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Banking economy part 2 BARODA ACADEMY AHMEDABAD

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The Reserve Bank of India will be among 13 international regulators taking part in the GFIN‟s first ever Green washing TechSprint. Full form of GFIN is _______
a)
Global Finance Innovation National
b)
Global Fintech Innovation Network
c)
Goodwin Financial Network
d)
Global Financial Innovation Network
2.
______ is the process of conveying a false impression or misleading information about how a company‟s products are environmentally sound. It involves making misleading, unsubstantiated, or otherwise incomplete claims about the sustainability of a product, service, or business operation
a)
Greenwashing
b)
Green Hushing
c)
Greentech
d)
Greenflez
3.
As per the Annual Report and accounts of the Reserve Bank for the accounting year 2022-23, RBI has maintained the contingency risk buffer 50 basis points higher at _____ per cent for the yea
a)
5
b)
5.5
c)
6
d)
6.5
4.
_________ refers to any wire transfer where the ordering financial institution and beneficiary financial institution are located in different countries. This term also refers to any chain of wire transfer in which at least one of the financial institutions involved is located in a different country
a)
Cross-border wire transfer
b)
Domestic wire transfer
c)
eMerchantpay
d)
Cross border micropay
5.
Starting from May 1, 2023, businesses with an annual turnover of Rs. ____ crore or more will be required to abide by a new GST rule. This rule mandates the uploading of electronic invoices on the Invoice Registration Portal (IRP) within _____days of their issue
a)
100;7
b)
75;5
c)
50;7
d)
25;5
6.
To reduce the burden on debt recovery tribunals (DRTs), the finance ministry has asked public sector banks (PSBs) to go for one time settlement (OTS) of loan default cases ranging between Rs 20 lakh and Rs. _________, with the mutual consent of borrowers
a)
25 lacs
b)
50 lacs
c)
75 lacs
d)
100 lacs
7.
Government has capped the amount of interest subvention at Rs. ____ crore per IEC (import-export code) holder in one financial year. Exporters get subsidies under the 'Interest Equalisation Scheme for pre and post-shipment Rupee Export Credit'. All disbursements made from April 1, 2023, shall be counted for an IEC for the current financial year. The interest equalisation rates under the scheme have been revised to 2%. (3% for specified categories of MSME manufacturer exporters)
a)
2
b)
5
c)
7.5
d)
10
8.
The Finance Ministry has issued a notification stating that businesses with a turnover of Rs. ____ crore or more will be required to adopt e-invoicing from August 1, whereas the current threshold stands at Rs.10 crore
a)
3
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
9.
From July 1, 2023, individuals conducting international transactions using debit or credit cards up to Rs. _____ lakh, will be exempted from the 20 percent TCS levy. This exemption will also exclude these transactions from the LRS limit of $250,000 per annum
a)
5
b)
7
c)
10
d)
20
10.
As per new invoicing rule of GST, from May 01 2023, every assesses with a turnover of Rs.100 crore or more is prohibited from reporting invoices that are more than ________ days old on the date of reporting. This comes in response to the current rules that allowed businesses to upload such invoices on Invoice Registration Portal on the current date, irrespective of the date of issue
a)
5
b)
7
c)
10
d)
15
11.
TheReserve Bank has launched a Financial Inclusion Dashboard named, ______to provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters
a)
Antardrishti
b)
Antargyan
c)
Antarbodh
d)
Antarchitvan
12.
To measure the extent of financial inclusion, RBI had constructed the Financial Inclusion (FI) Index in 2021, based on which dimensions of financial inclusion (select all apply)
a)
Access
b)
Usage
c)
Quality
d)
Inclusiveness
13.
The dashboard, ‘ANTARDRISHTI’ presently intended for internal use in the RBI, will further facilitate greater financial inclusion through a __________ approach
a)
Multi-shareholder
b)
Multi-stakeholder
c)
Multi-Collaborator
d)
Multi-contributor
14.
RBI has embarked on a major change in its information management framework for handling the massive data flow, aggregation, analysis, public dissemination and data governance following the launch of its
a)
Centralised Information Management System (CIMS)
b)
Central Information Management System (CIMS)
c)
Centralised Information Management Statistics (CIMS)
d)
Centralised Informatics Management System (CIMS)
15.
RBI has decided that Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks) may set __________ for borrowing in Call and Notice Money Markets.
a)
50% for Call money & 75% for Notice money
b)
75% for Call money & 100% for Notice money.
c)
100% for Call money & 125% for Notice money
d)
Freedom to fix their own limits.
16.
As per revised guidelines of CBDT, TDS would apply to the Mahila Samman Savings Scheme, only when the interest received from the Post office savings scheme in a financial year is more than ______ or ________ (in the case of senior citizens)
a)
Rs.40,000 ; Rs.50,000
b)
Rs.50,000 ; Rs.60,000
c)
Rs.60,000 ; Rs.70,000
d)
Rs.60,000 ; Rs.75,000
17.
The IRDAI has granted life insurance business licence to ______ which is one of the first non-life insurers in India to be fully operated on the cloud and has developed application programming interface (API) integrations with several channel partners
a)
Go Digit Life Insurance Limited
b)
Bajaj Allianz General Insurance Company Limited
c)
Cholamandalam MS General Insurance Co Ltd
d)
IFFCO TOKIO General Insurance Co. Ltd
18.
First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) now referred to as _________ is an industry practice of offering financial products involving contractual agreements in which a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default in a loan portfolio of the Regulated Entity (RE)specified upfront
a)
First Loss Guarantee
b)
Loss Default Guarantee
c)
Default Loss Guarantee
d)
Default Guarantee
19.
Banks (Regulated entity – RE ) accept Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in which of the following forms (select all that apply)
a)
Cash deposited with the RE
b)
Fixed Deposits maintained with a Scheduled Commercial Bank with a lien marked in favour of the RE
c)
Bank Guarantee in favour of the RE
d)
PSL purchased by RE
20.
Under Sovereign Gold Bonds scheme, the issue price of the SGBs will be less by _____ rupees per gram for the investors who subscribe online and pay through digital mode
a)
25
b)
50
c)
75
d)
100
21.
Which are the guarantees which not to be covered within Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) (Select all that apply)
a)
Guarantee schemes of Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
b)
Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Trust for Low Income Housing (CRGFTLIH)
c)
Individual schemes under National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd
d)
Credit guarantee provided by Bank for International Settlements (BIS), IMF as well as Multilateral Development Banks
22.
RBI has issued the revised guidelines on the Minimum Capital Requirement for commercial banks to hold sufficient regulatory capital against their exposures arising from Operational Risks. It would cover the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events. While legal risks would form part of operational risks, the _______ and ________ risks are excluded from the ambit of calculating capital requirements.
a)
Strategic; Reputational
b)
Governance; Reputational
c)
Environment ; Strategic
d)
None of the above
23.
As per the extant guidelines, for measuring minimum operational risk capital (ORC) requirements, the approaches are: Basic Indicator Approach (BIA); The Standardised Approach (TSA) / Alternative Standardised Approach (ASA), and Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA). As per the revised guidelines, these three approaches shall be replaced by the new ____________
a)
‘Basel III Internal Rating based Approach
b)
‘Basel III Standardised Approach’
c)
‘Basel III External Rating based Approach’
d)
None
24.
New Basel III Standardised Approach (Basel III SA) calculation methodology is based on three components. The first two are the Business Indicator (BI) and the Business Indicator Component (BIC). The third component is ________________
a)
The Internal Loss Formula
b)
The Internal Loss Factor
c)
The Internal Loss Multiplier
d)
The Internal Loss Fraction
25.
What was India‟s score in the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific‟s (UNESCAP) global survey on digital and sustainable trade facilitation in 2023?
a)
0.9355
b)
0.9356
c)
0.9357
d)
0.9358
26.
How often is the UN Global Survey on Digital and Sustainable Trade Facilitation conducted?
a)
Annually
b)
Biennially
c)
Quarterly
d)
Once in every three years
27.
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) and the Indian Banks‟ Association (IBA) is setting up a common platform for balance confirmations in respect of accounts receivables, accounts payables, bank balances, loans, investments or inventories held by third parties, etc., which is aimed at providing more transparency, efficiency and reducing auditing costs for chartered accountants and banks. The platform will be developed and maintained by _________, which will work with the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT)
a)
PSB Alliance Pvt. Ltd
b)
PSB Association Pvt. Ltd.
c)
PSB Affinity Pvt. Ltd
d)
PSB Accord Pvt. Ltd
28.
Which international lender has secured the top spot in the 2023 Forbes Global 2000 list?
a)
Bank of America
b)
Morgan Stanley
c)
JPMorgan Chase
d)
HSBC
29.
In view the benefits for users and beneficiaries alike, RBI has proposed to expand the scope and reach of e-RUPI vouchers by permitting _________ to issue eRUPI vouchers and enabling issuance of e-RUPI vouchers on behalf of individuals
a)
Non-bank Settled Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
b)
Non-bank Mobile Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
c)
Non-bank Paid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
d)
Non-bank Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers
30.
To enhance efficiency of the system and also to encourage greater participation, Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), the scope of BBPS has been expanded to include all categories of payments and collections, both recurring and non-recurring in nature, as well as facilitating ____________ bill payments
a)
In-bound cross-border
b)
Out-bound cross-border
c)
Inter Cross-border
d)
Any of the above
31.
RBI has allowed remittances under liberalised remittance scheme (LRS) for payments of ___________ in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs). Presently, remittances to IFSCs under liberalised remittance scheme (LRS) can be made only for making investments in securities
a)
Education & Boarding fees in foreign universities or foreign institutions
b)
Educational fees in foreign universities or foreign institutions
c)
Educational fees & stipend in foreign universities
d)
All of the above
32.
In light of the cessation of the publication/non- representativeness of US Dollar London Interbank Offered Rate (USD LIBOR) settings after June 30, 2023, FBIL has been accorded approval to cease the publication of the ____________ after June 30, 2023.
a)
USD/INR Reference Rate
b)
Overnight Mumbai Interbank Outright Rate (MIBOR)
c)
MIFOR (Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate)
d)
Treasury Bill Rates
33.
Uptill now, there was no specific framework available for technology/digital platforms to provide _________ services in direct plans of mutual fund schemes. The Securities & Exchange Board of India has now made it compulsory for _________ to get registered with the regulators and barred them from offering regular plans of mutual funds schemes as part of the new regulatory framework introduced for such platforms for direct mutual fund investing
a)
Performance-only; Performance & Execution platforms
b)
Execution-only; Execution-only platforms
c)
Achievement –only; Performance & Achievement
d)
Discharge-only; Discharge-only platforms
34.
As per the recent SEBI circular, no entity would be allowed to operate as an EOP without obtaining registration from _____________
a)
Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)
b)
Securities Exchange Board of India
c)
SEBI or the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI), as the case may be
d)
National Stock Exchange.
35.
SEBI has issued guidelines for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to transfer assets not sold during the winding- up process to a new liquidation scheme or distribute such unliquidated investments in-specie, subject to a ____ consent by value of investors in each case
a)
0.7
b)
0.75
c)
0.8
d)
0.85
36.
To curb volatility in small cap counters, BSE and NSE have put in place an enhanced surveillance mechanism for companies that have a market cap of less than Rs. ____ crore.
a)
500
b)
600
c)
700
d)
800
37.
Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME), a mass entrepreneurship enablement platform and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), announced their joint partnership to launch the _______.
a)
NBFC Grow Acceleration Program (NGAP)
b)
NCFC Growth Acceleration Program (NGAP)
c)
NDFC Growing Acceleration Program (NGAP)
d)
NEFC Growth Assistance Program (NGAP)
38.
GAME program aims to handhold smaller NBFCs that have at least ___ % of exposure to MSMEs
a)
50
b)
60
c)
75
d)
80
39.
The Central Govt. has launched a new collection of courses called _______; on the iGOTKarmayogi Platform - a government-owned not-for-profit special purpose vehicle, to steer the mission‟s fundamental goals
a)
Rakshta
b)
Dakshta
c)
Shishka
d)
Utkrushta
40.
Full form of Dakshta is ________
a)
Development of Attitude, Know-how, Skill for Holistic Transformation in Administration
b)
Development of Angle, Knowledge, Skill for Holistic Transformation in Administration.
c)
Development of Attitude, Knowledge, Skill for Holistic Transformation in Administration
d)
Development of Attitude, Knowledge, Skillfulness for Holistic Transformation in Administration.
41.
International Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Day or World MSME Day is observed every year on _____ all over the world to highlight the significance of MSMEs
a)
25th June
b)
27th June
c)
29th June
d)
30th June
42.
During current FY ICRR (incremental cash reserve ratio ) was introduced by RBI to tighten liquidity in near term. Accordingly ICRR was to be maintained at least __ % of its NDTL on reporting Friday of preceding fortnight
a)
4
b)
5
c)
10
d)
15
43.
RBI had launched portal named ____ for unclaimed deposits
a)
DEAFPORTAL
b)
UDGAM
c)
UNCLAIMED
d)
SUGAM
44.
Full form of UDGAM is ____
a)
Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Accessed information
b)
Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information
c)
Unclaimed Deposits – Gate to Access information
d)
Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Accept information
45.
What is the start up guidelines for technical textiles recently approved by Ministry of Textiles
a)
Grant for refinance & Enterprenurship across aspiring innovations in tehnical textiles
b)
Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles
c)
Grant for research & enterprise across aspiring innovations in technical textiles
d)
Grant for refinance & enterprise across aspiring innovations in technical textiles
46.
The start up guidelines for technical texiltes by Ministyr of textiles provides grant in aid of Rs. ___ under National technical textiles mission
a)
30
b)
40
c)
50
d)
60
47.
The Government of India has approved a Digital Communication Framework to address loan defaults exceeding Rs. ____ crore between the Banks and Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB), which is a significant move towards strengthening communication channels between banks and the CEIB
a)
20
b)
30
c)
40
d)
50
48.
Under the Digital Communication Framework, the CEIB will send digital reports to public sector banks within ____ days of a loan request at the pre-approval stage.
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
49.
An Inter-Departmental Group (IDG) of the RBI was formed under the chairmanship of Sh.__________, it’s Executive Director to examine the internationalisation of INR in December 2021
a)
Dr. M.D. Patra
b)
Radha Shyam Ratho
c)
Shri M. Rajeshwar Rao
d)
Shri T. Rabi Sankar
50.
With the objective of the development of the corporate bond market from the perspective of mutual funds, SEBI has allowed asset management companies to participate in _____ on Commercial Papers (CPs) and Certificate of Deposits (CDs)
a)
Reverse Repo
b)
Term Money
c)
Repos
d)
Call Money
51.
In order to avoid delays in the issuance of refunds, an income tax assessee will get _____ days to respond to notices issued by the Central Processing Centre (CPC) regarding set-off and withholding of refund
a)
20
b)
21
c)
25
d)
30
52.
The NSE IFSC-SGX Connect, unveiled the new identity of ________, which has replaced the existing SGX Nifty Futures & Options contracts from July 3, 2023 after a switch from Singapore Exchange (SGX) to Gujarat International Finance Tec-City - GIFT IFSC in GIFT City, Gandhinagar.
a)
GIFT Live Nifty
b)
GIFT Nifty 50
c)
GIFT Nifty
d)
GIFT NSE Nifty
53.
An IDF-NBFC means a non-deposit taking NBFC which is permitted to (i) refinance post commencement operations date (COD) infrastructure projects that have completed at least _____ of satisfactory commercial operations; and (ii) finance toll operate transfer (TOT) projects as the direct lender
a)
one year
b)
two years
c)
three years
d)
four years
54.
With a view to facilitate better asset-liability management (ALM), IDF-NBFCs can raise funds through shorter tenor bonds and commercial papers (CPs) from the domestic market to the extent of up to ____ per cent of their total outstanding borrowings
a)
10
b)
15
c)
20
d)
25
55.
RBI platform which will focus on public tech will start with KCC loans upto Rs. Lacs per borrower
a)
1.5
b)
1.6
c)
3
d)
3.5
56.
PM Vishwakarma will be implemented as a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the Government, with an initial outlay of Rs. _________ crore
a)
13000
b)
14000
c)
15000
d)
20000
57.
As per PM Vishwakarma scheme, the beneficiaries will be provided with 40 hours basic training of 5-7 days and advanced training of 15 days or more, with a stipend of:
a)
Rs. 200 per day
b)
Rs. 300 per day.
c)
Rs. 500 per day
d)
Rs. 600 per day
58.
As per PM Vishwakarma scheme, collateral free Enterprise Development Loans of upto ______will be provided by Banks. (select all that apply)
a)
Rs. 1 lac in first tranche
b)
Rs. 2 lacs in 2nd tranche
c)
Rs. 3 lacs in two tranches
d)
Rs. 5 lacs in three tranches
59.
The Finance Ministry has notified changes in the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005. Accordingly, a person having ownership of more than ____% of the capital or profits of a partnership will be brought within the ambit of the sub-rule 3 as a „beneficial owner‟. Similarly, a person, who does not have any ownership or entitlement to more than ____% of capital or profits of the partnership but exercises control over the partnership through other means, will be treated as a beneficial owner.
a)
10;10
b)
15;15
c)
20;20
d)
25;25
60.
Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, loan will be extended at a concessional rate of interest fixed at ___%, with Government of India subvention to the extent of ___%
a)
3;6
b)
5;8
c)
7;10
d)
None
61.
Under PM Vishwakarma scheme, incentive of Rs. _____ per digital transaction, upto maximum _____transactions monthly will be credited to the beneficiary„s account for each digital pay-out or receipt
a)
3;100
b)
2;100
c)
1;100
d)
none
62.
RBI had structured a common ______ for assessing the quality of data submissions by Credit Institutions (CIs) to Credit Information Companies (CICs) and improving the same over a period of time
a)
credit data quality
b)
credit quality index
c)
data quality index
d)
credit data index
63.
RBI had constructed a composite ______ to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country
a)
Financial inclusion index
b)
financial inclusion dashboard
c)
FI matrix
d)
FI composite
64.
In the Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies dated April 06, 2023, RBI had proposed expanding the scope of UPI by enabling transfer to / from pre-sanctioned credit lines at banks. Which of the statement is correct (select all that apply)
a)
Currently, savings account, overdraft account, prepaid wallets and credit cards can be linked to UPI
b)
The scope of UPI is being expanded by inclusion of credit lines as a funding account.
c)
Payments through a pre-sanctioned credit line issued by a banks to individuals, with prior consent of the individual customer, are enabled for transactions using the UPI System
d)
Banks may, as per their Board approved policy, stipulate terms & conditions such as, credit limit, period of credit, rate of interest, etc. of use of such credit lines.
65.
______ is a facility that allows different arms of the government and centres to borrow from the RBI.
a)
Ways and Means Advances (WMAs)
b)
Market Stabilization Scheme
c)
Open Market Operation
66.
RBI had announced the withdrawal of Rs. 2000 banknotes from circulation. RBI has now advised that w.e.f Oct. 08, 2023, the procedure for exchange of Rs.2000 banknotes. Which of the following is part of the procedure (Select all that apply)
a)
Individuals / Entities can tender Rs.2000 banknotes at the 19 RBI Issue Offices for credit to their bank accounts in India for any amount
b)
Individuals / Entities from within the country can also send Rs.2000 banknotes through India Post, addressed to any of the 19 RBI Issue Offices for credit to their bank accounts in India.
c)
Rs.2000 banknotes shall continue to be legal tender.
d)
The deposit / exchange at bank branches shall be stopped.
67.
What is RoDTEP scheme with respect to foreign trade policy
a)
Remittance of Duties or Taxes on Export Products.
b)
Remission of Duties or Taxes on Export Products
c)
Remission of Duties or Tax on Export Product
68.
Ways and Means Advances (WMA) for Govt of India for the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024 ) will be Rs.______crore
a)
50000
b)
75000
c)
80000
d)
90000
69.
has decided to include India in its emerging market debt index - part of the Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM)
a)
Morgan Stanley
b)
Goldman Sachs
c)
JPMorgan
d)
Wells Fargo
70.
The _______ has recently listed the country‟s first social impact bond at Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
a)
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Developmen
b)
Small Industries Development Bank of India
c)
National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development
d)
None of the above
71.
With the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) at 6.25 per cent, the policy repo rate being at 6.50 per cent and the MSF rate at 6.75%, the width of the LAF corridor is of _____ bps
a)
25
b)
35
c)
50
d)
65
72.
RBI has directed all Private Sector Banks (excluding Payment Banks and Local Area Banks) and Wholly-Owned Subsidiaries of Foreign Banks, to ensure the presence of at least _____ Whole Time Directors (WTDs), including the MD&CEO, on their Boards
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
73.
RBI has advised that all domestic term deposits accepted from individuals for amount of Rupees _____ crore and below shall have premature withdrawal-facility
a)
0.5
b)
1
c)
1.5
d)
2
74.
RBI has announced rate of interest on government of India floating rate bond 2034 at:
a)
0.08
b)
0.0805
c)
0.081
d)
0.0815
75.
RBI has announced rate of interest on government of India floating rate bond 2028 at
a)
0.0766
b)
0.0767
c)
0.0768
d)
0.0769
76.
UDGAM portal covers around ___of unclaimed deposits (in value) in DEAF fund
a)
0.9
b)
0.85
c)
0.8
d)
0.75
77.
RBI has recently amended few of provisions in its master directions on KYC- AML norms applicable to banks and financial institutions. Which of the following is correct w.r.t the amendments (select all that are applicable)
a)
Principal officer should be an official from ‘Management Level’ of the Regulated Entity (RE).
b)
The RE shall consider filing an Suspicious Transaction Report (STR), if necessary, when it is unable to comply with the relevant CDD measures in relation to the customer
c)
Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) have been added to the list of Regulated entities (REs) as per the provisions of KYC AML guidelines issued under PMLA.
d)
REs shall preserve the documents of the transactions undertaken by the walk in customers also for a period of 5 years from the date of transactions
78.
Banks shall classify their entire investment portfolio (select all that apply) (except investments in their own subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates) under following categories
a)
Held to Maturity (HTM)
b)
Offer for sale (OFS)
c)
Available for Sale (AFS)
d)
Fair Value through Profit and Loss (FVTPL)
79.
LLPs have to maintain register of partners with details of beneficial interests & both tangible & intangible contributions within ___ days of incorporation
a)
30
b)
45
c)
60
d)
90
80.
Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with theme
a)
Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation
b)
Corruption free Bharat
c)
Say no to corruption; commit to the Bharat Mata
d)
Commit to eradicate corruption
81.
EASE 5.0 is based on which of the following themes (select all tha apply)
a)
New age 24*& banking
b)
Digitally enabled customer offerings
c)
Big data & analytics
d)
Co lending with NBFCs
82.
Which of the following digitally enabled offerings actions points are newly added in EASE 5.0? (select all that apply)
a)
Comprehensive digital banking for MSMEs
b)
Digital-only products & services
c)
Banking solutions for agri value chain
d)
Digital & analytical driven collections
83.
EASE 5.0 envisions long term reforms with ___ year horizon
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
7
84.
EASE 5.0. is based on how many themes?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
85.
Under action point of EASE 5.0 which of the following are the examples of the open API banking for integration with new age businesses
a)
Data visualization
b)
Trade services
c)
Cloud engineering
d)
API integration
86.
Under theme of ___ In EASE 5.0 action point of deepening financial inclusion in rural areas Is covered
a)
Modern technology capabilities
b)
Digitally enabled customer offerings
c)
New age 24*& banking
d)
Colllaborative & development focused banking
87.
Overvie of EASE 6.0 reform agenda includes which of the following ? (Select all that apply)
a)
Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement
b)
Digitally enabled customer offerings
c)
Digital & analytics driven business improvement
d)
Tech & data enabled capability buidling
88.
Hassle free branch experience Is action point of which EASE agenda?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
89.
Under RBI direct scheme individual investors can open ___ accounts with RBI
a)
Retail direct account
b)
Retail Gilt account
c)
Retail direct Gilt account
90.
Which of the retail investors can open account under RBI direct scheme? (select all that apply)
a)
Rupee saving account holder in India
b)
Non resident Indian
c)
Joint account holder
d)
OCI card holder
91.
Retail investors in RBI direct scheme can do which of the following (select all that apply)
a)
Place non competitve bids in primary markets
b)
Can acess Secondary market through lateral purchases
c)
Access secondary market through NDS-OM
d)
Can place competitive bids on Government securities
92.
What is TREP full form with respect to money market ?
a)
Treasury bills purchase
b)
Treasury bills repurchase
c)
Transfer ESOPs purchases
d)
Transfer bills purchase
93.
What is the tenor of Notice money market?
a)
One working day
b)
2 days to 14 days
c)
15 days to one year
d)
one year & beyond
94.
What is the minimum denomination of commercial paper?
a)
Rs. 1 lac
b)
Rs. 2lacs
c)
Rs. 5 lacs
d)
Rs. 10 lacs
95.
Whichof the following are the members of FIMMDA? (Select all that apply)
a)
Citi bank
b)
ICIC prudential life insurance company
c)
Birla sun life insurance company
d)
IDFC
96.
What is the maturity period of cash management bills?
a)
91 days
b)
less than 91 days
c)
180 days
d)
less than 180 days
97.
The decisions of MPC meeting are in consonance with the objective of achieving the medium-term target for consumer price index (CPI) inflation of __ per cent within a band of +/- 2 per cent, while supporting growth
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
98.
The Marginal Standing Facility rate and the Bank Rate are calibrated to 25 bps above the repo rate. The Bank Rate thus has been retained at _____per cent
a)
5.75
b)
6.25
c)
6.5
d)
6.75
99.
RBI has introduced PCA Framework for NBFCs on December 14, 2021. The Framework has since been reviewed and RBI has decided to extend the same to ____
a)
all regulates entities
b)
all financial institutions
c)
Government NBFCs
d)
all the above
100.
The Centre has notified an amendment to the Prevention of Money laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, in case of international transactions above ____ to prevent terror financing and same will be subject to closer scrutiny and a reporting entity will have to identify clients, verify their identity and also ascertain purpose of the business
a)
Rs. 25000
b)
Rs. 50000
c)
Rs. 75000
d)
Rs. 100000
101.
As per the amendment the beneficial owner in a partnership firm shall be the natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to more than ____ percent of capital or profits of the partnership or who exercises control through other means. Previously it was ___ percent
a)
10;15
b)
15;20
c)
20;25
d)
25;30
102.
New non-bank providing Payment Aggregators-Cross Border services (PA-CBs) (i.e. entities which have not commenced operations as on Oct. 31, 2023, shall have a minimum networth of Rs. _____ crore at the time of submitting application to the RBI for authorisation and shall attain a minimum networth of Rs. _____ crore by end of the third financial year of grant of authorisation
a)
10;15
b)
15;20
c)
15;25
d)
20;25
103.
PM Vishwakarma scheme will be initially implemented for a period up to_________
a)
3 years up to 2025-26
b)
Five years up to 2027-28
c)
Six years up to 2028-29
d)
Ten years upto 2033-34
104.
Data Quality Index (DQI) scores for Commercial and Microfinance segments shall be provided at Credit Institutions (CI) and file level. The DQI scores for Commercial and Microfinance segments at CI level shall be computed as _________ of commercial and microfinance segment respectively of that CI
a)
Average weighted of file level DQI scores
b)
Weighted average of file level DQI scores
c)
Weighted average of level DQI scores
105.
Credit Institutions (CI) to undertake _________ review of the DQI for all segments to improve the quality of the data being submitted to CICs
a)
half yearly
b)
quarterly
c)
monthly
d)
none
106.
As per the revised guidelines in the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 where the client is a trust, a reporting entity will be required to ensure that trustees disclose their status at the time of commencement of an account-based relationship or when carrying out any transaction of an amount equal to or exceeding Rs._____, whether conducted as a single transaction or several transactions that appear to be connected or any international money transfer operations
a)
30000
b)
40000
c)
50000
d)
60000
107.
As per the revised guidelines in the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, reporting entities will be required to keep records containing analysis of transactions and client due diligence for a period of _____ years after the business relationship with the client had ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later
a)
two
b)
three
c)
four
d)
five
108.
Which of the followng are key provisions of Data protection bill 2023 ? (Select all that aplly)
a)
Data fiduciary responsibilities
b)
Data principal rights
c)
Penalties for breach
d)
Differentiating personal & Sensitive data
109.
Government of India has recently approved interest rate of _______ percent as recommended by the Central Board of Trustees of the Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for its subscribers for the financial year 2022-23. There is a hike in the EPF account interest rate by 0.05% compared to previous year
a)
8.05
b)
8.1
c)
8.15
d)
8.2
110.
In order to avoid delays in the issuance of refunds, an income tax assessee will get _____ days to respond to notices issued by the Central Processing Centre (CPC) regarding set-off and withholding of refund
a)
20
b)
21
c)
25
d)
30
111.
On a review of the practices followed by REs for charging penal interest/charges on loans, RBI has issued directions to the banks which shall come into effect from Jan. 1, 2024. Which of the following is/are part of the directions (select all that apply)
a)
Penalty, if charged, for non-compliance of material terms and conditions of loan contract by the borrower shall be treated as ‘penal charges’ and shall not be levied in the form of ‘penal interest’ that is added to the rate of interest charged on the advances
b)
The REs shall not introduce any additional component to the rate of interest.The quantum of penal charges shall be reasonable and commensurate with the non-compliance of material terms and conditions of loan contract without being discriminatory within a particular loan / product categor
c)
The penal charges in case of loans sanctioned to ‘individual borrowers, for purposes other than business’, shall not be higher than the penal charges applicable to non- individual borrowers for similar non-compliance of material terms and conditions
d)
1,2 only
e)
1,2,3 only
112.
The exposure limits for IDF-NBFCs shall be ____% of their Tier 1 capital for single borrower/ party and ____% of their Tier 1 capital for single group of borrowers/ parties
a)
20,30
b)
25,40
c)
30,50
d)
35,60
113.
Operation „Broader Sword‟ aimed to prevent the shipment of which of the following items?
a)
Illicit drugs and dangerous chemicals
b)
Illicit pharmaceuticals and fire hazard chemicals
c)
Illicit pharmaceuticals and precursor chemicals
d)
Illicit liquor and dangerous chemicals
114.
The Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM) Urban Co-operative Banks are permitted to open new branches up to 10% of the number of full-fledged branches (at the end of previous financial year) in a financial year, subject to a maximum of ______ branches without having the need to take permission from RBI
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
115.
As per RBI guidelines on compromise settlement, Compromise settlements where the time for payment of the agreed settlement amount exceeds a period of ____ months shall be treated as restructuring.
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
9
116.
In respect of borrowers subject to compromise settlements, there shall be a „cooling period‟ as determined by the respective Board approved policies before the Regulated Entities can assume fresh exposures to such borrowers, provided that the cooling period in respect of exposures other than farm credit exposures shall be subject to a floor of ____ months
a)
9
b)
12
c)
15
d)
18
117.
TReDs is an electronic platform for financing trade receivables which facilitates the discounting o
a)
Inovices
b)
Bills of exchange
c)
Promissory note
d)
a & b
118.
Which of the following companyis not registered for operating as a TReDs platform
a)
Receivables Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL)
b)
A. TReDS Ltd (Known as Invoicemart)
c)
M1 Xchange
d)
TReDS India Ltd
119.
To realise the vision of ____and to strengthen 1,514 Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) in the country, RBI has notified four important initiatives namely:a) Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) can now open new branches; b) UCBs can also do One Time Settlement at par with Commercial Banks; c)Revised timelines for PSL targets given to UCBs; and d)Designating a Nodal Officer in RBI
a)
’Sahakar se Samridhi’
b)
Sahyog se Samridhi’
c)
‘Sath se Samridhi’
d)
Sanklap se Samridhi’
120.
As per revised guidelines of CBDT, TDS would apply to the MSSC Scheme, only when the interest received from the Post office savings scheme in a financial year is more than ______ or ________ (in the case of senior citizens).
a)
Rs.40,000 ; Rs.50,000
b)
Rs.50,000 ; Rs.60,000
c)
Rs.60,000 ; Rs.70,000
d)
Rs.60,000 ; Rs.75,000
121.
As per RBI guidelines on Compromise Settlements & Technical Write offs, there shall be a reporting mechanism to the next higher authority, at least on a _____ basis, with respect to compromise settlements and technical write offs approved by a particular authority
a)
Half Yearly
b)
Quarterly
c)
Monthly
d)
Fortnightly
122.
Banks shall ensure that total amount of Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall not exceed _____ per cent of the amount of that loan portfolio. In case of implicit guarantee arrangements, the DLG Provider shall not bear performance risk of more than the equivalent amount of five per cent of the underlying loan portfolio.
a)
five
b)
seven
c)
ten
d)
fifteen
123.
Under Sovereign Gold Bonds scheme, the investors will be compensated at a fixed rate of ____ percent per annum payable semi-annually on the nominal value
a)
1
b)
1.5
c)
2
d)
2.5
124.
As per Digital Lending guidelines, a borrower shall be given an explicit option to exit digital loan by paying the principal and the proportionate APR without any penalty during this period. The cooling off period shall be determined by the Board of the RE. The period so determined shall not be less than ______ days for loans having tenor of seven days or more and ______ day for loans having tenor of less than seven days. For borrowers continuing with the loan even after look-up period, pre-payment shall continue to be allowed as per extant RBI guidelines
a)
3;1
b)
1;3
c)
5;1
d)
1;5
125.
As per Reserve Bank of India glide path, all legal entities, including Private Limited, LLP, Partnership, and Proprietorship, with a total exposure of Rs. ____ crore and above must have an Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) code on or before 30th April, 2023. Further, RBI has given a time frame as per which by the end of 30th April, 2025, it will also be mandatory for entities having Rs. _____ crores and above exposure to obtain LEI code
a)
50;10
b)
40;10
c)
25;10
d)
25;5
126.
India‟s goal of achieving the net zero target by ____ would require an accelerated reduction in the energy intensity of GDP by around ____ per cent annually and a significant improvement in its energy-mix in favour of renewables to around 80 per cent by 2070-71
a)
2070;7
b)
2070;5
c)
2050;7
d)
2050;5
127.
The Reserve Bank of India has informed all financial institutions including banks and NBFCs to treat ___________ not covered under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime or exempted from the CGST Act, 2017, but having the Udyam Assist Certificate (UAC) as micro enterprises for classification under the priority sector lending (PSL) norms
a)
Informal micro enterprises (IMEs)
b)
Inclusive micro enterprises (IMEs)
c)
Infotech micro enterprises (IMEs)
d)
I-tech micro enterprises (IMEs)
128.
Under Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Animal Husbandry and Dairying (CGFT-AHD), the Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) shall be charged @ ______% p.a. on the sanctioned amount of credit facility for the first year and on the outstanding amount of credit facility for the remaining tenure of the guarantee.
a)
0.1
b)
0.25
c)
0.5
d)
0.75
129.
RBI has revised Guidelines for Appointment / Re- appointment of Statutory Branch Auditors of Public Sector Banks and norms on Business Coverage under Statutory Branch Audit of Public Sector Banks. RBI has decided to grant general permission to PSBs for appointment / reappointment of BAs subject to the stipulated requirements. Which of the following are the requirements stipulated by RBI (Select all that apply)
a)
The audit entity or any of its partners have not been barred from exercising duties as auditor by any regulatory body including the RBI, Securities and Exchange Board of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General (C&AG), the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) and the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)
b)
The audit entity is not undertaking audit engagements, either as SBA or Statutory Central Auditor (SCA), of any other PSB for the period of appointment
c)
In case the auditor has previously completed four consecutive years as SBA of the bank, at least four years have elapsed after the completion of the last audit engagement as SBA of the same PSB
d)
In case the auditor has been appointed as an SCA of the bank in the past, at least six years have elapsed after the completion of the last audit engagement as SCA of the same PSB (irrespective of tenure of previous engagement)
130.
The maximum amount of eligible credit facilities for guarantee cover under Credit Guarantee scheme for Co-Lending of CGTMSE in case of credit facility secured is not exceeding Rs._____ lakh and not exceeding Rs. ______ lakh in case of unsecured credit facility
a)
100 ; 50
b)
150 ; 50
c)
150 ; 100
d)
200 ; 100
131.
In case the individiual receiving the money has not filed income tax return for three years immediately preceding the year, then the TDS is 2% on the cash payments/withdrawals of more than Rs. ____ lakh and up to Rs 1 crore, and ____% for withdrawal exceeding Rs 1 crore
a)
10;3
b)
10;5
c)
20;3
d)
20;5
132.
Net Owned Fund (NOF) for ARCs shall be minimum of Rs. _____ crore on an ongoing basis
a)
50
b)
60
c)
80
d)
100
133.
Under Positive Pay system for high value clearing, NPCI shall enable it for all account holders issuing cheques for amounts of Rs._____and above at the discretion of the account holder and banks may consider making it mandatory in case of cheques for amounts of Rs._____ and above
a)
1,00,000 and 5,00,000
b)
25,000 and 2,00,000
c)
50,000 and 5,00,000
d)
10,000 and 1,00,000
134.
The Regulated Entity may, aggrieved by an award passed by the Ombudsman or closure of a complaint within ______days of the date of receipt of communication of Award or closure of the complaint, prefer an appeal before the Appellate Authority. The period of _______days for filing an appeal shall commence from the date on which the Regulated Entity receives the letter of acceptance of Award by the complainant.
a)
30,30
b)
45,45
c)
60,60
d)
90,90
135.
Under COPRA, the Pecuniary Jurisdiction in case of Distt. Forum is up to Rs. ___ lakh:
a)
25
b)
30
c)
40
d)
50
136.
Under PMEGP scheme, the maximum subsidy for up gradation of existing units will be _______ (Rs.20.00 Lakhs in case of NE States & Hilly areas) for manufacturing sector and Rs.3.75 Lakhs (Rs.5.00 Lakhs in case of NE States & Hilly areas) for Business/service sector
a)
Rs.7.5 Lakh
b)
Rs.10.00 Lakh
c)
Rs.15.00 Lakh
d)
Rs.20.00 Lakh
137.
What is the maximum limit of CGFMU guarantee cover for loans to SHGs?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
25
d)
50
138.
As per The Banking Companies (Period of Preservation of Records) Rules, 1985, every banking company shall preserve, its books, accounts, ledgers, cash books, vouchers etc to a period of not less than __years immediately preceding the current calendar year.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
8
d)
10
139.
Under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund scheme, in case, one eligible entity puts up projects in different locations then all such projects will be eligible under the scheme for loan upto Rs. 2 crore. However, there will be a limit of maximum of ____number of such projects.
a)
20
b)
25
c)
30
d)
50
140.
Under RBI's UDGAM portal if a customer finds his unclaimed deposits he/she should contact the branch along with ______
a)
Latest KYC, screen shots/photo of UDGAM search results
b)
KYC documents & passbook/cheque book
c)
UDRN number with photo identity /OVD proof
d)
Aadhar & Bank account
141.
As per our banks directions on "usage & classification of emails through corporate messaging services" which of the following is NOT a information confidentiality classification attribute:
a)
BANK -Secret
b)
BANK - Confidential
c)
BANK -Urgent
d)
BANK -Internal
142.
At present UDGAM Gateway to access information prortal of RBI supports search facility for __ banks
a)
7
b)
12
c)
28
d)
30
143.
The GIFT IFSC is a special economic zone (SEZ) located in Indian state of gujarat, which was set up to promote internation financial services. What is the full form of IFSC?
a)
Indian financial services centre
b)
International Fintech solutions centre
c)
International finance service centre
d)
International financial stability centre
144.
The Reserve Bank of India in November 2023 superseded the Board of Directors of ____ for a period of 12 months due to certain material concerns emanating from poor governance standards observed in bank
a)
Sangli Sahakari Bank ltd
b)
Vejalpur Nagrik Sahakari bank ltd
c)
Abhyudaya Cooperative bank ltd
d)
The Pudukottai Cooperative town bank ltd
145.
The RBI bulletin of November 2023 includes a speech themed "Towards a greener cleaner India". Which of the following dignitary is the orator /speaker of said speech
a)
Shri Michael Patra
b)
Shri Shatikanta Das
c)
Shri M. Rajeshwar Rao
d)
Shri Swaminathan J
146.
The RBI has recently announced increase in the risk weights for exposures of SCBs to NBFCs. Which of the following is NOT correct?
a)
These norms excludes loans to HFCs and loans to NBFCs which are eligible for classification as priority sector in terms of extant instructions
b)
The increase in risk weightage has been done by 25 %age points for all cases (over and above risk weight associated with given external rating ) of NBFCs
c)
These norms exclude core investment companies
d)
Exposure to AAA rated NBFCs will see the highest increase in risk weights (%age wise increase fior risk weight)
147.
The RBI has increased the risk weight applicable for SCBs on credit card receivables exposure to ___ from immediate effect
a)
1
b)
1.25
c)
1.5
d)
2
148.
The name of new mobile application rolled out by our Bank has for all relatinoship managers & senior relationship managers from ICFS/CFS/Mid corporate branches is ___
a)
Relation 24*7
b)
RM365
c)
RM360
d)
bobRM24*7
149.
FACE is not-for-organization to voice the common concerns of consumer lending Fintech companies with regulators, media, listing or distribution platforms (like google play) and other external stakeholder. What is full form of FACE?
a)
Financial association (against) consumer explotiation
b)
Finance accreditor for consumer enlightenment
c)
Finance inclined association of consumer education
d)
Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment
150.
As per master direction on information technology governance, risk, control & assurance practices, ____ refers to user,who, by virtue of function, and/or role , has been allocated powers within information system which are significantly greater than those available to the majority of users
a)
Previleged user
b)
Master user
c)
Preffered user
d)
Crowned user
151.
CAFRAL is an independent body set up by the RBI for research & learning in banking and finance. What is full name of CAFRAL
a)
Center for advanced financial research and learning
b)
Commiittee for advanced research and linkage
c)
Conference for advanced financial research and listing
d)
Consortium advanced financial research and learning