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ARSIWA Responsibility of States — Worksheet Extraction

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

ARSIWA Article 7 covers acts of State organs that:

a)

Act within their holiday schedule

b)

Act in excess of authority or contrary to instructions

c)

Are always supervised by foreign governments

d)

Act only in private schools

2.

ARSIWA Article 20 says an act is not wrongful if:

a)

The State refuses cooperation

b)

Another State gives valid consent

c)

Citizens demand so

d)

It happens during sports events

3.

Under ARSIWA Article 23, an act is not wrongful when it is due to:

a)

A routine office error

b)

A political protest

c)

Force majeure

d)

A planned government decision

4.

ARSIWA Article 31 requires a responsible State to provide:

a)

Free cultural programmes

b)

Full reparation

c)

New national holidays

d)

International awards

5.

Wrongful acts of foreign organs placed at a State’s disposal are:

a)

Fiction

b)

Entertainment

c)

Sports rules

d)

Attributed to receiving State

6.

Private entities exercising public power are:

a)

Ignored

b)

Not regulated

c)

Always legal

d)

Attributed to the State

7.

Officials acting beyond authority:

a)

Still bind the State

b)

Are always forgiven

c)

Create no responsibility

d)

Lose nationality

8.

If a group acts under State control, its acts are:

a)

Attributed to the State

b)

Ignored

c)

Treated as jokes

d)

Always lawful

9.

A State can be responsible for failing to:

a)

Play music

b)

Collect art

c)

Grow trees

d)

Prevent harm

10.

A breach occurs when conduct:

a)

Violates an obligation

b)

Helps development

c)

Creates sports

d)

Increases taxes

11.

A treaty must be in force to claim:

a)

Breach

b)

Victory

c)

Birth

d)

Holiday

12.

Continuing breaches last:

a)

Over time

b)

One second

c)

Only on holidays

d)

Only in elections

13.

Composite acts are:

a)

Series of wrongful acts

b)

Dance steps

c)

Weekly holidays

d)

School exams

14.

Helping another State commit a wrongful act is called:

a)

Aid or assistance

b)

Relaxation

c)

Charity

d)

Picnic

15.

Forcing another State to act wrongly is:

a)

Coercion

b)

Aid or assistance

c)

Authorization

d)

Celebration

16.

Consent makes an act:

a)

Lawful

b)

Always harmful

c)

Unknown

d)

Secret

17.

Self-defence must be:

a)

Necessary and proportionate

b)

Unlimited

c)

Secretive

d)

For entertainment

18.

Force majeure means:

a)

Uncontrollable event

b)

A movie

c)

A festival

d)

A prize

19.

Distress applies when an agent acts to:

a)

Save lives

b)

Win elections

c)

Make money

d)

Create sports

20.

Necessity protects acts taken to save:

a)

Essential interests

b)

Parties

c)

Fashion

d)

Music

21.

Calvo Doctrine limits:

a)

Diplomatic protection

b)

Sports rights

c)

Marriage rules

d)

Film production

22.

Calvo Clause requires investors to use:

a)

Local remedies

b)

Space law

c)

Weather reports

d)

Foreign armies

23.

Acquisition of territory by agreement is:

a)

Cession

b)

Music

c)

Birth

d)

Voting

24.

Occupation applies to:

a)

Terra nullius

b)

Oceans only

c)

Movies

d)

Songs

25.

Prescription requires:

a)

Peaceful and continuous possession

b)

One-day control

c)

Political campaign

d)

Film shooting

26.

Territory gained by natural events is:

a)

Accretion

b)

Drama

c)

Music

d)

Magic

27.

Conquest today is:

a)

Illegal

b)

Celebrated

c)

Rewarded

d)

Encouraged

28.

Territory can be lost by:

a)

Secession

b)

Singing

c)

Exams

d)

Farming

29.

Rivers changing course may cause loss of:

a)

Territory

b)

Music

c)

Fashion

d)

Weather

30.

A State becomes responsible when:

a)

It violates an obligation

b)

It decorates buildings

c)

It celebrates a holiday

d)

It imports toys

31.

Shooting down a civilian aircraft violates:

a)

Aviation law

b)

Art law

c)

Film rules

d)

Marriage law

32.

Illegal dumping of waste into the ocean violates:

a)

Law of the Sea

b)

Fashion rules

c)

Cinema rules

d)

Tourism laws

33.

International law restricts:

a)

Threat or use of force

b)

Cultural festivals

c)

Elections

d)

Music programmes

34.

Intervention must respect:

a)

UN Charter provisions

b)

Individual preferences

c)

Linguistic rules

d)

Tourism norms

35.

Right to public property includes:

a)

Natural resources in transferred territory

b)

Personal cars

c)

Foreign private estates

d)

Jewellery

36.

State sovereignty ensures:

a)

No foreign interference

b)

Open borders for all

c)

Universal control over seas

d)

Global police power

37.

Negative theory treats succession as:

a)

New sovereignty without obligations

b)

Total treaty transfer

c)

Cultural continuity

d)

Automatic debt continuity

38.

International disputes must be resolved:

a)

Peacefully

b)

With threats

c)

Through force only

d)

Without negotiations

39.

Public debt may transfer if:

a)

Connected to transferred territory

b)

Citizens oppose

c)

Media demands

d)

Cultural events occur

40.

Collective intervention seeks to maintain:

a)

International peace and security

b)

Local entertainment

c)

Sports growth

d)

Festivals

41.

Duties from state succession include:

a)

Honouring territorial boundaries

b)

Removing landmarks

c)

Canceling citizenship

d)

Ending treaties

42.

Use of disproportionate force is:

a)

Prohibited

b)

Encouraged

c)

Optional

d)

Required

43.

Intervention must not be:

a)

Dictatorial

b)

Based on consent

c)

Approved by UN

44.

Successor State must honour:

a)

Acquired rights of individuals

b)

Only new laws

c)

Only cultural traditions

d)

No previous rights

45.

Universal succession involves:

a)

Full transfer of rights and obligations

b)

Symbolic transfer

c)

No treaty transfer

d)

Transfer of posters only

46.

Non-intervention principle protects:

a)

Political independence of States

b)

Music programmes

c)

Private ceremonies

d)

Sports events

47.

One lawful ground of intervention is:

a)

Self-defence

b)

Economic gain

c)

Religious expansion

d)

Cultural growth

48.

If intervention continues beyond consent:

a)

It becomes unlawful

b)

It stays legal forever

c)

Consent becomes automatic

d)

It turns into a treaty

49.

UN Charter generally prohibits:

a)

Threat or use of force

b)

Diplomatic functions

c)

Peace talks

d)

Treaties

50.

Humanitarian intervention aims to prevent:

a)

Genocide and mass atrocities

b)

Sports failures

c)

Cultural loss

d)

Economic decline

51.

Intervention to protect citizens abroad is:

a)

Recognized but controversial

b)

Purely internal

c)

Always illegal

d)

Only economic

52.

Uti Possidetis Juris ensures:

a)

Boundaries remain unchanged

b)

All borders are redrawn

c)

Cultural laws continue

d)

Personal laws freeze

53.

Clean Slate theory applies mostly to:

a)

Newly independent States

b)

Old empires

c)

Corporations

d)

Municipal bodies

54.

Continuity theory treats successor as:

a)

Same legal personality

b)

No legal entity

c)

Temporary caretaker

d)

Private group

55.

Public archives are needed for:

a)

Administrative functioning

b)

Cinema

c)

Tourism

d)

Fashion

56.

Succession to membership in organisations depends on:

a)

Negotiations or continuity

b)

TV programs

c)

Sports events

d)

Celebrities

57.

Intervention must not influence:

a)

Internal affairs of a State

b)

Local art

c)

Local trade

58.

Article 2(4) protects:

a)

Territorial integrity

b)

Private houses

c)

Internal finance

d)

Business permits

59.

Self-defence requires:

a)

Immediate necessity

b)

Unlimited force

c)

Political benefits

d)

Long-term planning

60.

Intervention by invitation is valid only if:

a)

Consent is genuine

b)

Regime change is done

c)

Troops take full control

d)

UN objects

61.

Proportionality prohibits:

a)

Excessive civilian harm

b)

Diplomatic talks

c)

Humanitarian aid

d)

Negotiation

62.

IHL applies:

a)

Even when force is lawful

b)

Only in peace

c)

Never

d)

Only for rebels

63.

Territorial sovereignty prohibits:

a)

Unauthorized entry

b)

Tourism

c)

Diplomacy

d)

Trade

64.

Innocent passage applies to:

a)

International straits

b)

Roads

c)

Homes

d)

Mountain paths

65.

Successor State decides nationality of:

a)

People in transferred territory

b)

Tourists

c)

Diplomats

d)

Athletes

66.

Treaties usually continue in:

a)

Separation of States

b)

Festivals

c)

Cultural reforms

d)

Domestic disputes

67.

Force cannot be used for:

a)

Dictating political system

b)

Defence

c)

Peacekeeping

d)

Collective security

68.

R2P limits action to:

a)

UN approval

b)

Citizens’ request

c)

Political rallies

d)

Trade fairs

69.

Successor State must safeguard:

a)

Private contractual rights

b)

Sport rights

c)

Music rights

d)

Ceremonies

70.

International law restricts use of force for:

a)

Selfish interests

b)

Defence

c)

UN missions

d)

Peace

71.

Succession affects:

a)

Citizenship determination

b)

Fashion

c)

Song rights

72.

Intervention is generally illegal unless:

a)

Grounds are recognized

b)

It helps culture

c)

Media agrees

d)

Traders request

73.

External intervention relates to:

a)

Foreign affairs

b)

Personal disputes

c)

School rules

d)

Local shops

74.

Indirect intervention uses:

a)

Economic or political pressure

b)

Music

c)

Art

d)

Sports

75.

Non-forcible intervention involves:

a)

Coercive pressure without force

b)

Strike

c)

River use

d)

Drama

76.

Intervention violates which principle?

a)

Sovereign equality

b)

Art culture

c)

Tourism

d)

Business

77.

Supporting rebels in another country is:

a)

Prohibited intervention

b)

Encouraged

c)

Cultural

d)

Neutral

78.

Humanitarian intervention requires:

a)

UN approval

b)

Embassy consent

c)

Sports permit

d)

Cultural ticket

79.

Illegal intervention includes:

a)

Supporting separatist movements

b)

Peacekeeping

c)

Arbitration

d)

Humanitarian diplomacy

80.

Economic coercion used to dictate policy is:

a)

Illegal intervention

b)

Cultural exchange

c)

Sporting event

d)

Neutral action

81.

A State may intervene lawfully to:

a)

Protect nationals in immediate danger

b)

Change elections

c)

Expand territory

d)

Promote business

82.

Under ARSIWA Article 5, conduct of entities empowered to exercise governmental authority is:

a)

Never attributed to the State

b)

Attributed to the State

c)

Attributed only during war

d)

Attributed only if the UN agrees

83.

The ICJ was established by:

a)

Treaty of Versailles

b)

UN Charter 1945

c)

League Mandate

d)

Paris Agreement

84.

The ICJ replaced which body?

a)

International Criminal Court

b)

Permanent Court of International Justice

c)

European Court of Justice

d)

PCA

85.

The seat of the ICJ is located in:

a)

Geneva

b)

New York

c)

The Hague

86.

The official languages of the ICJ are:

a)

English and Spanish

b)

English and French

c)

Arabic and English

d)

French and Spanish

87.

Number of judges in the ICJ:

a)

10

b)

12

c)

15

d)

20

88.

Term of ICJ judges:

a)

3 years

b)

5 years

c)

9 years

d)

15 years

89.

One-third of ICJ judges retire every:

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

4 years

d)

5 years

90.

Article 34 of the ICJ Statute provides that:

a)

Individuals can file cases

b)

NGOs can file cases

c)

Only States may be parties

d)

Only UN can file cases

91.

Article 38 of ICJ deals with:

a)

Jurisdiction

b)

Enforcement

c)

Sources of International Law

d)

Functions of judges

92.

Article 41 of ICJ empowers the Court to:

a)

Remove judges

b)

Issue interim measures

c)

Appoint arbitrators

d)

Punish States

93.

Article 59 of ICJ states that decisions:

a)

Are binding on all States

b)

Are precedents for all courts

c)

Bind only parties to the dispute

d)

Bind UN Security Council

94.

Article 62 of ICJ allows:

a)

Appeal

b)

Intervention by non-parties

c)

Criminal trials

d)

Diplomatic protests

95.

Indian judge currently serving at ICJ:

a)

Dalveer Bhandari

b)

Nagendra Singh

c)

R.S. Pathak

d)

B.R. Rau

96.

The ICJ cannot:

a)

Give advisory opinions

b)

Hear cases between States

c)

Try individuals for crimes

d)

Interpret treaties

97.

Persons hors de combat are:

a)

Civilians on vacation

b)

Combatants taking direct part

c)

Persons who are out of the fight

d)

Diplomats on duty

98.

International Humanitarian Law is also known as:

a)

Maritime law

b)

Law of war

c)

Space law

d)

Treaty law

99.

Henry Dunant wrote:

a)

Spirit of Laws

b)

A Memory of Solferino

c)

Hague Convention Rules

100.

The book A Memory of Solferino led to:

a)

WTO formation

b)

Geneva Conventions

c)

UNCLOS

d)

Vienna Convention

101.

Francis Lieber wrote:

a)

Geneva Conventions

b)

Rome Statute

c)

Lieber Code

d)

Additional Protocol I

102.

The Hague Law primarily regulates:

a)

Peace conferences

b)

Means and methods of warfare

c)

International trade disputes

d)

UN elections

103.

The ICRC was established in:

a)

1907

b)

1863

c)

1945

d)

1919

104.

ICRC headquarters is located in:

a)

London

b)

Geneva

c)

Paris

d)

New York

105.

ICRC is:

a)

A political body

b)

A neutral humanitarian organisation

c)

A military alliance

d)

A UN Security Council organ

106.

The principle of distinction requires:

a)

Equal treatment of soldiers and civilians

b)

Targeting only military objectives

c)

Using maximum firepower

d)

Destroying civilian property

107.

The principle of proportionality prohibits:

a)

Use of any weapons

b)

Civilian harm excessive to military advantage

c)

All military attacks

d)

Negotiations

108.

The principle of necessity permits:

a)

Unlimited force

b)

Only force required to defeat the enemy

c)

Chemical weapons

d)

Targeting civilians

109.

The principle of humane treatment is found in:

a)

Additional Protocol II

b)

Geneva Convention IV, Article 27

c)

UN Charter

d)

Rome Statute

110.

A person who surrenders:

a)

Can be lawfully killed

b)

Must be protected

c)

Remains a combatant

d)

Becomes a civilian

111.

Wounded and sick must be:

a)

Isolated

b)

Abandoned

c)

Collected and cared for

d)

Interrogated first

112.

International armed conflict (IAC) covers:

a)

Only internal disputes

b)

Conflicts between two or more States

c)

Terrorist acts only

d)

Cultural movements

113.

Number of Geneva Conventions:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

114.

Geneva Convention I deals with:

a)

Prisoners of war

b)

Civilians

c)

Wounded and sick soldiers on land

d)

Naval warfare

115.

Geneva Convention II protects:

a)

Shipwrecked military personnel at sea

b)

Civilians in occupied territory

c)

Diplomats

d)

Journalists

116.

Geneva Convention III relates to:

a)

Cultural heritage

b)

Prisoners of war

c)

Medical facilities

d)

Chemical weapons

117.

Geneva Convention IV protects:

a)

Combatants

b)

Mercenaries

c)

Civilian persons

d)

Naval fleets

118.

Additional Protocol I (1977) deals with:

a)

Non-international conflicts

b)

International armed conflicts

c)

Maritime piracy

d)

Nuclear disarmament

119.

Additional Protocol II (1977) governs:

a)

Sea warfare

b)

Non-international armed conflicts

c)

Mercenary activity

d)

UN peacekeeping

120.

Additional Protocol III introduced:

a)

Geneva Gas Protocol

b)

New civilian rights

c)

The Red Crystal emblem

d)

New POW rules

121.

The main object of IHL is:

a)

Promote trade

b)

Regulate political systems

c)

Protect persons not taking part in hostilities

d)

Increase military power

122.

The ICJ has no:

a)

Compulsory jurisdiction

b)

Advisory power

c)

Judicial authority

d)

Legal personality

123.

ICJ judges are elected by:

a)

UNGA alone

b)

UNSC alone

c)

General Assembly and Security Council

d)

ICC

124.

The ICJ President’s tenure is:

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

9 years

125.

PCA stands for:

a)

Permanent Council of Arbitration

b)

Partial Court of Arbitration

c)

Permanent Court of Arbitration

d)

Public Commission of Arbitration

126.

The compulsory jurisdiction clause is:

a)

Article 22

b)

Article 36(2)

c)

Article 12

d)

Article 46

127.

Forum Prorogatum refers to:

a)

Automatic consent

b)

Implied consent to jurisdiction

c)

Refusal of jurisdiction

128.

The Corfu Channel case involved:

a)

Use of nuclear weapons

b)

Consent to jurisdiction

c)

Territorial dispute

d)

Maritime rescue

129.

Advisory jurisdiction of ICJ is used:

a)

By corporations

b)

By NGOs

c)

By UN organs and agencies

d)

By individuals

130.

Negotiation is classified under:

a)

Judicial means

b)

Coercive means

c)

Extra-judicial peaceful means

d)

Military means

131.

Mediation requires:

a)

A neutral third party giving suggestions

b)

Binding decisions

c)

Court enforcement

d)

Military supervision

132.

Good offices means:

a)

Active involvement

b)

Fact-finding

c)

Bringing disputing parties together

d)

Issuing a binding award

133.

Conciliation involves:

a)

A binding decision

b)

A non-binding report

c)

Secret negotiations

d)

Military observers

134.

Inquiry focuses on:

a)

Sanctions

b)

Fact-finding

c)

Military action

d)

Boundary change

135.

Arbitration leads to:

a)

A binding award

b)

A non-binding recommendation

c)

Advisory opinion

d)

Political resolution

136.

International arbitration developed significantly after:

a)

The Paris Convention

b)

The Alabama Claims

c)

The Rome Statute

d)

The Hague Protocol

137.

Jay Treaty of 1794 contributed to:

a)

Early international arbitration

b)

UN creation

c)

NATO formation

d)

Maritime law

138.

Reprisals can be used only:

a)

As first resort

b)

After illegal conduct by another State

c)

With UNSC consent

d)

During peace meetings

139.

Embargo means:

a)

Blocking airports

b)

Detaining ships

c)

Restricting tourists

d)

Halting elections

140.

Pacific blockade is lawful when:

a)

Done unilaterally

b)

Done collectively under UN

c)

Used for trade

d)

Used by rebels

141.

Retortion is based on:

a)

Human rights

b)

Reciprocity

c)

Military force

142.

Ad hoc jurisdiction means:

a)

Based on prior treaty

b)

Based on special agreement

c)

Based on UNSC pressure

d)

Based on automatic consent

143.

In Advisory jurisdiction, ICJ can give opinions to:

a)

Private parties

b)

States only

c)

UN bodies

d)

NGOs

144.

The Manila Declaration (1982) emphasizes:

a)

Use of force first

b)

Peaceful settlement of disputes

c)

Economic sanctions

d)

Military intervention

145.

Security Council peaceful settlement powers are under:

a)

Article 2(4)

b)

Chapter VI

c)

Chapter VIII

d)

Article 36

146.

  UN General Assembly may make recommendations under:

a)

Article 10 and 14

b)

Article 2(7)

c)

Article 51

d)

Article 103

147.

ICJ cannot suo moto take cases because:

a)

It lacks judges

b)

It is not a criminal court

c)

It is based on State consent

d)

It works only for UN

148.

ICJ cannot review

a)

Arbitration awards

b)

National court decisions

c)

Treaties

d)

UN resolutions

149.

Good offices differ from mediation because:

a)

Mediator participates actively

b)

Good offices issues binding decisions

c)

Mediation lacks a third party

d)

Good offices is judicial

150.

Legal disputes under ICJ require

a)

Consent of States

b)

NGO petitions

c)

Police reports

d)

Environmental clearance

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