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F23 Earth Science Course Quiz

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 3hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are _?_.

a)

mass and distance

b)

mass and matter

c)

distance and weight

d)

weight and mass

2.

A person would weigh more on Jupiter than on the Earth because _?_.

a)

Jupiter has more mass, and therefore more gravity

b)

Jupiter has less mass, and therefore more gravity

c)

Jupiter has more mass, and therefore less gravity

d)

Jupiter has less mass and therefore less gravity

3.

Where is our solar system located in the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

Right in the exact center

b)

On the outside edge, near the rim

c)

About 2/3rds of the way from the center

d)

About half way out from the center

4.

What is the shape of the Milky Way galaxy?

a)

Linear

b)

Elliptical

c)

Spiral

d)

Irregular

5.

Which of the following objects is the biggest?

a)

Solar system

b)

Universe

c)

Galaxy

d)

Star

6.

What is Hubble's Law?

a)

The farther away a galaxy is from us, the faster it moves away from us.

b)

The farther away a galaxy is from us, the slower it moves away from us.

c)

The closer a galaxy is to us, the faster it moves away from us.

d)

The more red light we observe from another galaxy, the closer we are to that galaxy

7.

If an object is making noise and moving quickly towards us, we will observe:

a)

the pitch of the noise will be higher than if the object wasn't moving

b)

the pitch of the noise will be lower than if the object wasn't moving

c)

the volume of the noise will be louder than if the object wasn't moving

d)

the volume of the noise will be softer than if the object wasn't moving

8.

When objects move towards you, the wavelength....

a)

Increases (gets longer)

b)

Decreases (gets shorter)

9.

The top spectra is the laboratory spectra and is not moving. What type of shift is shown with the bottom spectra and is the object moving towards or away from the observer?

a)

Red Shift

Towards

b)

Red Shift

Away

c)

Blue Shift

Towards

d)

Blue Shift

Away

10.

You are the observer looking at the jet. As the Jet takes off, what is happening to the wavelength of sound and the pitch of the sound?

a)

Longer wavelength and getting less loud

b)

Longer wavelength and getting louder

c)

Shorter wavelength and getting less loud

d)

Longer wavelength and getting louder

11.

When objects move towards the observer, what color shift is happening?

a)

Red Shift

b)

Blue Shift

12.
In nuclear fusion, smaller atoms are forced together to create larger atoms. Does this process release, absorb or maintain energy?
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Maintain energy
c)
Release energy
13.

When hydrogen is "fused" together on the Sun, what new element is created?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Light

14.
All low/medium mass stars will eventually 
a)
explode into a supernova
b)
become a black hole
c)
change into a white dwarf 
d)
become a neutron star
15.
What are the two major elements found in the universe?
a)
gold, silver
b)
hydrogen, helium 
c)
silver, copper
d)
uranium, carbon
16.
What stage do stars, no matter their size, spend most of their time?
a)
stellar nebula 
b)
main sequence
c)
red giant
d)
white dwarf
17.
In the diagram given, what happens as we move to the left?
a)
Stars Get Larger
b)
Stars get Colder
c)
Stars get hotter
18.
As a whole, Giants are considered hotter than White Dwarfs.
a)
True
b)
False
19.

How old is the Solar system?

a)

4.6 Billion years old

b)

4.6 million years old

c)

460 million years old

d)

46 million years old

20.
The factors that contribute to Mercury’s daily temperature fluctuation of about 600°C are the planet’s slow rotation and
a)
its close proximity to the sun.
b)
its dense atmosphere.
c)
its heavy, rocky, waterless terrain.
21.

What happens if a planet is too hot?

a)

The water will be nice and warm

b)

The water will boil away

c)

The water will be too cold

d)

The water will freeze and make ice

22.

What does most every living thing need to survive?

a)

Steam

b)

Ice

c)

Plasma

d)

Liquid water

23.

What happens to the period of orbit as distance from the star increases?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

24.

If planet A has an eccentricity of 0.001, planet B has an eccentricity of .04, and planet C has an eccentricity of .1, which planet has the most elliptical orbit?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

25.
Which diagram shows a planet with the least eccentric orbit?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
26.

Where is the planet moving faster?

a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
27.

Which statement best describes Kepler’s 2nd Law of Planetary Motion?​

a)

Planets revolve around the sun over equal areas in equal time intervals.

b)

Planetary orbits are in the shape of an ellipse.

c)

A planet’s orbital period is proportionate to its distance from the sun.

28.

Kepler’s first law states that

a)

the sun is the center of the solar system.

b)

planets orbit the sun in elliptical orbits, with the sun located at one focus.

c)

planets orbit the sun in circular orbits, with the sun located at the center.

d)

gravity provides the force that holds the planets in orbit about the sun.

29.
Which period are we currently in?
a)
Quaternary
b)
Holocene
c)
Jurassic
d)
Tertiary
30.

What are fossils that are abundant, easily recognizable, short lived, and widespread called?

a)

Preserved fossils

b)

Index fossils

c)

Imprints

d)

Radioactive dating

31.

Which fossil would make the best index fossil?

a)

Beetle

b)

Flower

c)

Frog

d)

Fish

32.

Saying you are older than your sister is an example of _______.

a)

absolute age

b)

relative age

33.

What era did trilobites, fishes, and other marine organisms dominate?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

34.

Which Era occurred last (most recent)?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

35.

Which of the following is tue?

a)

A fault is younger than the rock layers that it goes through.

b)

A fault is older than the rock layers that it goes through.

c)

The rock layers are younger than the fault that cuts through it.

36.

Which layer is OLDER? Intrusion M or Layer D?

a)

Intrusion M

b)

Layer D

37.
The rock formation labeled "P" is a(n)...
a)
fault
b)
intrusion
c)
inclusion
d)
unconformity
38.

The diagram shows fossils and rock features...

Which is younger than the clam fossil?

a)

Layer Z

b)

Broadleaf

c)

Reptile bone

d)

Intrusion X

39.
The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its...
a)
era
b)
age
c)
half-life
d)
eon
40.
What is the half-life of iodine-131?
a)
32 days
b)
8 days
c)
16 days
d)
24 days
41.
A bone was that originally had 10 grams of Carbon 14 now has about 1.25 grams.  How many YEARS have passed? (not half lives)
a)
3
b)
5730
c)
6000
d)
17,200
42.

How do scientists classify different minerals?

a)


scientist identify the elements that compose the mineral

b)

scientists look at the number of molecules in the mineral sample


c)

scientists classify minerals based on their age

d)

scientists can identify the type of minerals based in its specific gravity

43.

All minerals are ___, which means they have definite shape and volume. They cannot be liquids or gases.

a)

definite chemical composition

b)

color

c)

luster

d)

solid

44.

Metamorphic rocks are formed from

a)

heat and pressure

b)

melted rock

c)

sediment cementing together

d)

minerals dissolving

45.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
46.

Limestone is an example of...

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

47.

Marble is an example of...

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

48.

Obsidian is an example of...

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

49.

The best answer for section "A" in the diagram

a)

metamorphic/melting

b)

compaction/cementation

c)

weathering/erosion

d)

heat/pressure

50.

The best answer for section "B"

a)

metamorphic/melting

b)

compaction/cementation

c)

weathering/erosion

d)

heat/pressure

51.
What type of rock are fossils often found in?
a)
igneous
b)
metamorphic
c)
sedimentary
d)
magma
52.
Scientists think that convection currents that move the plates flow in Earth's
a)
Continental crust
b)
oceanic crust
c)
Asthenosphere
d)
Lithosphere
53.
Identify layer  #20.
a)
mantle
b)
pizza crust
c)
inner core
d)
outer core
54.

Which layer exists as a collection of tectonic plates?

a)

asthenosphere

b)

mantle

c)

lithosphere

d)

outer core

55.

Which describes the difference between continental and oceanic crust chemical composition?

a)

continental crust has more SiO2 so it sinks

b)

continental crust has more Fe so it floats

c)

oceanic crust has more SiO2 so it floats

d)

oceanic crust has more Fe so it sinks

56.

Which of the following represents physical layers of Earth?

a)

core, mantle, crust

b)

core, mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust

c)

inner core, outer core, mesosphere, asthenosphere, lithosphere

d)

inner core, outer core, mantle, oceanic crust, continental crust

57.

The Appalachian Mountains in the U.S. match up with a similar mountain ranges in northern Europe. How does this support Wegener's theory of Continental Drift?

a)

The mountains were formed after tectonic plates had moved away from each other

b)

The similarities provide evidence North America & Europe were connected when the mountains formed.

c)

Similar rock samples were found on the ocean floor and at the two mountain ranges indicating that they both formed around the same time.

d)

This evidence does not support the theory of continental drift.

58.

According to the continental drift hypothesis, the presence of similar fossils in South America and Africa supports which scientific idea?

a)

Animals easily and frequently travel from Africa to South America.

b)

Species of animals probably traveled between continents on natural rafts (such as trees destroyed in tsunamis).

c)

Land bridges once existed that connected the continents.

d)

South America and Africa were once connected together.

59.

The composition of Earth's interior affects

a)

how long an earthquake will last

b)

the speed and direction of seismic waves

c)

the location of an earthquake's focus

60.
When two tectonic plates slide past each other, neither crashing together, nor pulling apart, the boundary between them is called...
a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Convergent boundary
c)
Transform boundary
d)
Subduction
61.

When convergent plates collide, if both plates are pushed upward, this forms.

a)

Fissures

b)

Mountain Ranges

c)

Volcanoes

d)

Rock Cycle

62.

What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

b)

Mountain

c)

Rift Valley

d)

Island Arc

63.

What would you be most likely to find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?

a)

Mountains

b)

Rift

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

d)

Island Arc

64.

Molten mixture of rock-forming substances, gases and water from the mantle

a)

magma

b)

lava

c)

Volcano

d)

hot spot

65.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa occurs on land at this plate boundary.
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
66.
When an oceanic plate is subducted under a continental plate, a deep valley is formed in the ocean. What is this valley called? 
a)
a trench
b)
a rift zone
c)
ocean spreading ridge
d)
Continental crust
67.
Which of the following supports the theory of seafloor spreading?
a)
Correlation of rock layers
b)
Crustal Age
c)
Magnetic Reversal
d)
Continuous Mountain Chains
68.
What causes the crust to move?
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
tension
d)
radiation
69.
When looking at mid ocean ridges the oldest rocks are 
a)
In the middle
b)
Found close to the rift zone
c)
Found far from the mid ocean ridges
70.

What is label D

a)

Trench

b)

Mid ocean ridge

c)

abyssal plain

d)

sea mount

71.
Oceanic crust is made of____________________.
a)
granite that is very dense
b)
basalt that is less dense than continental crust
c)
basalt and is denser than continental crust
d)
andesite not very dense
72.

An area where a plume of magma melts through the crust in the middle of a tectonic plate is called:

a)

Subduction

b)

Hot Spot

c)

Island Arc

73.
Hotspots are found ___.
a)
at divergent boundaries
b)
at convergent boundaries
c)
at transform boundaries
d)
within a plate (intraplate)
74.

The oxidation of minerals that contain iron.

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

75.

The repeated freezing and thawing of water that cracks a rock.

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

76.

Rocks that have been carried by rivers and streams and have become more smaller and rounded.

a)

Physical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

77.
What type of weathering is it when acid rain breaks down and changes the rock.
a)
chemical weathering 
b)
physical or mechanical weathering
c)
erosion
d)
Deposition
78.
Which of the following is the most important agent of chemical weathering to form this cave?
a)
Water - It can carry acid and dissolve rock
b)
Erosion - Moves the rocks from one place to another
c)
Wind - It displaces rocks
d)
Exfoliation - New cracks give chemical reactions the chance to operate
79.
The process by which water, ice, wind or gravity moves weathered rock and soil from one place to another.
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
d)
dumptruck
80.

Limestone dissolves in the presence of acid rain

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

81.

Abrasion is physical weathering by:

a)

ice

b)

repeated contact

c)

oxidation

d)

reaction to acid

82.

Which rock samples have undergone abrasion in water for the longest period of time?

a)
b)
c)
d)
83.

oxygen + iron = rust

a)

physical weathering: abrasion

b)

chemical weathering: reaction with acid

c)

chemical weathering: oxidation

d)

physical weathering: frost wedging

84.

The photograph shows a valley created by a glacier. The result of this glacial action will be a

a)

U-shaped valley with well-sorted, rounded sediment

b)

U-shaped valley with scratched and grooved bedrock

c)

V-shaped valley with scratched and grooved bedrock

d)

V-shaped valley with well-sorted, rounded sediment

85.

The diagram below shows a glacial landscape feature forming over time from a melting block of ice. This glacial landscape feature is best identified as

a)

a kettle lake

b)

an outwash plain

c)

a finger lake

d)

a moraine

86.

The cross section below represents the transport of sediments by a glacier. At which location is deposition most likely the dominant process?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

What is this depositional feature called?

a)

Tombolo

b)

Spit

c)

Sand Dune

d)

Sand Bar

88.

This is

a)

Longshore Drift

b)

Nearshore currents

c)

Attrition

d)

Undertow

89.

What is the structure in the photo?

a)

groin

b)

seawall

c)

breakwater

d)

inlet

90.

What is illustrated in this aerial photo?

a)

seawall

b)

breakwater

c)

groin

d)

jetty

91.

Wave energy drops sand out in the ocean and forms a sand bar. Continued deposition causes the sandbar to rise out of the ocean and forms

a)

spits

b)

jetties

c)

barrier islands

d)

longshore currents

92.

A barrier built out into a body of water to protect a coast or harbor from the force of wind, waves, tides and currents

a)

spit

b)

groin

c)

seawall

d)

breakwater

93.
Which container has the lowest porosity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
94.
Poorly sorted soil...
a)
has low porosity
b)
has high porosity
c)
has high pore space
d)
means water will move through quickly
95.
The measure of how easily water can flow through an aquifer. 
a)
porosity
b)
permeability
c)
gradient
d)
divide
96.

Which sample is MOST permeable?

a)

round

b)

flat

c)

oval

97.

Select the graph that shows the relationship between porosity and permeability.

a)
b)
c)
d)
98.
Which would be classified as "loam"?
a)
Sand: 40, Silt: 40, Clay: 20
b)
Sand: 60, Silt: 10, Clay: 30
c)
Sand: 20, Silt: 50, Clay: 30
d)
Sand: 50, Silt: 10, Clay: 40
99.

Which of the statements gives an accurate description of the proportions of the soil a X?

Sand: 12% Silt: 9% Clay: 79%

a)

Sand: 16% Silt: 30% Clay: 40%

b)

Sand: 12% Silt: 9% Clay: 79%

c)

Sand: 32% Silt: 48% Clay: 29%

d)

Sand: 22% Silt: 18% Clay: 50%

100.

Clay, silt, and sand are added to a jar of water. The jar is shaken and then allowed to stand quietly for a number of hours. The result of this demonstration could be best used as a model to show that

a)

A) particles with the lowest density settle the fastest

b)

B) particles with the largest size/diameter settle the fastest

c)

C) water is denser than clay, silt, and sand

d)

D) the bottom layer of a series of sediments is the youngest

101.

Which graph best represents the relationship between the slope of a river and the particle size that can be transported by that river?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

102.
Which of the following statements is not true?
a)
Water causes more erosion on slopes without plants
b)
Water flows from higher to lower ground
c)
Faster water erodes more sediment
d)
As water slows, smaller particles are deposited first
103.

What is runoff?

a)

The process of sediment moving or being weathered away by wind or water.

b)

Water that moves over Earth's surface, because it doesn't infiltrate the ground.

c)

Water moving from the liquid state to the gaseous state.

d)

Observations described in words or letters.

104.

Liquid to Gas

a)

melting

b)

vaporization

c)

condensation

d)

sublimation

105.

What is the phase change from gas to liquid?

a)

condensation

b)

vaporization

c)

melting

d)

freezing

106.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
107.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
108.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
109.
The tightness across the surface of water that enables paper clips to float is ____________.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
surface tension
d)
polarity
110.
When a molecule has an opposite electrical charge on each end, it is known as what?
a)
cohesion
b)
polar molecule
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
solution
111.

The fact that water can stick to other substances is called:

a)

Ph

b)

Adhesion

c)

Cohesion

d)

Insulation

112.

Which will heat up faster?

a)

copper

b)

granite

c)

iron

d)

basalt

113.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

114.
What would be the effect on the particles if more heat is supplied to the system?
a)
They would slow down
b)
They would stop moving
c)
They would speed up
d)
There would be no effect
115.
Object A has a specific heat of 4.45 J/g⁰C and object B has a specific heat of 1.82 J/g⁰C. Which object will heat up faster?
a)
Object A, it has a lower spefici heat
b)
Object B, it has a lower specific heat
c)
Object A, it has a higher specific heat
d)
Object B, it has a higher specific heat
116.

What are the accepted units for specific heat capacity?

a)

J/g * C

b)

J/g

c)

g/J * C

d)

J

117.
Deep Ocean currents are a result of
a)
Global Wind Patterns
b)
Earth's Rotation
c)
Density
d)
All of the above
118.

Which type of water is MOST dense?

a)

fresh

b)

salt

119.

If the plant population decreased, the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere would _________.

a)

Stay the same

b)

Increase

c)

Decrease

120.

Check all the ways that carbon dioxide is REMOVED from the atmosphere.

a)

Respiration

b)

Combustion

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Diffusion

e)

Decomposition

121.
Increase in which gas is primarily responsible for increased global warming?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Water vapor
c)
Methane
d)
Nitric oxides
122.
What absorbs ultraviolet rays in the atmosphere?
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
ozone layer
d)
greenhouse gases
123.
The gas that is most abundant in the atmosphere is
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
argon
124.

How is the greenhouse effect produced?

a)

When solar energy trespasses the atmosphere.

b)

When some energy is reflected back to earth.

c)

When the green house is burned.

d)

When the sun doesn't emit radiation.

125.
Which of the following have been linked to climate change?  
a)
droughts
b)
flooding
c)
melting of polar ice caps
d)
all of the above
126.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
127.
Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps....
a)
will result in cooler temperatures in the Arctic
b)
will result in sea-levels rising
c)
Will have no effect on ecosystems
d)
None of the above
128.
The second layer of the atmosphere up from Earth, where the ozone layer is that protects us from harmful UV rays, is the
a)
thermosphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
129.
When placed in direct sunlight, which object will absorb the most radiated heat energy?
a)
A white sweater
b)
A snowball
c)
Aluminum foil
d)
A black sweater
130.
What method of heat transfer uses direct contact? 
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
131.
What method of heat transfer uses fluids?
a)
Radiation
b)
Conduction
c)
Convection
132.
a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

133.
What is the definition of CONVECTION
a)
When heat transfers through waves.
b)
When heat transfers from objects that are touching.
c)
a  hot liquid or air that  expands, becomes less dense, and rises or becomes more dense, and sinks.
d)
Heat traveling from the sun
134.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer. 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
Insolation 

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9th - 12th Grade

Unit 4 Review (Ocean Chemistry and Movement)

134 questions

Unit 4 Review (Ocean Chemistry and Movement)

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade

Botany Semester 2 Final Review

130 questions

Botany Semester 2 Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

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7th - 12th Grade

Space Explorations

132 questions

Space Explorations

quiz

Worksheet

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6th - 9th Grade

Physical Science - Motion

130 questions

Physical Science - Motion

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 11th Grade

Unit 2 Review Quiz

133 questions

Unit 2 Review Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

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9th Grade - University

U2 Spring Final Review Adv. Bio

137 questions

U2 Spring Final Review Adv. Bio

quiz

Worksheet

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9th Grade

Environmental Science Semester 1 Final

129 questions

Environmental Science Semester 1 Final

quiz

Worksheet

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9th - 12th Grade