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Worksheets

Council Mock edition 2

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. Which of the following structures is responsible for gas exchange in the lungs?

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchi

c)

Alveoli

d)

Pleura

2.

2. Which part of the brain regulates balance and coordination?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Brainstem

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

3.

3. The functional unit of the kidney is the:

a)

Nephron

b)

Alveolus

c)

Tubule

d)

Glomerulus

4.

4. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Vena cava

5.

5. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerve endings?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Stratum corneum

6.

6. The mitral valve is located between which two chambers of the heart ??

a)

Right atrium and right ventricle

b)

Left atrium and left ventricle

c)

Right atrium and left atrium

d)

Left ventricle and aorta

7.

7. Which type of muscle is involuntary and found in the walls of internal organs?

a)

Smooth

b)

Voluntary

c)

Cardiac

d)

Skeletal

8.

8. What is the primary function of red blood cells?

a)

Fight infection

b)

Aid in clotting

c)

Transport oxygen

d)

Maintain pH

9.

9. Which organ is responsible for producing bile?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Stomach

d)

Gallbladder

10.

10. Which hormone is produced by the pancreas to lower blood glucose?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Thyroid

11.

11. Which part of the respiratory system prevents food from entering the trachea?

a)

Epiglottis

b)

Larynx

c)

Pharynx

d)

Soft palate

12.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. What is the main effect of

ACE inhibitors?

a)

Increase blood pressure

b)

Dilate blood vessels and lower blood pressure

c)

Increase heart rate

d)

Decrease fluid retention

13.

13. The sinoatrial node is located in which chamber of the heart?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Left ventricle

14.

. Which of the following drugs is a beta-blocker used for controlling hypertension?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Simvastatin

15.

15. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

a)

Olfactory

b)

Optic

c)

Facial

d)

Vagus

16.

16. The diaphragm is innervated by which nerve?

a)

Phrenic nerve

b)

Vagus nerve

c)

Trigeminal nerve

d)

Accessory nerve

17.

17. Which cell type produces antibodies?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

Neutrophils

18.

18. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

a)

Femur

b)

Scapula

c)

Vertebra

d)

Humerus

19.

19. Which part of the nephron is responsible for filtration?

a)

Proximal tubule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Glomerulus

d)

Distal tubule

20.

20. Which gland regulates metabolism through the release of thyroxine?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Thyroid

c)

Pancreas

d)

Adrenal

21.

Which drug is most commonly used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Acetaminophen

22.

22. Which lab result is most important to monitor in a patient on a loop diuretic?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Potassium

c)

Platelets

d)

Sodium

23.

23. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with a large burn injury?

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Impaired mobility

c)

Altered body image

d)

Chronic pain

24.

24. A client is post-op from abdominal surgery and reports no bowel movement in 3 days.

What should the nurse assess first?

a)

Dietary intake

b)

Bowel sounds

c)

Vital signs

d)

IV fluid rate

25.

25. Which clinical manifestation suggests a urinary tract infection?

a)

Decreased urinary output

b)

Foul-smelling urine

c)

Cloudy vision

d)

High blood pressure

26.

26.A patient is receiving blood transfusion therapy. Which sign indicates a possible

transfusion reaction?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Hypotension

d)

Chest pain

27.

27. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient at risk of pressure ulcers?

a)

Encourage fluid restriction

b)

Massage reddened areas

c)

Reposition every 2 hours

d)

Limit mobility

28.

28. What complication is most critical after thyroid surgery?

a)

Infection

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Hypertension

d)

Weight loss

29.

29. Which diet is most appropriate for a patient with chronic renal failure?

a)

High protein, low potassium

b)

Low protein, low sodium

c)

High carbohydrate, high sodium

d)

High protein, high potassium

30.

30. What is the most effective method to prevent postoperative atelectasis?

a)

Ambulate early

b)

Administer pain medication

c)

Restrict fluids

d)

Give oxygen

31.

31. In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which lab value is expected to be abnormal?

a)

AST and ALT

b)

. Blood glucose

c)

Creatinine

d)

Hemoglobins

32.

32. Which is the priority nursing action after a patient receives a sedative?

a)

Monitor blood pressure

b)

Reorient patient

c)

Ensure airway patency

33.

33. A patient with diabetes reports numbness in the feet. What complication does this suggest?

a)

Diabetic retinopathy

b)

Diabetic nephropathy

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Ketoacidosis

34.

34. Which medication should be questioned for a patient with peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Ranitidine

d)

Omeprazole

35.

35. What is the first step when a nurse finds a patient unresponsive with no pulse?

a)

Call the physician

b)

Start chest compressions

c)

C. Check blood pressure

d)

Open airway

36.

36. Which electrolyte imbalance can cause cardiac arrhythmia?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

37.

37. What should a nurse monitor in a patient on warfarin therapy?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

INR/PT

c)

Potassium

d)

Creatinine

38.

38. Which condition requires airborne precautions?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Influenza

c)

MRSA

d)

Hepatitis B

39.

39. What is the most appropriate action if a wound culture is needed?

a)

. Swab the edges of the wound

b)

Clean the wound and swab the center

c)

Take culture after applying antibiotic

d)

Use old drainage for testing

40.

40. A patient is experiencing chest pain radiating to the jaw. What is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Take vital signs

b)

Call for help

c)

Administer oxygen

d)

Document the pain

41.

41. A patient has a BP of 180/110 mmHg. What condition is likely?

a)

Hypovolemia

b)

Anemia

c)

Hypercardica crisis

d)

Hypertensive crisis

42.

42. What is a common sign of appendicitis?

a)

Pain at McBurney’s point

b)

Left upper quadrant pain

c)

Rebound tenderness in the epigastric area

d)

Melena

43.

43. Which patient should be assigned to a private room?

a)

Post-op patient

b)

Stroke patient

c)

. Patient on bed rest

d)

TB patient

44.

44. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment finding

requires immediate attention?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Increased urinary output

c)

Muscle weakness

d)

Decreased blood pressure

45.

45. Which complication is most likely after a myocardial infarction?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Dysrhythmia

d)

Anemia

46.

46. What is the primary goal in managing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary

disease (COPD)?

a)

Increase oxygen saturation

b)

Eliminate all respiratory infections

c)

Promote airway clearance and prevent complications

d)

Encourage bed rest

47.

47. Which of the following would be a priority for a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

a)

Massage the affected leg

b)

Apply warm compress

c)

Encourage early ambulation

d)

Elevate the leg and monitor for pulmonary embolism

48.

48. In a patient with type 2 diabetes, which symptom suggests hypoglycemia?

a)

Increased urination

b)

Dry mouth

c)

Confusion and diaphoresis

d)

Flushed face

49.

49. A patient with a history of seizures is on phenytoin. Which finding should be reported?

a)

Mild headache

b)

Gingival swelling

c)

Nausea

d)

Tingling in fee

50.

50. Which nursing intervention is most important after a thyroidectomy?

a)

Encouraging early ambulation

b)

Monitoring calcium levels

c)

Providing a high-protein diet

d)

Restricting fluid

51.

51. Which lab test is used to monitor long-term glucose control?

a)

Fasting blood sugar

b)

Oral glucose tolerance test

c)

HbA1c

d)

Random glucose test

52.

52.What is the most likely cause of sudden chest pain and shortness of breath in a

postoperative patients?

a)

Wound infection

b)

. Atelectasis

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Anxiety

53.

53. What condition is associated with a “butterfly” rash on the face?

a)

Eczema

b)

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

c)

Psoriasis

d)

Rosacea

54.

54. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in renal failure?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hypocalcemia

d)

Hypernatremia

55.

55. A patient is admitted with ketoacidosis. What is the nurse’s initial priority?

a)

Administer insulin

b)

Start IV fluids

c)

Monitor blood glucose

d)

Insert a urinary catheter

56.

56. Which finding is consistent with left-sided heart failure?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Jugular vein distention

c)

Crackles in lungs

57.

57. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with liver cirrhosis?

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Increased clotting

c)

Ascites and jaundice

d)

Bradycardia

58.

58. A patient with HIV presents with white patches in the mouth. What condition is

suspected?

a)

Syphilis

b)

. Oral thrush (candidiasis)

c)

Aphthous ulcer

d)

Herpes

59.

  1. 59. What is the initial nursing action for a patient having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure?

  2. A. Hold the limbs

  3. B. Place a tongue blade

  4. C. Turn the patient to the side

  5. D. Administer oxygen

a)

Hold the limbs

b)

Administer oxygen

c)

Place a tongue blade

d)

Turn the patient to the side

60.

60. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching for a patient with asthma?

a)

Use inhaler only when symptoms appear

b)

Avoid all physical activity

c)

Monitor peak flow and avoid triggers

d)

Eat a high-salt diet

61.

61. Which is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease?

a)

Constant pain at rest

b)

Warm, flushed skin

c)

Intermittent claudication

d)

Edema of the legs

62.

62. What is the purpose of digoxin in heart failure management?

a)

Reduce oxygen demand

b)

Prevent fluid retention

c)

Decrease blood pressure

d)

Increase cardiac contractility

63.

63. Which nursing assessment indicates peritonitis in a patient with a perforated ulcer ?

a)

Absent bowel sounds and rigid abdomen

b)

Increased appetite

c)

High urine output

d)

Increased appetite

64.

64. Which diet should be encouraged in a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?

a)

Low fat, high calcium

b)

High iron, high protein

c)

Low sodium

d)

High fiber, low protein

65.

65. Which clinical manifestation is most concerning in a patient with deep partial-thickness

burns?

a)

Pink wound bed

b)

Intense pain

c)

Absence of capillary refill

d)

Blistering

66.

66. Which condition would the nurse suspect in a patient with moon face, purple striae, and muscle weakness??

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Cushing’s syndrome

d)

Graves’ disease

67.

67. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with active varicella (chickenpox)?

a)

Airborne

b)

Standard

c)

Droplets

d)

Contact

68.

68. In a hypertensive crisis, which medication is typically used for immediate BP reduction?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Hydralazine iv

d)

Metoprolol

69.

69. A patient with spinal cord injury at T6 complains of a pounding headache and flushed

skin. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer analgesics

b)

Lower the head of the bed

c)

Check for bladder distension

d)

Give antihypertensives

70.

70. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient with a chest tube?

a)

Continuous bubbling in water seal chamber

b)

Drainage of 100 mL in 1 hour

c)

Slight fluctuation in fluid level

d)

No drainage in 4 hours

71.

What is the major goal of PHC in Nigeria?

a)

Reduce hospital admissions

b)

Promote curative medicine

c)

Achieve health for all

d)

Eliminate traditional practices

72.

  1. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess:

a)

. Level of consciousness

b)

. Pain threshold

c)

. Visual acuity

d)

Spinal reflex

73.

Which healthcare worker plays the most active role in PHC delivery at the grassroots?

a)

Consultant physician

b)

Registered nurse

c)

Community health extension worker

d)

Radiographer

74.

The Alma-Ata declaration of 1978 emphasized:

a)

Expansion of private hospitals

b)

Specialized medicine

c)

Health for all through PHC

d)

Pharmaceutical regulation

75.

. The success of PHC depends primarily on:

a)

Number of doctors

b)

Community ownership and participation

c)

Presence of advanced equipment

d)

Internet access

76.

Which is not an element of PHC?

a)

Family planning

b)

Mental health

c)

Emergency surgery

d)

Immunization

77.

.An outreach program for free malaria testing and treatment is an example of:

a)

Secondary care

b)

Preventive and promotive health

c)

Tertiary care

d)

In-patient service

78.

  1. Which policy guides PHC implementation in Nigeria?

a)

National Surgical Plan

b)

National Health Policy

c)

National Development Plan

d)

Hospital Services Regulations

79.

PHC emphasizes all the following except:

a)

Preventive care

b)

Curative services

c)

Community involvement

d)

Expensive diagnostics

80.

. Which activity helps strengthen PHC in hard-to-reach areas?

a)

Community health outreach teams

b)

Construction of large hospitals

c)

Importation of vaccines

d)

Employment of foreign doctors

81.

Family planning in PHC contributes primarily to:

a)

Women’s empowerment and population control

b)

Reducing cancer rates

c)

Promote marriage

d)

Child labor regulation

82.

Which ethical principle involves telling the truth to a patient?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Fidelity

c)

Veracity

d)

Non-maleficence

83.

A nurse observes a colleague violating infection control practices. What is the nurse’s

best response?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Report to hospital management

c)

Confront publicly

d)

Join the colleague

84.

What is the first step in the nursing process?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Planning

d)

Assessment

85.

When documenting in the nursing notes, which principle must be followed?

a)

Use abbreviations as much as possible

b)

Write in future tense

c)

Be clear, concise, and accurate

d)

Leave space for corrections

86.

Which statement about nursing diagnosis is correct?

a)

It identifies a medical condition

b)

It focuses on patient responses to health issues

c)

It is made by the doctor

d)

It is based only on lab results

87.

What is the key element of nurse-patient communication??

a)

Medical terminology

b)

Sympathy

c)

Active listening

d)

Physical contact

88.

During the evaluation phase, the nurse must:

a)

Ask for more orders

b)

Measure patient’s progress toward goals

c)

Update the medication chart

d)

Perform vital signs

89.

Which nursing action best shows advocacy?

a)

Avoiding communication with the family

b)

Encouraging the patient to stay quiet

c)

Supporting a patient’s decision to refuse treatment

d)

Agreeing with the doctor’s view only

90.

Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Impaired gas exchange related to fluid in lungs

c)

Antibiotic therapy

d)

Fever

91.

. A patient who has just undergone surgery for a fractured leg complains of pain. Which

of the following should be the nurse’s priority action?

a)

. Administering the prescribed pain medication

b)

Offering the patient a blanket for warmth

c)

Providing the patient with reading materials

d)

Encouraging the patient to walk around to relieve pain

92.

A nurse is assisting a patient with a history of diabetes to perform self-injection of

insulin. Which step should the nurse emphasize to ensure proper technique?

a)

Injecting the insulin into a muscle rather than the fatty tissue

b)

Rotating injection sites to avoid tissue damage

c)

Injecting the insulin into the same site every time

d)

Reusing needles to reduce costs

93.

A patient is experiencing difficulty breathing after receiving morphine for pain

management. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Withhold all further doses of morphine

b)

Assess the patient’s respiratory rate and oxygen saturation

c)

Increase the dosage of morphine to relieve pain

d)

Encourage the patient to take deep breaths without intervention

94.

Which of the following foods is a good source of iron?

a)

Banana

b)

Liver

c)

White bread

d)

Milk

95.

. Malnutrition in early childhood can lead to:

a)

Improved immunity

b)

Enhanced learning

c)

Stunted growth and poor brain development

d)

Excessive weight gain

96.

Vitamin D deficiency leads to:

a)

Rickets in children

b)

Night blindness

c)

Scurvy

d)

Beriberi

97.

  1. A nurse educating a community on balanced diet is promoting:

a)

Tertiary prevention

b)

Primary prevention

c)

Emergency intervention

d)

Hospital admissions

98.

The process of adding nutrients to food products is called:

a)

Preservation

b)

Supplementation

c)

Fortification

d)

Extraction

99.

Dietary fiber helps in the prevention of:

a)

Rickets

b)

Constipation

c)

Hypertension

d)

Night blindness

100.

Which group of people require the highest daily calorie intake?

a)

Elderly adults

b)

Infants

c)

Pregnant and lactating women

d)

Sedentary workers

101.

The body temperature is regulated by:

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Brainstem

d)

Cerebellum

102.

The pulse pressure is the difference between:

a)

Diastolic and systolic

b)

. Systolic and diastolic

c)

Mean and average

d)

Basal and peak

103.

The normal respiratory rate for adults is:

a)

10–20 breaths/min

b)

30–40 breaths/min

c)

50–60 breaths/min

d)

5–10 breaths/min

104.

The safest temperature for hot water bath is about.

a)

30°C

b)

40°C

c)

50°C

d)

60°C

105.

Universal precautions are used for ??

a)

Prevent infection transmission

b)

Increase immunity

c)

Diagnose illness

d)

Increase immunity

106.

The correct order of nursing process is:

a)

Assessment → Diagnosis → Planning → Implementation → Evaluation

b)

Planning → Assessment → Diagnosis → Evaluation

c)

Diagnosis → Planning → Evaluation → Assessment

d)

Implementation → Assessment → Planning → Diagnosis

107.

The nutrient most needed after surgery for tissue repair is:

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Vitamin

d)

Fat

108.

The first heart sound “lub” is due to closure of:

a)

. Aortic and pulmonary valves

b)

Mitral and tricuspid valves

c)

Semilunar valves

d)

All valves

109.

The pulse oximeter measures:

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

Heart rhythm

d)

Blood pressure

110.

The drug “Furosemide” is classified as:

a)

Diuretic

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Antihypertensive

d)

Analgesic

111.

The most effective way to prevent infection is :

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Hand washing

c)

Using mask

d)

Isolating patient

112.

The first link in the chain of infection is:

a)

Reservoir

b)

Infectious agent

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Portal of exit

113.

The best site for checking pulse in emergency is:

a)

Radial

b)

Carotid

c)

Brachial

d)

Temporal

114.

The normal range of adult pulse rate is:

a)

40–60 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

100–120 bpm

d)

120–150 bpm

115.

Drugs that relieve anxiety are known as ??

a)

Analgesics

b)

Antidepressants

c)

Anxiolytics

d)

Diuretics

116.

The main purpose of a loading dose is:

a)

To achieve therapeutic level quickly

b)

To maintain steady state

c)

To reduce toxicity

d)

To stop reaction

117.

The abbreviation “PRN” means:

a)

After meals

b)

When necessary

c)

Every hour

d)

Before meals

118.

Tetracyclines should not be given to:

a)

Pregnant women and children

b)

Adults

c)

Men only

d)

Elderly only

119.

Insulin is administered by:

a)

Oral

b)

Subcutaneous injection

c)

IV bolus

d)

Inhalation

120.

A patient on warfarin should avoid excessive intake of:

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin D

121.

The antidote for morphine poisoning is:

a)

Naloxone

b)

Atropine

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Diazepam

122.

A common side effect of diuretics is:

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Constipation

123.

Digoxin is used in:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Heart failure

124.

Antibiotics are used to treat:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Parasitic infection

125.

An example of an analgesic drug is:

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Furosemide

d)

Diazepam

126.

The “five rights” of drug administration include:

a)

. Right patient, drug, dose, route, time

b)

. Right doctor, nurse, patient, drug, time

c)

. Right hospital, room, route, patient, chart

d)

. Right equipment, patient, drug, label, bed

127.

The term “contraindication” means:

a)

Reason to use a drug

b)

Reason to avoid a drug

c)

Overdose

d)

Drug abuse

128.

The route of drug administration that provides fastest action is:

a)

Oral

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Subcutaneous

129.

The study of drugs and their effects on the body is:

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Physiology

c)

Microbiology

d)

Pathology

130.

The main site of nutrient absorption is:

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Esophagus

131.

Goiter is caused by deficiency of:

a)

Iron

b)

Iodine

c)

Calcium

d)

Zinc

132.

The best source of complete protein is:

a)

Rice

b)

Beans

c)

Egg

d)

Cassava

133.

Which nutrient provides insulation and energy storage?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Vitamin

134.

The disease caused by lack of thiamine (B1) is

a)

Pellagra

b)

Beriberi

c)

Kwashiorkor

d)

Scurvy

135.

Night blindness results from deficiency of:

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin C

136.

The deficiency of iron results in:

a)

Anemia

b)

Goiter

c)

Rickets

d)

Marasmus

137.

Protein is essential for :

a)

Energy

b)

Tissue growth and repair

c)

Fluid balance only

d)

Digestion

138.

The main source of energy in food is:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Vitamins

c)

Protein

d)

Fat

139.

The nursing diagnosis identifies:

a)

Medical problem

b)

Patient response to health condition

c)

Physician order

d)

Disease name

140.

In delegation, the nurse should:

a)

. Transfer responsibility completely

b)

Assign tasks within scope

c)

untrained staff to do complex tasks

d)

Ignore supervision

141.

The nurse’s primary duty is to:

a)

Assist doctors

b)

Promote and restore health

c)

Perform surgeries

d)

Dispense drugs

142.

Which of the following is a principle of asepsis?

a)

Wash hands before and after procedure

b)

B. Use gloves only in surgery

c)

Blow on wounds

d)

Reuse needles

143.

The nurse–patient relationship is based on:

a)

Sympathy

b)

Empathy and trust

c)

Friendship

d)

Superiority

144.

The nursing process begins with:

a)

Planning

b)

Assessment

c)

Diagnosis

d)

Evaluation

145.

Examples of preventive services include:

a)

Surgery

b)

Immunization

c)

Laboratory test

d)

X-ray

146.

The immediate danger in fracture of femur is:

a)

Pain

b)

Shock from blood loss

c)

Deformity

d)

Infection

147.

The term “cyanosis” means:

a)

discoloration of skin due to low oxygen

b)

Pale color

c)

Yellow skin

d)

Red skin

148.

The commonest cause of urinary tract infection is:

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Streptococcus

d)

E. coli

149.

The first aid for epistaxis (nosebleed) includes:

a)

Tilting the head backward

b)

Tilting the head forward

c)

Packing the ears

d)

Lying flat

150.

. A patient with COPD should be positioned:

a)

Flat

b)

Supine

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Fowler’s position

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