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Ecology Part 1

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which method is a common way ecologists study organisms and their interactions?

a)

Field observations over defined time periods

b)

Random guessing about animal behavior

c)

Astrology-based seasonal predictions

d)

Coin flips to choose sample locations

2.

Which list correctly orders scales of ecology from smallest to largest?

a)

Organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

Biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, organism

c)

Population, organism, ecosystem, community, biosphere

d)

Community, biosphere, organism, ecosystem, population

3.

A student labels sunlight, temperature, and water as biotic factors in a forest. What revision improves accuracy?

a)

Relabel them as abiotic environmental factors

b)

Keep sunlight and temperature as biotic factors

c)

Relabel only water as a biotic component

d)

Remove all factors because they are not ecological

4.

Which statement best defines ecology?

a)

The study of organism interactions with surroundings

b)

The study of internal cell chemical reactions

c)

The classification of species by shared traits

d)

The measurement of population sizes over time

5.

An organism’s survival in any habitat depends mainly on what combination?

a)

Nonliving factors and other organisms nearby

b)

Genetic engineering and artificial selection

c)

Seasonal weather forecasts and maps

d)

Laboratory testing and medical treatments

6.

Which scenario best illustrates an ecological interaction between organisms and nonliving factors?

a)

Cacti storing water during prolonged droughts

b)

Birds learning songs through social practice

c)

Humans inventing new farming machinery

d)

Chemists balancing equations in laboratories

7.

Why do humans need healthy ecological systems?

a)

They provide clean water and fertile soil for food

b)

They guarantee unlimited fossil fuels for energy

c)

They remove the need for economic planning entirely

d)

They eliminate diseases through instant cures

8.

A town plans to expand farms into a wetland that filters local drinking water. Using ecological reasoning, what is the most important question to investigate before building?

a)

How will wetland loss affect water quality and food security

b)

Can farmers purchase larger tractors this summer

c)

Will the town’s logo need a redesign after expansion

d)

How many tourists will visit new farm stores yearly

9.

Which level of ecological organization refers to a single living thing, such as one zebra on a savanna?

a)

Organism

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

10.

A herd of bison living together in the same valley at the same time best represents which level?

a)

Population

b)

Community

c)

Biome

d)

Biosphere

11.

Which statement best defines a biological community?

a)

Groups of different populations interacting

b)

A group of ecosystems with similar climate

c)

All living things on the entire Earth

d)

One species in a defined geographic area

12.

An ecosystem includes which components?

a)

All organisms plus nonliving environment

b)

Only organisms of the same species

c)

Only living organisms interacting

d)

A group of similar climate regions

13.

Which option lists the levels from smallest to largest correctly?

a)

Organism, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere

b)

Population, organism, ecosystem, biome, community, biosphere

c)

Organism, community, population, biome, ecosystem, biosphere

d)

Population, community, organism, biosphere, biome, ecosystem

14.

Which level groups multiple ecosystems that share similar climate and communities?

a)

Biome

b)

Community

c)

Population

d)

Organism

15.

A scientist studies how nutrient cycles and sunlight affect fish, coral, and algae together. Which level is the focus of this study?

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Biome

16.

Two nearby coral reefs share the same climate and have similar communities of species. Together, these reefs are best classified as what?

a)

Part of the same biome

b)

A single population

c)

The global biosphere

d)

A single community

17.

Why might ecologists use computer models when studying the biosphere?

a)

Direct experiments at global scale are impractical

b)

Models always give perfect predictions

c)

Field observations are never useful

d)

Communities do not include interactions

18.

Which statement best defines a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a)

Nonliving conditions like temperature and rainfall

b)

Living components such as plants and animals

c)

Chemical properties of water and soil

d)

Physical features like sunlight and wind

19.

Which item is an abiotic factor affecting organisms in a pond?

a)

Algae competing for sunlight

b)

Predatory fish hunting minnows

c)

Water temperature during seasons

d)

Decomposers recycling nutrients

20.

Which scenario describes a limiting factor for a deer population in a forest?

a)

An increase in daylight hours each summer

b)

A shortage of winter food resources

c)

More fawns born during spring

d)

Stronger social behavior in herds

21.

Biotic and abiotic factors are described as dynamic. What does this imply for ecosystems?

a)

They remain fixed and predictable over years

b)

They constantly change and influence each other

c)

They operate separately without interaction

d)

They only matter during extreme events

22.

Some plants release nutrients back into soil. Which interaction is illustrated?

a)

Abiotic changing biotic through climate shifts

b)

Biotic influencing abiotic by altering soil

c)

Limiting factors increasing reproduction rates

d)

Adaptations decreasing environmental resistance

23.

A fish species thrives where water is cool, shaded, and oxygen‑rich. Which idea best explains this distribution?

a)

Biotic factors are always more important than abiotic

b)

Limiting abiotic conditions determine where it survives

c)

Organisms adapt environments to fit their genetics

d)

Dynamic factors eliminate all competition

24.

Which statement best describes the purpose of modeling global systems?

a)

To list Earth’s parts without connections

b)

To show systems, processes, and interactions

c)

To predict weather for tomorrow only

d)

To replace all field observations forever

25.

Which global system includes all life on Earth and where it is found?

a)

Geosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Biosphere

d)

Atmosphere

26.

Which component is part of the geosphere?

a)

Ocean currents and tides

b)

Earth’s crust, mantle, and core

c)

All gases surrounding Earth

d)

All organisms and ecosystems

27.

A cloud forms from water vapor high above the surface. Which two global systems interact most directly in this event?

a)

Hydrosphere and Atmosphere

b)

Biosphere and Geosphere

c)

Geosphere and Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere and Hydrosphere

28.

The infographic highlights causes of global change. Which option lists a likely pair of causes shown in such diagrams?

a)

Plate tectonics and volcanic activity

b)

Alphabet order and color schemes

c)

Astrology signs and constellations

d)

Season names and holiday dates

29.

Models help explain how the Earth system works. Which example shows a process model might include?

a)

Carbon cycling among spheres

b)

Random events without links

c)

A list of planet names only

d)

Unrelated facts about music

30.

Which statement best matches the hydrosphere as defined for global systems?

a)

Includes all gases around Earth

b)

Consists of all water in all states

c)

Composed of rocks in Earth’s interior

d)

Contains all living organisms worldwide

31.

A wildfire releases smoke that changes air composition, which then affects plant health. Which sequence of interactions is demonstrated?

a)

Geosphere to Hydrosphere to Atmosphere

b)

Biosphere to Atmosphere to Biosphere

c)

Atmosphere to Geosphere to Hydrosphere

d)

Hydrosphere to Biosphere to Geosphere

32.

Which statement best defines a food chain?

a)

A series of organisms each dependent on the one before it

b)

A network of cycles where elements move between reservoirs

c)

A classification of species by shared anatomical traits

d)

A pathway showing nutrient recycling through decomposers

33.

What is a food web?

a)

A single linear pathway of energy through organisms

b)

A group of interconnected food chains in an ecosystem

c)

A ranking of organisms by population abundance

d)

A diagram showing only predator behaviors over time

34.

What does trophic level describe?

a)

The position of an organism in the food chain

b)

The speed of energy transfer between organisms

c)

The number of offspring produced each season

d)

The mass of biomass lost at each transfer

35.

Which statement illustrates the Law of Conservation of Mass in an ecosystem investigation?

a)

Matter is neither created nor destroyed during decomposition

b)

Energy increases as it moves to higher trophic levels

c)

Heat created by organisms disappears without a trace

d)

Producers create new atoms during photosynthesis

36.

A student claims energy disappears when transferred from producers to consumers. Which principle helps correct this claim?

a)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or converted

b)

Mass increases as energy flows to higher trophic levels

c)

Energy is created by consumers during cellular respiration

d)

Energy is destroyed when converted from light to heat

37.

Which statement best defines weather for a location?

a)

Average year-to-year conditions over many decades

b)

Day-to-day atmospheric conditions like temperature and rain

c)

Typical seasonal patterns averaged across regions

d)

Long-term ocean conditions that affect continents

38.

Which characteristic is most associated with climate rather than weather?

a)

Rapidly changing hour-by-hour temperatures

b)

Average precipitation over many years

c)

Sudden thunderstorms in the afternoon

d)

Morning fog developing this week

39.

A farmer wants to choose a crop that can grow reliably each year. Which factor should guide the decision most?

a)

Yesterday’s high temperature and wind speed

b)

Tomorrow’s forecast for rain and sun

c)

Average temperature and rainfall over decades

d)

Cloud cover patterns during one holiday weekend

40.

Which comparison correctly contrasts weather and climate?

a)

Weather is more predictable; climate changes every hour

b)

Climate is long-term averages; weather is daily conditions

c)

Weather is regional averages; climate is local snapshots

d)

Climate affects nothing; weather shapes ecosystems

41.

Short-term changes in weather and long-term changes in climate can both influence which outcome mentioned in the lesson?

a)

Whether food crops succeed or fail

b)

The shape of mountain ranges

c)

The tilt of Earth’s axis

d)

The length of day and night

42.

Which statement best describes the greenhouse effect shown in the diagram with arrows near Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

Solar energy is fully reflected back into outer space

b)

Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit some outgoing heat

c)

The Sun creates wind by pushing air across oceans

d)

Earth’s core releases energy that warms the atmosphere

43.

Which gases are primarily responsible for trapping heat in the atmosphere as illustrated?

a)

Nitrogen and oxygen mainly control heat trapping

b)

Carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor do

c)

Neon and argon mostly absorb solar energy

d)

Ozone and helium dominate greenhouse warming

44.

Why do areas near the equator receive more direct solar energy than polar regions, as shown on the tilted globe?

a)

Earth is closer to the Sun only at the equator

b)

Earth’s curvature spreads sunlight over larger polar areas

c)

Clouds block more radiation only at the poles

d)

The Moon reflects extra sunlight toward the tropics

45.

Which process best explains the creation of global wind patterns according to the slides?

a)

Equal heating creates uniform air pressure everywhere

b)

Unequal heating and Earth’s rotation drive air movement

c)

Volcanic eruptions push air into large circulating cells

d)

The oceans pull air toward continents by evaporation

46.

In the greenhouse diagram, what happens to some of the outgoing infrared radiation from Earth’s surface?

a)

It is entirely absorbed by the ocean surface

b)

It bounces off clouds and disappears forever

c)

It escapes to space without any interaction

d)

It is absorbed and re-emitted by greenhouse gases

47.

Warm air rises and cool air sinks. What is the immediate result of this pattern for atmospheric circulation between equator and poles?

a)

Convection cells form that move heat poleward

b)

Air becomes motionless over tropical oceans

c)

Only local breezes occur with no global impact

d)

Polar air permanently warms and stops sinking

48.

A city at 60° N reports persistent westerly surface winds. Using the global wind concepts shown, what is the most likely cause?

a)

Coriolis deflection within the prevailing westerlies

b)

Trade winds blowing eastward in polar regions

c)

Land breezes replacing sea breezes each night

d)

Jet streams reversing due to seasonal monsoons

49.

If atmospheric CO2 increases, which change best predicts its effect on Earth’s energy balance as depicted?

a)

More incoming sunlight is produced by the Sun

b)

Less infrared is absorbed by greenhouse gases

c)

More outgoing heat is retained in the atmosphere

d)

Stronger winds immediately remove excess heat

50.

Which set lists three main factors that shape ocean currents?

a)

Solar flares, plate subduction, soil erosion

b)

Warming and cooling patterns, winds, continent locations

c)

River discharge, tides only, beach slope

d)

Cloud cover, humidity alone, monsoon rains

51.

A surface current flowing from the tropics toward a temperate coast most likely causes which local effect?

a)

Cooling effect with frequent sea fog

b)

Warming effect on nearby land

c)

No effect on regional climate

d)

Strong decrease in wind speeds

52.

Cold surface water is pushed away from a continent by winds. What process allows deeper water to rise?

a)

Upwelling of subsurface water

b)

Sublimation of seawater

c)

Condensation within waves

d)

Evaporation from the surface

53.

Which statement best distinguishes surface currents from deep ocean currents?

a)

Surface currents are wind-driven; deep currents are density-driven

b)

Surface currents move slower; deep currents always faster

c)

Surface currents flow east; deep currents flow west

d)

Surface currents are permanent; deep currents temporary

54.

Which non-human factor can change climate by reducing sunlight reaching Earth for several years?

a)

Increased urban development

b)

Volcanic activity injecting aerosols

c)

Agricultural land clearing

d)

Industrial sulfate emissions

55.

Variations in Earth’s orbit, tilt, and spin mainly influence climate by affecting which quantity?

a)

Salinity of deep water masses

b)

Amount and distribution of solar energy

c)

Speed of tectonic plate motion

d)

Frequency of tropical cyclones

56.

Mountain building can alter regional climate primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Blocking winds and creating rain shadows

b)

Increasing ocean salinity everywhere

c)

Reversing global wind belts instantly

d)

Eliminating surface ocean currents

57.

Which statement best describes a glacial period in Earth's history?

a)

A time when ice sheets expanded widely

b)

A time when deserts covered most continents

c)

A time when volcanoes erupted continuously

d)

A time when sea levels rose dramatically

58.

Scientists link several mass extinctions to rapid climate change. What is the most direct biological reason many species died out during these events?

a)

Populations could not adapt quickly enough

b)

Continents drifted apart too rapidly

c)

Food webs always became more diverse

d)

Earth received less sunlight every day

59.

Chapter 4 begins with ecosystems. Which scenario best illustrates how rapid climate change could disrupt an ecosystem?

a)

Sudden cooling shifts habitats faster than species migrate

b)

Seasonal cycles repeat with identical timing each year

c)

Genetic variation increases slowly over many centuries

d)

A single storm briefly knocks down a few old trees

60.

Which statement best describes primary producers in an ecosystem?

a)

Organisms that make food using nonliving energy sources

b)

Animals that hunt prey to gain chemical energy

c)

Decomposers that recycle nutrients into the soil

d)

Predators that regulate herbivore population sizes

61.

Which pathway explains how most consumers obtain energy and nutrients?

a)

They eat other organisms to acquire stored energy

b)

They absorb sunlight directly like green plants

c)

They create sugars from water alone without light

d)

They take in carbon dioxide to produce proteins

62.

A new lake ecosystem is being studied. To identify the primary producers there, which organisms should scientists focus on first?

a)

Algae that perform photosynthesis near the surface

b)

Fish that consume small invertebrates at depth

c)

Crayfish that scavenge on decaying plant matter

d)

Bacteria that digest animal waste in sediments

63.

Which statement best defines an autotroph?

a)

Organism that makes its own food

b)

Organism that eats other organisms

c)

Organism that decomposes dead matter

d)

Organism that migrates for nutrients

64.

In the photosynthesis diagram, which input provides the energy to drive sugar production?

a)

Light from the sun

b)

Oxygen from air

c)

Sugar from soil

d)

Minerals from water

65.

Photoautotrophs use which energy source to produce food?

a)

Sunlight energy

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Nuclear energy

66.

Chemoautotrophs primarily obtain energy by using what?

a)

Chemical compounds

b)

Sunlight photons

c)

Organic sugars

d)

Animal tissues

67.

Which equation portion in the photosynthesis diagram represents products?

a)

C6H12O6 and O2

b)

CO2 and H2O

c)

Light and chlorophyll

d)

Minerals and soil

68.

Hydrothermal vent microbes shown in the chemosynthesis graphic most likely use energy from which source?

a)

Chemical reactions with H2S

b)

Direct sunlight at depth

c)

Decomposing plant roots

d)

Atmospheric nitrogen gas

69.

Which pair correctly matches term and synonym from the notes?

a)

Autotroph — primary producer

b)

Heterotroph — photoautotroph

c)

Consumer — autotroph

d)

Producer — heterotroph

70.

A scientist discovers bacteria at a cold seep forming sugars without sunlight. What classification fits best?

a)

Chemoautotrophs producing sugars

b)

Photoautotrophs storing light

c)

Heterotrophs consuming algae

d)

Decomposers releasing oxygen

71.

Which statement distinguishes heterotrophs from autotrophs in these slides?

a)

Heterotrophs obtain energy by consuming others

b)

Heterotrophs create sugars from carbon dioxide

c)

Heterotrophs fix carbon using sunlight

d)

Heterotrophs release energy from minerals

72.

Which term best describes an organism that must consume other organisms for energy?

a)

Producer that makes its own food

b)

Heterotroph that eats other organisms

c)

Autotroph using sunlight for sugars

d)

Photosynthesizer making glucose alone

73.

Which category includes animals that primarily eat other animals?

a)

Carnivores that hunt animal prey

b)

Herbivores feeding on grasses

c)

Omnivores eating mixed diets

d)

Detritivores consuming detritus

74.

Which statement defines a detritivore most accurately?

a)

Consumer that eats living plant leaves

b)

Organism that chemically digests remains

c)

Consumer that eats carcasses only

d)

Organism that ingests detritus particles

75.

A decomposer’s primary role is to

a)

Ingest dead matter as particles

b)

Chemically break down organic matter

c)

Hunt and kill living prey animals

d)

Graze on fresh plant tissues

76.

Which example shows classification challenges within heterotrophs?

a)

Bees collecting floral nectar only

b)

Hyenas scavenging yet also carnivores

c)

Cows chewing cud for cellulose

d)

Earthworms burrowing through soil

77.

Which pair is matched correctly with its typical food source?

a)

Herbivore — decaying leaf litter

b)

Omnivore — algae exclusively

c)

Scavenger — already dead animals

d)

Detritivore — living animal tissues

78.

A coastal cleanup finds sea cucumbers feeding on organic debris on the seafloor. How should they be classified?

a)

Carnivores that hunt fish actively

b)

Herbivores grazing on seagrass

c)

Detritivores consuming detritus

d)

Scavengers stripping large carcasses

79.

Two birds eat similar foods: one hunts small lizards, the other eats fruits and insects. Which labels fit best?

a)

Both birds are carnivores only

b)

First omnivore, second carnivore

c)

First carnivore, second omnivore

d)

Both birds are detritivores

80.

Which statement about categories of heterotrophs is most accurate?

a)

All organisms in a category feed the same way

b)

Some organisms fit multiple feeding categories

c)

Classification never changes with context

d)

Scavengers always chemically digest tissue

81.

Which statement best describes a food chain?

a)

A sequence showing energy passing by feeding

b)

A map of habitats connected by migration

c)

A chart of water cycles through evaporation

d)

A record of seasonal changes in temperature

82.

In many ocean ecosystems, which organism group typically starts the food chain?

a)

Phytoplankton as tiny floating algae

b)

Zooplankton as small drifting animals

c)

Sea grass as rooted marine plants

d)

Krill as shrimp-like crustaceans

83.

Hyenas both scavenge and hunt. What does this example show about classifying heterotrophs?

a)

Some organisms fit multiple feeding roles

b)

All consumers obtain energy identically

c)

Carnivores never scavenge for resources

d)

Scavengers cannot act as predators

84.

Ecological pyramids are used in studying ecosystems. What is their main purpose regarding trophic levels?

a)

To analyze patterns of energy transfer

b)

To display migration routes of species

c)

To predict daily weather conditions

d)

To map geological rock formations

85.

In the diagram showing grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → eagle, which organism is the primary consumer?

a)

Grasshopper

b)

Frog

c)

Snake

d)

Eagle

86.

Which term best describes grass in a food chain that begins with sunlight and water supporting plant growth?

a)

Producer

b)

Primary consumer

c)

Secondary consumer

d)

Tertiary consumer

87.

In a typical food chain, energy transfer primarily moves in which direction?

a)

Producer to consumers

b)

Decomposers to producers

c)

Consumers to sunlight

d)

Tertiary to secondary

88.

In the sequence grass → grasshopper → frog, what trophic level is the frog occupying?

a)

Secondary consumer

b)

Producer

c)

Primary consumer

d)

Decomposer

89.

A snake that eats a frog which ate a grasshopper would most accurately be called what?

a)

Tertiary consumer

b)

Primary consumer

c)

Producer organism

d)

Detritivore species

90.

Look at the Arctic marine food web with phytoplankton, zooplankton, krill, fish, birds, fox, and gulls. Which statement best explains why food webs are more stable than single food chains?

a)

Multiple feeding paths provide alternatives

b)

Energy cycles endlessly without loss

c)

Producers depend on carnivores for sugar

d)

Each predator eats only one prey always

91.

In the food web, which organism pair most reasonably represents a producer and its direct consumer?

a)

Phytoplankton and zooplankton

b)

Krill and phytoplankton

c)

Fox and kittiwake

d)

Gull and salmon

92.

Decomposers and detritivores play what essential role in ecosystems shown by the diagrams?

a)

Recycle nutrients back to soil

b)

Create energy from nothing

c)

Feed only on top predators

d)

Increase sunlight for plants

93.

In an energy pyramid, which trophic level contains the greatest total energy?

a)

Producers at the base

b)

Primary consumers above

c)

Secondary consumers mid

d)

Tertiary consumers top

94.

About what percentage of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next in most ecosystems?

a)

About 10 percent

b)

About 25 percent

c)

About 50 percent

d)

About 90 percent

95.

Which pyramid directly compares the total dry mass of organisms at each trophic level?

a)

Pyramid of biomass

b)

Pyramid of energy

c)

Pyramid of numbers

d)

Pyramid of habitat

96.

A food web diagram shows many arrows among organisms. What do the arrows most directly represent?

a)

Direction of energy flow

b)

Population size changes

c)

Animal movement paths

d)

Seasonal migration routes

97.

If producers capture 50,000 units of energy, about how much energy is available to primary consumers?

a)

About 5,000 units

b)

About 15,000 units

c)

About 25,000 units

d)

About 45,000 units

98.

Food chains are usually limited to four or five trophic levels. What is the best explanation for this limit?

a)

Energy decreases at each level

b)

Predators avoid long chains

c)

Decomposers stop transfers

d)

Producers become carnivores

99.

Which statement best distinguishes a pyramid of numbers from a pyramid of energy?

a)

Counts individuals at levels

b)

Measures heat lost upward

c)

Tracks kilojoules per level

d)

Shows percent transfer only

100.

Which pair best represents abiotic factors used to describe a biome?

a)

Temperature and rainfall patterns

b)

Predator and prey populations

c)

Decomposer and producer roles

d)

Migration and hibernation timing

101.

What two characteristics are typically the main descriptors of a biome?

a)

Climate and vegetation

b)

Altitude and salinity

c)

Latitude and soil pH

d)

Wind speed and turbidity

102.

Different sources may list biomes differently. What is the most reasonable consequence for students comparing two biome maps?

a)

Some regions may be grouped or named differently

b)

All regions will match exactly without exceptions

c)

Only aquatic regions will show any differences

d)

Differences will appear only at national borders

103.

Humans have altered nearly 75% of all land except certain areas. Which area is LEAST likely to be heavily altered?

a)

Very steep mountain slopes

b)

Agricultural river valleys

c)

Coastal metropolitan zones

d)

Temperate grassland plains

104.

A scientist wants to classify an unknown region into a biome. Which approach would most effectively support the classification?

a)

Measure long-term climate and dominant vegetation

b)

Count individual animals during one summer week

c)

Record a single day of cloud cover and wind

d)

List nearby cities and local land ownership

105.

Which biome typically occurs where average temperature is high and precipitation is very high?

a)

Temperate deciduous forest with moderate rainfall

b)

Tropical rainforest with abundant rainfall

c)

Boreal forest with low precipitation

d)

Temperate grassland with seasonal rain

106.

Which pair correctly matches biome to characteristic climate on the temperature–precipitation graph?

a)

Tundra — warm temperatures, heavy rainfall

b)

Boreal forest — cold temperatures, moderate precipitation

c)

Chaparral — very cold, very wet conditions

d)

Desert — cool temperatures, high precipitation

107.

Which terrestrial biome is characterized by lowest annual precipitation across a wide temperature range?

a)

Temperate rainforest with steady moisture

b)

Subtropical desert with minimal rainfall

c)

Tropical seasonal forest with wet seasons

d)

Temperate grassland with moderate rain

108.

Which zone is defined as the sunlit region of the open ocean where photosynthesis occurs?

a)

Open ocean aphotic zone without sunlight

b)

Open ocean photic zone with light penetration

c)

Intertidal zone between tides

d)

Coastal kelp forest near shore

109.

Which location best describes coastal waters listed in aquatic ecosystems?

a)

Area between low tide and continental shelf

b)

Region beyond the continental slope

c)

Deep trench far from any coastline

d)

Pond isolated from saltwater influence

110.

A city lies in a biome with moderate temperatures, four distinct seasons, and trees that lose leaves. Which biome best fits?

a)

Temperate deciduous forest

b)

Tropical dry forest

c)

Boreal forest

d)

Tundra

111.

A river carries freshwater into a semi-enclosed coastal bay, creating brackish water. Which ecosystem is this?

a)

Open ocean photic zone with clear water

b)

Estuary with mixing of fresh and salt

c)

Coral reef on offshore slopes

d)

Freshwater wetland with no salinity

112.

Which statement best defines a habitat in ecology?

a)

Area where an organism lives with biotic and abiotic factors

b)

Role a species performs including its interactions and needs

c)

Group of populations that can interbreed and produce offspring

d)

Microscopic community living on or inside other organisms

113.

What is the ecological niche of a species?

a)

Physical place an organism occupies in a biome

b)

Role or position a species has including all interactions

c)

Random behaviors that individuals show while foraging

d)

Abiotic conditions like temperature and rainfall patterns

114.

Which example best illustrates biotic factors influencing a habitat?

a)

Predators, competitors, and available prey populations

b)

Sunlight intensity and seasonal temperature range

c)

Soil pH levels and dissolved oxygen content

d)

Annual rainfall averages and wind exposure patterns

115.

Microbiomes are best described as what?

a)

Microscopic communities too small for unaided vision

b)

Single bacterial species causing infectious diseases

c)

Invisible abiotic factors like humidity and salinity

d)

Tiny organs inside animals controlling digestion

116.

A class claims competition only affects individuals, not communities. Which reasoning best evaluates this claim?

a)

Incorrect because competition shapes community structure and dynamics

b)

Correct because interactions rarely change population sizes

c)

Incorrect because only abiotic factors determine community size

d)

Correct because niches never overlap between different species

117.

Which term describes an organism’s ability to survive and reproduce under conditions outside its best range?

a)

Tolerance for changing conditions

b)

Resource availability needs

c)

Ecological carrying capacity

d)

Physiological homeostasis level

118.

Which option best defines a resource in ecology?

a)

Any necessity of life needed

b)

Any abundant habitat feature

c)

Any food item consumed

d)

Any abiotic factor only

119.

Two species using the same resource at the same time are most directly engaged in which interaction?

a)

Competition for a resource

b)

Mutualism between partners

c)

Commensalism with neutrality

d)

Parasitism on a host

120.

What does the Competitive Exclusion Principle state?

a)

No two species share exactly the same niche

b)

Predators always limit prey numbers

c)

Plants outcompete animals for space

d)

Mutualists always increase diversity

121.

In predation, how are the interacting organisms affected?

a)

One benefits, one is harmed (+/−)

b)

Both benefit from the interaction (+/+)

c)

One benefits, one unaffected (+/0)

d)

Both are harmed in the interaction (−/−)

122.

Which pairing correctly matches the relationship type with its effect?

a)

Herbivory: animal eats plants (+/−)

b)

Commensalism: both benefit (+/+)

c)

Parasitism: neither affected (0/0)

d)

Mutualism: one harmed (−/+)

123.

A barnacle attaches to a whale to gain transport while the whale is unaffected. Which relationship is shown?

a)

Commensalism with neutrality

b)

Parasitism with a host

c)

Mutualism with benefits

d)

Predation for feeding

124.

Reason about niches: If two bird species feed on identical seeds in the same forest at the same time, what long‑term outcome is most likely without a niche shift?

a)

One species excludes the other

b)

Both increase indefinitely

c)

Both remain unchanged

d)

Both switch to carnivory

125.

A parasite usually does not kill its host. What ecological reason best explains this pattern?

a)

Killing reduces the parasite’s resource

b)

Killing maximizes rapid spread

c)

Hosts benefit from being killed

d)

Death prevents host competition

126.

Which statement best defines a keystone species as shown in the diagram?

a)

A species rare yet strongly shaping community structure

b)

A species common and weakly influencing food chains

c)

A species migratory and unrelated to ecosystem balance

d)

A species domesticated and dependent on human support

127.

In the Elkhorn Slough example, what ecological role do sea otters most likely play?

a)

They regulate prey that damage habitats heavily

b)

They fertilize marsh plants through nutrient deposits

c)

They spread seeds of seagrasses across long distances

d)

They create shelters by digging extensive burrows

128.

What outcome is most likely if a keystone species is removed from its ecosystem?

a)

Community structure shifts and biodiversity declines

b)

Only apex predators increase without any changes

c)

Primary productivity instantly rises in all habitats

d)

Energy flow becomes perfectly efficient everywhere

129.

Which statement correctly defines an invasive species?

a)

A non‑native species introduced that outcompetes locals

b)

A native species declining because of habitat change

c)

A migratory species that seasonally leaves the area

d)

A domesticated species maintained only by humans

130.

A non‑native mussel spreads into a bay and outcompetes local filter feeders. Which consequence is most consistent with this scenario?

a)

Food webs reorganize as native species decline

b)

Ecosystem stability increases without any losses

c)

Keystone predators immediately become more abundant

d)

Nutrient cycles remain unchanged indefinitely

131.

The diagram shows a prairie food web. Which organism in the food web would be classified as a producer?

a)

Deer

b)

Squirrel

c)

Plant Seeds

d)

Field Mouse

132.

Click on the image to make it larger-- Choose all that apply: The hawk gets energy from...

a)

mouse

b)

rabbit

c)

wildflowers

d)

snake

133.

Four organisms are illustrated here.

Which organism can make its own food?

a)

Rabbit

b)

Daisy

c)

Mushroom

d)

Earthworm

134.

Which organisms would be at the top or last trophic level?

a)

plant

b)

herbivore

c)

omnivore

d)

carnivore

135.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
136.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
137.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%