WorksheetsAnatomy & Physiology: Semester 1 Final Review
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 3hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1.) The study of external features such as bony projections that serve as landmarks to locate deeper structures, is:
a)
Systemic anatomy
b)
Regional anatomy
c)
Surface anatomy
d)
Physiology
e)
Anatomic imaging
2.
2.) The study of the body's organization by systems (the approach used in most schools) is:
a)
Systemic anatomy
b)
Regional anatomy
c)
Surface anatomy
d)
Physiology
e)
Anatomic imaging
3.
3.) Which of the following organ systems would be involved in transporting and/or exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) in the body?
a)
Endocrine
b)
Cardiovascular
c)
Respiratory
d)
Urinary (excretory)
4.
4.) The organ system that consists of the skin, hair, and nails, and protects the body and prevents water loss is the:
a)
Skeletal system
b)
Digestive system
c)
Integumentary system
d)
Endocrine system
e)
Lymphatic system
5.
5.) The organ system that maintains tissue fluid balance, absorbs fats, and combats disease is the:
a)
Cardiovascular system
b)
Endocrine system
c)
Lymphatic system
d)
Respiratory system
e)
Urinary (excretory) system
6.
6.) Arrange the structures in the correct order from smallest to largest:
a)
Chemical, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism
b)
Chemical, Organ, Organ System, Cell, Tissue, Organism
c)
Chemical, Organ, Cell, Tissue, Organ System
d)
Chemical, Cell, Tissue, Organism, Organ System, Organ
e)
None of the above
7.
7.) A group of cells with similar structure and function plus the extracellular substances located among them describes
a)
Organelles
b)
Organs
c)
Organisms
d)
Organ systems
e)
Tissues
8.
8.) Which of the following would help maintain homeostasis?
a)
As body temperature rises, sweating occurs.
b)
When a person drinks large quantities of water, kidneys produce more urine.
c)
When a person's pH drops (becomes acidic), weak bases in our blood help neutralize it.
d)
When blood pressure decreases, heart rate increases.
e)
All of the above.
9.
9.) Which of the following statements is true of negative feedback?
a)
Negative feedback is important for maintaining homeostasis in the body.
b)
Negative feedback makes any deviation from a normal value larger.
c)
An example of negative feedback occurs when the uterus contracts during birth.
d)
Negative feedback is a very unusual control mechanism in the human body.
e)
Negative feedback will usually result in illness or other disturbances of normal.
10.
10.) The wrist is _________ to the elbow.
a)
Proximal
b)
Dorsal
c)
Distal
d)
Ventral
e)
Superior
11.
11.) A vertical plane that divide the body into equal right and left halves is a:
a)
Frontal plane
b)
Midsagittal plane
c)
Sagittal plane
d)
Transverse plane
12.
12.) In which of the following cavities would the urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs be found?
a)
Thoracic
b)
Pleural
c)
Pelvic
d)
Abdominal
e)
Pericardial
13.
13.) The mediastinum:
a)
Is found in the pelvic cavity
b)
Contains the lungs, stomach, and liver
c)
Separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity
d)
Contains the esophagus, thymus gland, trachea, major blood vessels, and the pericardial cavity.
e)
None of the above
14.
14.) Increased carbon dioxide in the blood increases respiration (breathing rate). This will temporarily increase oxygen levels in the blood and eventually lower the carbon dioxide level. Which of the following statements would apply to this mechanism?
a)
This is a rare example of a positive feedback system in the body, because increased carbon dioxide increases respiration rate.
b)
This is positive feedback, because an increased respiration rate increases oxygen in the blood.
c)
This is negative feedback because increased respiration rate decreases carbon dioxide in the blood.
d)
This is negative feedback because a deviation from normal is increased.
15.
15.) Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic tissue types?
a)
Gland
b)
Connective
c)
Muscle
d)
Epithelium
e)
Nervous
16.
16.) Epithelial cells:
a)
Cover body surfaces or form glands.
b)
Usually have a free surface which is not in contact with other cells.
c)
Have a basement membrane which attaches to underlying tissue.
d)
Have a rich supply of blood vessels.
e)
The first, second, and third options are all correct.
17.
17.) Epithelial cells that appear cuboidal, or columnar near the basement membrane and become more squamous shaped as you move towards the free surface would be considered:
a)
Simple columnar
b)
Pseudostratified epithelium
c)
Stratified squamous epithelium
d)
Transitional epithelium
e)
Simple squamous epithelium
18.
18.) Epithelial cells that appear cube- or "blob"-like when an organ is relaxed and flattened when the organ is stretched are called:
a)
Simple columnar epithelium
b)
Pseudostratified epithelium
c)
Stratified squamous epithelium
d)
Transitional epithelium
e)
Simple squamous epithelium
19.
19.) Epithelium that consists of a single layer of cells, but appears as though there are several layers due to some that reach the free surface and some that don't is called:
a)
Simple columnar epithelium
b)
Pseudostratified epithelium
c)
Stratified squamous epithelium
d)
Transitional epithelium
e)
Simple squamous epithelium
20.
20.) Which of the following epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function?
a)
Simple squamous epithelium --> absorption/secretion, or providing a slippery surface
b)
Stratified squamous epithelium --> protection from abrasion
c)
Simple cuboidal --> secretion and/or absorption
d)
Transitional --> ability to be stretched
e)
All of the above are correctly paired.
21.
21.) What is the purpose of cilia on epithelial tissue?
a)
Decreases friction
b)
Moves a cell from place to place
c)
Traps dirt/foreign substances
d)
Provides warmth to the underlying cells in the winter time.
e)
All of the above
22.
22.) Exocrine glands:
a)
Have ducts
b)
Secrete hormones
c)
Secrete substances onto a surface or into an organ.
d)
All of the above.
e)
Both the first and third options are correct.
23.
23.) Connective tissue:
a)
Joins together cells and tissues and transports substances.
b)
Provides supporting framework for the body.
c)
Is characterized by large amounts of extracellular matrix.
d)
Provides storage for energy reserves.
e)
All of the above.
24.
24.) Which of the following connective tissue cells is NOT correctly matched with its function?
a)
Fibroblast cells --> maintain connective tissue fibers
b)
Adipocytes --> contain fat droplet, provide cushion/insulation
c)
Mast cells --> release chemicals that inhibit inflammation
d)
Macrophage --> move about and ingest foreign substances
25.
25.) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
a)
Striated
b)
Branching
c)
Found in the heart
d)
Under involuntary control
e)
Many nuclei per cell
26.
26.) Which of the following comparisons between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle is NOT correct?
a)
Smooth muscle cells are tapered at each end; skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical
b)
Smooth muscle cells are under voluntary control; skeletal muscle is involuntary.
c)
Smooth muscle forms the walls of hollow organs; skeletal muscle attaches to the skeleton.
d)
Smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus; skeletal muscle cells have many nuclei.
e)
Smooth muscle cells have not striations; skeletal muscle cells have striations.
27.
27.) The restoration of homeostasis after an injury involves two related processes, which are:
a)
Necrosis and fibrosis
b)
Infection and immunization
c)
Inflammation and regeneration
d)
Isolation and reconstruction
28.
28.) In the second phase of repair following injury (after inflammation), damaged tissues are replaced to restore normal function through the process of:
a)
Cloning
b)
Regeneration
c)
Fibrosis
d)
None of the above
29.
29.) Inflammation is the first evidence of:
a)
Connective tissue fragility
b)
Thinner and less resilient tissue due to injury
c)
Deterioration in membrane function
d)
The tissue repair process
30.
30.) The speed and efficiency of tissue repair decrease with age due to:
a)
Slower rate of energy consumption (metabolism).
b)
Hormonal alterations
c)
Reduced physical activity
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the above
31.
31.) The primary tissue(s) comprising the epidermis are:
a)
Epithelial
b)
Transitional epithelium and connective
c)
Hyaline cartilage and cuboidal epithelium
d)
Areolar and adipose
32.
32.) The hypodermis:
a)
Could be used to help estimate the total amount of body fat
b)
Is an important part of the integumentary system
c)
Is a layer of dense connective tissue
d)
Is a layer between the dermis and epidermis
e)
All of the above
33.
33.) An important function of the hypodermis is to:
a)
Stabilize the position of the skin in relation to underlying tissues
b)
Provide sensation of pain and temperature
c)
Adjust gland secretion rates
d)
Monitor sensory receptors
e)
None of the above
34.
34.) Cleave or tension lines:
a)
Are produced when there are more collagen fibers running in one direction than another
b)
Are lines along which the skin is most resistant to stretch
c)
Should be considered when making an incision in the skin
d)
All of the above
35.
35.) The dermal papillae which make up the papillary layer of the dermis
a)
Help to increase the surface area of the basement membrane of the epidermis
b)
Strengthens the attachment between the epidermis and the dermis
c)
Contain no blood vessels
d)
The first and second option only
e)
All of the above
36.
36.) Fingerprints are produced by projections into the epidermis called
a)
Cleavage lines
b)
Reticular layer
c)
Subcutaneous tissue
d)
Dermal papillae
37.
37.) Stem (basal) cells and melanocytes dominate the stratum basale (stratum germinativum), making it the layer where
a)
New cells are generated and skin colors are synthesized
b)
The protein keratin produces keratinized cells
c)
Dead epithelial cells accumulate in large amounts
d)
The cells are flattened, densely packed, and filled with keratin
38.
38.) The stratum corneum of the epidermis:
a)
Consists of continuously dividing new cells
b)
Can become thickened to form a callus
c)
Has cells that are continuously moving toward the stratum germinativum
d)
All of the above
e)
Both the first and second options are correct
39.
39.) The ultimate determiner of skin and hair color among individuals is due to
a)
Number of melanocytes
b)
Amount of orange-colored vegetables you eat
c)
Levels of melanin synthesis
d)
Ultraviolet light
e)
None of the above
40.
40.) Which of the following would not be a benefit of suturing (stitching) large wounds together?
a)
More rapid healing
b)
Less chance of infection
c)
More wound contracture
d)
Less scar tissue forming
41.
41.) Which of the following statements about glands of the skin is (are) true?
a)
Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance rich in lipids
b)
Sebum is important in cooling the body
c)
Apocrine sweat glands are more numerous than merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands
d)
Merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands produce a thick secretion rich in organic substances
e)
All of the above are correct
42.
42.) Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system that provides physical protection for the body?
a)
Absorption of ultraviolet light by melanin
b)
Resistance to abrasion by sloughing cells from the epidermis
c)
Physical barrier to foreign particles and microorganisms
d)
Allows water loss to primarily get rid of waste products, such as salts
e)
Hair acts as a heat insulator, and prevents entry of foreign particles into the eyes and nose
43.
43.) UV light can have both helpful and detrimental effects on our integument. Which of the following is a helpful contribution of UV light?
a)
It gives us a healthy glow in the summer time
b)
It helps us produce sweat which, in turn, cools our bodies
c)
It helps us produce melanocytes
d)
It helps us synthesize vitamin D
44.
44.) Malignant melanoma
a)
Is the most dangerous type of skin cancer
b)
Usually arises from melanocytes in a pre-existing mole
c)
Rarely spreads
d)
Is the most common type of skin cancer
e)
Both the first and second options are correct
45.
45.) One type of experimental contraceptive device is a skin patch that contains a chemical that can be absorbed through the skin. Knowing that your skin is quite waterproof due to sebum and basic properties of chemistry (i.e. "like dissolves like"), which of the following substances would most likely be the type of chemical involved in the patch?
a)
A protein
b)
A substance dissolved in water
c)
A steroid (lipid or fat soluble)
d)
A water-soluble carbohydrate
46.
46.) When new, viable cells of a different type (usually connective tissue) replace dead cells, this process is called:
a)
Replacement
b)
Regeneration
c)
Reunification
d)
Renumeration
e)
Both the first and second options are correct
47.
47.) Sagging and wrinkling of the integument results from
a)
A decline of basal cell activity in the epidermis
b)
A decrease in the elastic fiber network of the dermis
c)
A decrease in vitamin D production
d)
Deactivation of sweat glands
48.
48.) The function(s) of the skeletal system is/are:
a)
A storage area for calcium and lipids.
b)
Red blood cell formation.
c)
Provides structural support for the entire body.
d)
Serves as protection for various internal organs.
e)
All of the above.
49.
49.) During growth of a long bone, the site of growth in length is the:
a)
Medullary cavity
b)
Marrow
c)
Epiphyseal plate
d)
Endosteum
e)
Periosteum
50.
50.) The outer surface of bone is covered by a connective tissue layer called the:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Periosteum
c)
Endosteum
d)
Epiphysis
e)
Diaphysis
51.
51.) Compact bone consists of cells called osteocytes located within spaces in the matrix called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Haversian canals
c)
Canaliculi
d)
Lacunae
e)
Medullary cavities
52.
52.) In compact bone, a haversian canal, with the lamellae and osteocytes surrounding it are called:
a)
Lacunae
b)
Osteons (haversian systems)
c)
Canaliculi
d)
Cancellous bone
e)
Medullary cavities
53.
53.) The interconnecting rods or plates of bone in spongy bone are called:
a)
Osteocytes
b)
Trabeculae
c)
Haversian canals
d)
Haversian system
e)
Epiphyses
54.
54.) After ______________ (bone forming cells) become completely surrounded by bone matrix, they are called ________________ (mature bone cells).
a)
Osteocytes, osteoblasts
b)
Osteoblasts, osteoclasts
c)
Osteoclasts, osteoblasts
d)
Osteoblasts, osteocytes
e)
Osteocytes, osteoclasts
55.
55.) Which of the following statements about bone growth is NOT correct?
a)
Bone growth can occur by either endochondral ossification or appositional growth.
b)
Appositional growth is responsible for the increase in length of long bones.
c)
There are two types of ossification- intramembranous and endochondral
d)
Ossification occurs when other tissue, such as cartilage is replaced by bone.
e)
All of the above are correct.
56.
56.) Which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is (are) correct?
a)
Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.
b)
As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.
c)
Bone is the major storage site for calcium in the body.
d)
The zone of tissue repair between two bone fragments is called a callus.
e)
Both the 3rd and 4th options are correct.
57.
57.) Which of the following anatomical terms for bone features is NOT correctly matched with its description?
a)
Condyle --> smooth, rounded end of bone where it forms a joint with another bone.
b)
Tubercle or tuberosity --> knob or enlargement
c)
Process --> prominent indentation
d)
Head --> enlarged (often rounded) end
e)
Facet --> small, flattened articular surface
58.
58.) Which of the following bones is NOT a part of the axial skeleton?
a)
Skull
b)
Ribs
c)
Sternum
d)
Clavicle
e)
Hyoid
59.
59.) Which two bones contribute to the pectoral girdle?
a)
Sternum and scapula
b)
Scapula and true ribs
c)
Scapula and thoracic vertebrae
d)
Scapula and clavicle
60.
60.) Parathyroid hormone, one of the hormones required for bone maintenance and repair:
a)
Increases calcium absorption by the intestines
b)
Inhibits osteoclast activity.
c)
Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
d)
Both the 1st and 3rd options are correct
e)
All of the above.
61.
61.) Which of the following sections of the vertebral column curve posteriorly?
a)
Cervical and lumbar
b)
Thoracic and cervical
c)
Thoracic and lumbar
d)
Lumbar and sacral
e)
Thoracic and sacral
62.
62.) Which of the following vertebrae is NOT correctly matched with its (their) identifying characteristics.
a)
Thoracic vertebrae --> contain articular facets for ribs.
b)
Lumbar vertebrae --> contain transverse foramina in transverse processes.
c)
Atlas --> articulates with occipital condyles.
d)
Axis --> allows motion as in shaking head "no".
e)
Sacrum --> has sacral crest and sacral promontory.
63.
63.) The correct arrangement for the following parts of the sternum, from superior to inferior would be:
a)
Body, jugular notch, manubrium, xiphoid process.
b)
Jugular notch, body, manubrium, xiphoid process.
c)
Manubrium, jugular notch, body, xiphoid process.
d)
Jugular notch, manubrium, body, xiphoid process.
e)
Xiphoid process, jugular notch, manubrium, body.
64.
64.) Which of the following statements concerning the upper limbs is true?
a)
The hand is composed of 5 metacarpals.
b)
Each digit is composed of 4 phalanges.
c)
The wrist is composed of 10 carpal bones.
d)
The head of the ulna is closer to the thumb than is the distal end of the radius.
e)
Epicondyles on the radius and ulna provide attachment sites for forearm muscles.
65.
65.) Which of the following statements about synovial joints is (are) correct?
a)
Articular cartilage covers articular surfaces of bones.
b)
Synovial joints contain synovial fluid.
c)
The synovial membrane may extend as a pocket or sac, called a bursa.
d)
The joint cavity is enclosed by a joint capsule.
e)
All of the above statements are correct.
66.
66.) Which of the following is NOT a function of muscle tissue?
a)
Produce movement
b)
Maintain body temperature
c)
Guard entrances and exits
d)
Support soft tissues
e)
All of these are functions of muscle tissue
67.
67.) Connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber or cell is called:
a)
Perimysium
b)
Endomysium
c)
Fascia
d)
Fasciculi
e)
Microfibrils
68.
68.) Muscle myofibrils:
a)
Contain actin and myosin myofilaments
b)
Extend from one end of the muscle fiber to the other
c)
Contain sarcomeres joined end to end
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the above
69.
69.) The basic structural and contractile unit of a muscle cell/fiber is:
a)
The fasciculus
b)
The muscle fiber
c)
The myofibril
d)
The sarcomere
e)
The actin myofilament
70.
70.) Actin myofilaments
a)
Resemble bundles of tiny golf clubs
b)
Are attached to Z lines
c)
Form from the myosin filaments
d)
Form the epimysium
e)
All of the above
71.
71.) Tendons are bundles of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that:
a)
Attach bone to bone
b)
Allow blood vessels and nerves to innervate muscle tissue
c)
Attach muscle to bone
d)
None of the above statements are correct
72.
72.) A single motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it attaches to is called a:
a)
Neuromuscular junction
b)
Synaptic cleft
c)
Motor unit
d)
Synapse
e)
Presynaptic cleft
73.
73.) In a neuromuscular junction
a)
The presynaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with sodium ions.
b)
The presynaptic terminal contains receptor molecules for the neurotransmitter.
c)
The presynaptic terminal is separated from the postsynaptic terminal by the synaptic cleft.
d)
The neurotransmitter causes an action potential in the presynaptic terminal.
e)
All of the above
74.
74.) Calcium ions
a)
Activate the actin myofilaments by binding to troponin
b)
Are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by pumps for future use.
c)
Are released from the golgi body
d)
Provide the energy for muscle contraction
e)
Both the first and second options are correct
75.
75.) The types of muscle fibers that produce powerful contractions but fatigue rapidly are:
a)
Slow twitch fibers
b)
Fast twitch fibers
c)
Pink muscle fibers
d)
Red muscle fibers
e)
None of the above
76.
76.) The condition that occurs post-mortem in which a body stiffens due to no more ATP generation:
a)
The all-or-none response
b)
Tetanus
c)
Recruitment of motor units
d)
Anaerobic respiration/metabolism
e)
Rigor mortis
77.
77.) Which of the following statements about energy requirements for muscle contraction is correct?
a)
ATP synthesis occurs mostly by aerobic respiration/metabolism
b)
Anaerobic respiration/metabolism is a very efficient mechanism for ATP production.
c)
Aerobic exercise is mainly limited by the buildup of lactic acid.
d)
All of the above
78.
78.) Slow-twitch muscle fibers
a)
Contract very quickly, averaging about 0.01 seconds.
b)
Would be used for high endurance activities such as long distance running.
c)
Fatigue more easily than fast-twitch fibers.
d)
All of the above
79.
79.) The type of muscle tissue that lacks myofibrils, sarcomeres, and therefore striations is:
a)
Cardiac muscle
b)
Skeletal muscle
c)
Voluntary muscle tissue
d)
Smooth muscle tissue
80.
80.) The biceps brachii muscle and the triceps brachii muscle
a)
Are synergists
b)
Are antagonists
c)
Are prime movers
d)
All of the above
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