one:

a. Flexion

b. Abduction

c. Extension

d. External rotation

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

27.

Which of the following is a factor of the FITTE principle used to determine exercise training programs for each individual?

Select one:

a. Tolerance

b. Efficiency

c. Fitness

d. Frequency

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

28.

When ambulating residents with right sided weakness, you should:

a)

Use a gait belt, and have him put cane in right hand

b)

Use a gait belt and have him put cane in left hand

c)

Use a gait belt and walk behind the resident so they don't trip

d)

Use a gait belt and walk in front of them watching them walk for safety

29.

What should a health care worker do if the patient begins to fall?

a)

Step away and move furniture around the patient

b)

Rush the patient back to the room

c)

Help patients safely to the floor

d)

Try to prevent the fall

30.

When helping a patient to ambulate, where should the health care workers stand?

a)

Directly beside the patient's affected side

b)

To the patient's unaffected side and in front of the patient

c)

To the patient's affected side and slightly behind the patient

d)

Behind the patient, holding the transfer belt

31.

Which assistive device provides patients with the most stability and support?

a)

Crutches

b)

Walkers

c)

Canes

32.

OT

a)

occupational therapy

b)

overtime

c)

ordered therapy

33.

Average temperature is ...

a)

100.4

b)

96.8

c)

98.6

d)

97.0

34.

A fast pulse is also called...

a)

tachycardia

b)

tachypnea

c)

bradycardia

d)

bradypnea

35.

Normal respirations are .....

a)

12-20 per minute

b)

10-25 per minute

c)

11-22 per minute

d)

5-30 per minute

36.

Systolic blood pressure is....

a)

lowest pressure during contraction

b)

lowest number

c)

highest pressure during contraction

37.

What is the action of the heart during Systole?

a)

Contraction

b)

Relaxation

38.

Which artery normally do we take blood pressure?

a)

femoral

b)

brachial

c)

coronal

d)

radial

39.

A pulse site at the neck

a)

carotid

b)

temporal

c)

popliteal

d)

femoral

40.

Pulse below 60 is known as..

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

echocardia

d)

manycardia

41.
A person is considered obese with a BMI of:
a)
BMI of 35 or higher
b)
BMI of 25 or higher
c)
BMI of 40 or higher
d)
BMI of 30 or higher
42.

Calculate the BMI for a person who is 5'9'' and weighs 190lbs

a)

28

b)

38

c)

30

d)

26

43.

When instructing a patient how to use a cane or crutches. How much of a bend in the elbow should they have?

a)

10 - 15 degrees

b)

35 - 45 degrees

c)

20 - 30 degrees

d)

15 - 20 degrees

44.

Motion away from the midline of the body is:

a)

Abduction

b)

Circumduction

c)

Adduction

d)

Eversion

45.

Which crutch gait is being displayed?

a)

Two - Point Alternating Gait or Modified Two - Point Gait

b)

Three - Point Gait

c)

Swing - through Gait

d)

Swing - to Gait

46.

What type of movement is being demonstrated in the above image? Hint: look at the direction of the arrows.

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Pronation

d)

Supination

47.

Do not exceed ________ minutes when applying cryotherapy

a)

40

b)

10

c)

5

d)

20

48.

Various methods and agents used to manipulate circulation (blood flow) in the treatment of muscles and joints

a)

strength tests

b)

exercises

c)

modalities

d)

splinting

49.

What type of exercise would Push-ups be?

a)

Isometric

b)

Isotonic

c)

Isokinetic

d)

Aerobic

50.

Thermotherapy causes blood vessels to __________________ which causes ___________________ blood flow to the area.

a)

vasodilate, decreased

b)

vasoconstrict, increased

c)

vasodilate, increased

d)

vasoconstrict, decreased

51.

This type of modality uses high frequency sound waves to penetrate high protein tissues and promote healing

a)

EMS

b)

TENS

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Heat pack

52.

HOPS or SOAP:


Which is used to DOCUMENT the injury rehabilitation?

a)

HOPS

b)

SOAP

53.

What is vasodilation?

a)

Diluting the blood volume

b)

Widening of the blood vessels

c)

Closing of the blood vessels

d)

Breaking down of blood cells

54.

What does PRICE stand for?

a)

Propreoception, Restrict, Ice, Compare, Elevation

b)

Protect, Rest, Ignore, Compression, Elevation

c)

Proprioception, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

d)

Protect, Restrict, Ice, Compression, Elevation

55.

What does AROM stand for?

a)

Active Range Of Motion

b)

Assisted Range Of Motion

c)

Assertive Range Of Motion

d)

Automatic Range Of Motion

56.

What motion is indicated by Letter A

a)

Plantarflexion

b)

Inversion

c)

Eversion

d)

Dorsiflexion

57.

Read goniometer for shoulder abduction

a)

140 degrees

b)

40 degrees

c)

50 degrees

d)

130 degrees

58.

The nurse is reviewing a patient’s electrocardiogram. Which wave should the nurse recognize as being the first positive wave in a normal cardiac cycle?

a)

P wave

b)

Q wave

c)

R wave

d)

S wave

59.

A patient is experiencing electrocardiogram changes. Which wave should the nurse recognize as representing ventricular repolarization?

a)

Q wave

b)

R wave

c)

S wave

d)

T wave

60.

The nurse is reviewing cardiac anatomy with a patient scheduled for pacemaker insertion. Where should the nurse identify the location of the sinus node for the patient?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

61.
The p-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
62.
What letters are used to label the parts of an EKG?
a)
PQRST 
b)
ABCDE
c)
ACDC
d)
DNAI
63.
The Purkinje fibers are located at...
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
I
64.

Identify this rhythm

a)

Sinus bradycardia

b)

1 degree heart block

c)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

d)

2nd Degree Type I heart block

65.

Which of these is a sign of osteoporosis?

a)

Strong bones

b)

Growing taller

c)

Strong heart

d)

Pain in the bones

66.

Choose which sentence best describes osteoporosis.

a)


Osteoporosis develops very quickly and makes the bones become very hard. 

b)

Osteoporosis develops slowly and causes the bones to become weak and porous.  

c)

Osteoporosis is a disease that affects the heart.  

d)

Osteoporosis is common among men.

67.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when:

a)

 increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength

b)

 the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured

c)

muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma

d)

carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle

68.

A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments

a)

Strain

b)

Sprain

c)

Fracture

d)

Dislocation

69.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child’s bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities.

a)

greenstick

b)

diaphyseal

c)

epiphyseal

d)

metaphyseal

70.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called:

a)

fascia

b)

tendons

c)

cartilage

d)

ligaments

71.

Acute is an illness which lasts.....

a)

Less than 1 year

b)

Less than 6 months

c)

Less than 3 months

72.

...... is a craking or popping sound may be heard or felt when moving the joint.

a)

Crepitus

b)

Crocotus

c)

Cramitus

d)

Colotus

73.

.......... is characterized by numbness and tingling in the thumb, index finger, middle finger and the thumb side of the ring finger

a)

Steven Johnson Syndrome

b)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Peripheral Inflammatory syndrome

d)

Bone fracture

74.

This disease is when people have unexplained pain in muscles

a)

bursitis

b)

botulism

c)

fibromyalgia

d)

muscular dystrophy

75.

This is a disease where there is progressive muscle atrophy.

a)

muscular dystrophy

b)

fibromyalgia

c)

botulism

d)

bursitis

76.

This is an autoimmune disorder in which the nerve impulses don't reach the muscles. See this in face and neck

a)

muscular dystrophy

b)

fibromyalgia

c)

myasthenia gravis

d)

botulism

77.

What is the main cause of rickets in children?

a)

A. Lack of vitamin D

b)

B. Genetic abnormalities

c)

C. Wear and tear on the joints

d)

D. Excess stress on the bone

78.

What is the main difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

A. Osteoarthritis is caused by wear and tear, while rheumatoid arthritis is caused by genetic abnormalities

b)

B. Osteoarthritis affects the joint lining, while rheumatoid arthritis makes the joint weak

c)

D. Osteoarthritis is a deficiency bone disease, while rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic condition

d)

C. Osteoarthritis leads to painful swelling, while rheumatoid arthritis causes joint deformity