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Worksheets

Electrical

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 2hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
If an atom gains electrons, it becomes a
a)
positively charged ion
b)
negatively charged ion
c)
neutral atom
d)
neutral ion
2.
If the two charges represented in the figure were brought near each other, they would
a)
attract each other
b)
repel each other
c)
cause static discharge
d)
have no effect on each other
3.
Walking across a carpet is an example of charge being transferred by
a)
contact
b)
induction
c)
static electricity
d)
friction
4.
If a neutral metal comb is held near an object with a negative charge, the comb will become chaged by
a)
induction
b)
contant
c)
friction
d)
static discharge
5.
What type of current is produced by a battery?
a)
parallel current
b)
alternating current
c)
direct current
d)
potential current
6.
The type of current in your school is mostly
a)
direct current
b)
alternating current
c)
series current
d)
produced by batteries
7.
Resistance is affected by a material's
a)
thickness
b)
length
c)
temperature
d)
all of the above
8.
The current in a hair dryer measures 15.0 amps. The resistance of the hair dryer is 8 ohms. What is the voltage?
a)
120 V
b)
0.5 V
c)
7 V
d)
1800 V
9.
How many paths through which charge can flow would be shown in a circuit diagram of a series circuit?
a)
one
b)
two or more
c)
none
d)
more information is needed
10.
Most of the circuits in your home are
a)
series circuits
b)
parallel circuits
c)
reversible circuits 
d)
closed circuits
11.
What is the unit of electric power?
a)
ampere
b)
volt
c)
watt
d)
ohm
12.
Information sent as patterns and codes in the controlled flow of electrons through a circuit is a(n)
a)
electronic signal
b)
digital signal 
c)
analog signal
d)
integrated signal
13.
Electronic signals that are smoothly varying signals produced by continuously changing the voltage or current in a circuit are
a)
digital signals
b)
cathode rays
c)
diode signals
d)
analog signals
14.
Which of the following is made from a crystalline solid that conducts a current only under certain circumstances?
a)
vacuum tube
b)
cathode-ray tube
c)
analog device
d)
semiconductor
15.
A solid-state component with three layers of semiconductors is a(n)
a)
transistor
b)
diode
c)
vacuum tube
d)
resistor
16.
A thin slice of silicon that contains many solid state components is a(n)
a)
transistor
b)
integrated circuit
c)
diode
d)
cathode-ray tube
17.

An electrical junction has three wires A, B and C connected to it. Wire A carries 4.2 A going in, wire B carries 2.6 A going out. What does wire C carry?

a)

1.6 A going in

b)

1.6 A going out

c)

6.8 A going in

d)

6.8 A going out

18.

Select the correct statement:

a)

The current in parallel resistors is always equal.

b)

The sum of the sources of EMF and volt-drops in a closed loop is zero.

c)

The sum of the currents in a closed loop is zero.

d)

The sum of the voltages at a node is zero.

19.

Kirchhoff's 2nd Law (Loop Rule) is a consequence of the law of conservation of

a)

Energy

b)

Charge

c)

Momentum

d)

Power

20.

When is the Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive ?

a)

When all the four resistances of the bridge are equal

b)

When the bridge is balanced

c)

When high amount of current is flowing through the bridge

d)

When a very low amount of current is flowing through the bridge

21.

Name the instrument used to measure the emf of a cell

a)

Voltmeter

b)

Ammeter

c)

Potentiometer

d)

Galvanometer

e)

Multimeter

22.

Essential condition for working of potentiometer circuit

a)

Positive terminal cells in the primary circuit and secondary circuit are connected to same point

b)

Emf of cell in the primary circuit has to be greater than that of a cell in the secondary circuit

c)

Connections must be neat and tight

d)

Current flowing through the wire must be constant

23.

What happens to the balancing length if the value of the variable resistance R is increased?

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

no change

d)

can not predict

24.

What can be reason for one sided deflection in a potentiometer experiment?

a)

Emf of a cell in the primary circuit may be less than that in secondary circuit

b)

Cells in the primary and secondary circuit are connected with opposite terminals

c)

connections may be loose

d)

length of the wire may be too long

25.

With K2 closed, if S is increased, how the balancing the length will change?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

no change

d)

may increase or decrease

26.

Potential gradient is .........

a)

V/L

b)

current X resistivity/Area of cross section

c)

inversely proportional to sensitivity

d)

IR

27.

A potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected to a driver cell of emf 3 V as shown in the figure. When a cell of 1.5 V emf is used in the secondary circuit, the balance point is found to be 60 cm. On replacing this cell and using a cell of unknown emf, the balance point shifts to 80 cm.Calculate unknown emf of the cell.

a)

1 V

b)

1.5 V

c)

3 V

d)

2 V

e)

2.2 V

28.

A measuring system consists of

a)

Sensors

b)

Variable conversion elements

c)

Signal processing elements

d)

All of these

29.

Name the instrument used to measure the emf of a cell

a)

Voltmeter

b)

Ammeter

c)

Potentiometer

d)

Galvanometer

e)

Multimeter

30.

The potential difference between two points in a circuit is called

a)

current

b)

voltage

c)

resistance

d)

None of the above

31.

If a wire has continuity, it

a)

cannot conduct current

b)

will have almost no resistance

c)

cannot be used in a circuit

d)

has an open

32.

A __________________ circuit is one in which there is only one path for current to travel.

a)

complex

b)

series

c)

parallel

d)

closed

33.

A(n) ____________________ is used to measure resistance.

a)

Ohmmeter

b)

ammeter

c)

voltmeter

d)

flowmeter

34.

In a Circuit, Ammeter should be always connected in ____ arrangement

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Either in Series or in Parallel

d)

Can be connected in booth

35.

Wattmeter is used to measure which of the following:

a)

Both AC Power and DC Power

b)

DC Power only

c)

AC Power only

36.

A pointer of an instrument once deflected returns to zero position, when the current is removed due to

a)

Action of gravity

b)

Mass of the pointer

c)

Controlling Torque

d)

Damping Torques

37.

An ammeter

a)

Is inserted in series in a circuit and current to be measured flows through it

b)

Is inserted in series in a circuit and part of the current to be measured flows through it

c)

Is connected in parallel in a circuit and current to be measured flows through it

d)

Is connected in parallel in a circuit and only part of the current to the measured flows through it.

38.

The advantages of moving coil permanent magnet type instrument are

a)

Low power consumption

b)

No hysteresis loss

c)

Efficient eddy current damping

d)

All of the above

39.

Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in

a)

kW

b)

Wh

c)

kWh

d)

VAR

40.

A moving iron instrument can be used for

a)

DC only

b)

AC only

c)

Both AC and DC

d)

None of the above

41.

Systematic errors are

a)

Instrumental errors

b)

Environmental errors

c)

Observational errors

d)

All of the above

42.

Which of the following types of instrument can be used for D.C only?

a)

Moving iron attraction type

b)

Moving Iron repulsion type

c)

Permanent magnet type

d)

Hotwire type

43.

The household energy meter is

a)

An indicating instrument

b)

A recording instrument

c)

An integrating instrument

d)

None of the above

44.

Which of the following is caused by careless handling?

a)

Systematic error

b)

Gross error

c)

Random error

d)

None of the mentioned

45.

‘A system will be error free if we remove all systematic error’

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following error is caused by poor calibration of the instrument?

a)

Random error

b)

Gross error

c)

Systematic error

d)

Precision error

47.

A current-carrying rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic field. In which orientation will the coil rotate?

a)

In any orientation

b)

The magnetic field is parallel to the plane of the coil

c)

The magnetic field is at 450 with the plane of the coil

d)

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane

48.

The reason the coil is bound over the metallic frame in moving coil galvanometer is

a)

The metallic frame helps in oscillation

b)

The metallic frame helps in making steady deflection without any oscillation

c)

The metallic frame increases the magnetic field

49.

The deflection in moving coil galvanometer is

a)

Inversely proportional to the area of the coil

b)

Directly proportional to the torsional constant

c)

inversely proportional to the current flowing

d)

Directly proportional to the number of turns of the coil

50.

The deflection θ is related to the electric current I in a galvanometer by the relation

a)

I ∝ θ

b)

I ∝ tan θ

c)

I ∝ sin θ

d)

I ∝ cos θ

51.

Which of the following meter is used to measure speed in electrical machine

a)

No option is Correct

b)

Tachometer

c)

Rotameter

d)

Synchroscope

52.

When the needle of an analog ohmmeter indicates infinity, the resistor being measured is:

a)

Shorted

b)

Open

c)

Reversed

d)

Overheated

e)

None of these

53.

If x(n) and X(k) are an N-point DFT pair, then X(k+N)=?

a)

X(-k)

b)

-X(k)

c)

X(k)

d)

None of the mentioned

54.

If X1(k) and X2(k) are the N-point DFTs of X1(n) and x2(n) respectively, then what is the N-point DFT of x(n)=ax1(n)+bx2(n)?

a)

X1(ak)+X2(bk)

b)

aX1(k)+bX2(k)

c)

eakX1(k)+ebkX2(k)

d)

None of the mentioned

55.

  If x(n) is a real sequence and X(k) is its N-point DFT, then which of the following is true?

a)

X(N-k)=X(-k)

b)

X(N-k)=X*(k)

c)

X(-k)=X*(k)

d)

 All of the mentioned

56.

What is the circular convolution of the sequences X1(n)={2,1,2,1} and x2(n)={1,2,3,4}?

a)

{14,14,16,16}

b)

{16,16,14,14}

c)

{2,3,6,4}

d)

{14,16,14,16}

57.

What is the transform that is suitable for evaluating the z-transform of a set of data on a variety of contours in the z-plane?

a)

Goertzel Algorithm

b)

Fast Fourier transform

c)

Chirp-z transform

d)

None of the mentioned

58.

If yk(n) is the convolution of the finite duration input sequence x(n) of length N, then what is the impulse response of the filter?

a)

WN-kn

b)

WN-kn u(n)

c)

WNkn u(n)

d)

None of the mentioned

59.

If the contour is a circle of radius r and the zk are N equally spaced points, then what is the value of zk?

a)

re-j2πkn/N

b)

rejπkn/N

c)

rej2πkn

d)

rej2πkn/N

60.

How many multiplications are required to calculate X(k) by chirp-z transform if x(n) is of length N?

a)

N-1

b)

N

c)

N+1

d)

None of the mentioned

61.

How many complex multiplications are need to be performed to calculate chirp z-transform?(M=N+L-1)

a)

log2M

b)

Mlog2M

c)

(M-1)log2M

d)

Mlog2(M-1)

62.

The Nth rot of unity WN is given as ______________

a)

ej2πN

b)

e-j2πN

c)

e-j2π/N

d)

ej2π/N

63.

Which of the following substitution is done in Bilinear transformations?

a)

s=2Ts[1−z−11+z−1]s=\frac{2}{T_s}\left[\frac{1-z^{-1}}{1+z^{-1}}\right]

b)

s=2Ts[1+z−11+z−1]s=\frac{2}{T_s}\left[\frac{1+z^{-1}}{1+z^{-1}}\right]

c)

s=2Ts[1−z−11−z−1]s=\frac{2}{T_s}\left[\frac{1-z^{-1}}{1-z^{-1}}\right]

d)

s=2Ts[1+z−11−z−1]s=\frac{2}{T_s}\left[\frac{1+z^{-1}}{1-z^{-1}}\right]

64.

If s = σ + jΩ and z = r ejω, then what is the condition on σ if r<1?

a)

σ > 0

b)

σ < 0

c)

σ > 1

d)

σ < 1

65.

What is the expression for the digital frequency when r=1?

a)

1Tstan⁡(ΩTs2)\frac{1}{T_s}\tan\left(\frac{\Omega T_s}{2}\right)

b)

2Tstan⁡(ΩTs2)\frac{2}{T_s}\tan\left(\frac{\Omega T_s}{2}\right)

c)

1Tstan⁡−1(ΩTs2)\frac{1}{T_s}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\Omega T_s}{2}\right)

d)

2Tstan⁡−1(ΩTs2)\frac{2}{T_s}\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\Omega T_s}{2}\right)

66.

The factor of the form (s-a) in H(s) is mapped into which of the following factors in z-domain?

a)

1-eaTz

b)

1-eaTz-1

c)

1-e-aTz-1

d)

1+eaTz-1

67.

What is the transfer function of Butterworth low pass filter of order 2?

a)

1s2+2s+1\frac{1}{s^2+\sqrt{2}s+1}  

b)

ss2+2s+1\frac{s}{s^2+\sqrt{2}s+1}  

c)

s2+2s+1s\frac{s^2+\sqrt{2}s+1}{s}  

d)

s2+2s+1s^2+\sqrt{2}s+1  

68.

The structure shown is known as:

a)

Parallel form structure

b)

Cascade form structure

c)

Direct form structure

d)

None of the mentioned

69.

The IIR filter designing involves

a)

a. Designing of analog filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain

b)

b. Designing of digital filter in analog domain and transforming into digital domain

c)

c. Designing of analog filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain

d)

d. Designing of digital filter in digital domain and transforming into analog domain

70.

30) The direct form II for realisation involves

1) The realisation of transfer function into two parts

2) Realisation after fraction

3) Product of two transfer functions

4) Addition of two transfer functions

a)

a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b)

b. 1 and 3 are correct

c)

c. 3 and 4 are correct

d)

d. All the four are correct

71.

The Chebyshev filters have


1) Flat pass band

2) Flat stop band

3) Equiripple pass band

4) Tapering stop band

a)

a. 1 and 2 are correct

b)

b. 2 and 4 are correct

c)

c. 2 and 3 are correct

d)

d. All the four are correct

72.

What does the structure given below represents?

a)

a) Direct form-I

b)

b) Regular Direct form-II

c)

c) Transposed direct form-II

d)

d) None of the mentioned

73.
Material that electricity can easily flow through
a)
Insulators
b)
Rubber
c)
Conductor
d)
Wood
74.
Identify the Converter type?
a)
1Φ Dual Converter
b)
3Φ Single Converter
c)
3Φ Dual Converter
d)
1Φ Single Converter
75.
A fully controlled converter uses
a)
 diodes only
b)
 thyristors only
c)
 both diodes and thyristors
d)
Noe of them
76.
In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about __________ ?
a)
π
b)
2π
c)
 π/2
d)
π/4
77.
For an SCR in the forward blocking mode (practically)
a)
leakage current does not flow
b)
leakage current flows from anode to cathode
c)
leakage current flows from cathode to anode
d)
leakage current flows from gate to anode
78.
 A dual converters has
a)
 two full converters in series
b)
 two half converters in series
c)
two full converters in anti-parallel
d)
two half converters in anti-parallel
79.
The four quadrant operation of dual converters can be obtained by
a)
changing the firing angle value
b)
moving the mechanical lever
c)
adding inductance to the circuit
d)
none of the mentioned
80.
 The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is
a)
 square wave
b)
triangular wave
c)
quasi-square wave
d)
sine wave
81.
dv/dt protection is provided to the SCR by
a)
connecting a capacitor in parallel with the load
b)
connecting an inductor in series with the load
c)
connecting a capacitor & resister in parallel with the device
d)
connecting an inductor & resister in parallel with the device
82.
The time constant of a series RC circuit (τ) is given by
a)
R/C
b)
C/R
c)
RC
d)
1/RC
83.

Gate of MOSFET is insulated with layer of...?

a)

SiO2

b)

O2

c)

Si

d)

None

84.

What is the full form of IGBT...?

a)

Insulation gate bipolar transistor

b)

Insulation gate bidirectional transistor

c)

Insulated gate bipolar transistor

d)

Insulated gate bidirectional transistor

85.

PWM in voltage source inverter can control ----------------------- of the voltage output ?

a)

Frequency

b)

Magnitude

c)

Both Frequency & Magnitude

d)

None

86.

Static UPS requires...?

a)

Only Rectifier

b)

Only Inverter

c)

Both Rectifier & Inverter

d)

None

87.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

88.

Generally for a pure Inductive load what is the impedance angle φ?

a)

120 degree

b)

90 degree

c)

180 degree

d)

270 degree

89.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

90.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

91.

A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a-----------

a)

Unijunction device

b)

Device with three junction

c)

Device with four junction

d)

None of the above

92.

A thyristor is basically

a)

PNPN device

b)

A combination of diac and triac

c)

A set of SCRs

d)

A set of SCR, diac and a triac

93.

Which semiconductor power device out of the following, is not a current triggering device?

a)

Thyristor

b)

Triac

c)

G.T.O

d)

MOSFET

94.

Which of the following device incorporates a terminal for synchronizing purposes?

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

Silicon Unilateral Switch (SUS)

d)

None of the above

95.

The advantages of SCS over SCR is

a)

Slow switching time and large VH

b)

Slow switching time and smaller VH

c)

Faster switching time and smaller VH

d)

Faster switching time and large VH

96.

A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

Silicon controlled rectifier

d)

None of the above

97.

A triac is a

a)

2 terminal switch

b)

2 terminal bilateral switch

c)

3 terminal bilateral switch

d)

3 terminal bidirectional switch

98.

The fig. above represents a

a)

Triac thyristor

b)

Diac trigger

c)

Diode rectifier

d)

None of the above

99.

A device that cannot be triggered with low voltage of either polarity is

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

SCS

d)

All of the above

100.

The fig. given above represents

a)

Silicon controlled rectifier

b)

Field effect transistor

c)

Photoemissive diode

d)

Tunnel diode

101.

The given fig. represents

a)

Triac thyristor

b)

Diac thyristor

c)

Capacitive Diode

d)

None of the above

102.

A device that does not exhibit negative resistance characteristics is

a)

FET

b)

UJT

c)

Tunnel diode

d)

SCR

103.

A triac

a)

Conducts when not triggered

b)

Conducts when not triggered in both direction

c)

Conducts when triggered in one direction

d)

None of the above

104.

For a thyristor shown is

a)

All the 3 junctions are forward Biased

b)

J1, J2 are forward biased and j3 reversed biased

c)

J1 is forward biased, J2, J3 reversed biased

d)

J1, J2 are reversed biased J3 is forward biased

105.

The thyristor is turned -off when the anode current falls below_____

a)

Forward current

b)

Latching current

c)

Holding current

d)

Breakover current

106.

In a thyristor circuit, the angle of conduction is changed by changing______

a)

Anode voltage

b)

Gate current

c)

Forward current

d)

Anode current

107.

The VI characteristics of UJT is

a)

Similar to CE with a linear and saturation region

b)

Similar to FET with a linear and pinch off region

c)

Similar to tunnel diode in some respects

d)

Similar to PN junction diode in some respects

108.

UJT when used for triggering an SCR, has the waveform

a)

Sine wave

b)

Square Wave

c)

Sawtooth wave

d)

Trapezoidal

109.

A resistor connected across the gate and cathode of a thyristor increase its

a)

Turn off time

b)

di/dt rating

c)

Noise immunity

d)

Holding current

110.

P-side emitter in UJT is

a)

Not doped

b)

Feebly doped

c)

Heavily doped

d)

Moderately doped

111.

Inverter converts

a)

DC to AC

b)

AC to DC

c)

DC to DC

d)

AC to AC

112.

When thyristor and transistor as a switch are compared, the true statement is

a)

Thyristor requires turns off circuit while transistor does not

b)

The voltage drop of the thyristor is less than transistor

c)

Thyristor requires a continuous gate current

d)

Transistor does not draw continuously base current

113.

When emitter terminal of a UJT is open then the resistance of the base terminal is

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

c)

Moderate

d)

Any finite value

114.

If the firing angle in an SCR rectifier is decreased, the output is

a)

Increased

b)

Maximum

c)

Decreased

d)

Remain Unaffected

115.

A SCR is a ________ switch

a)

One directional

b)

Two directional

c)

Three directional

d)

Four Directional

116.

Comparing a triac & SCR

a)

Both are unidirectional devices

b)

An SCR has less time for turn off than Triac

c)

Both are bidirectional devices

d)

All of the above

117.

Which of the following statement is true about Thyristor

a)

The turn off time of a thyristor is less than the turn-on time

b)

The turn-on time is less than the turn-off time

c)

The turn-off time for the line commutation is less than the forced commutation

d)

None of the above

118.

The figure represents

a)

Zener diode

b)

Silicon controlled rectifier

c)

Junction field effect transistor

d)

Tunnel diode

119.

Among this alternative, PIV rating of which diode is lower than that of equivalent vacuum diode?

a)

PN Junction Diode

b)

Crystal Diode

c)

Tunnel Diode

d)

Small single Diode

120.

A forward bias PN junction will act as a/an:

a)

Amplifier

b)

Open switch

c)

Closed Switch

d)

Attenuator

121.

When do DTFT and ZT are equal?

a)

When σ = 0

b)

When r = 1

c)

When σ = 1

d)

When r = 0

122.

Find the Z-transform of δ(n+3).

a)

z

b)

z2z^2

c)

1

d)

z3z^3

123.

Which among the following assertions represents a necessary condition for the existence of Fourier Transform of discrete time signal (DTFT)?

a)

Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely summable

b)

Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely multipliable

c)

Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely integrable

d)

Discrete Time Signal should be absolutely differentiable

124.

What is the set of all values of z for which X(z) attains a finite value?

a)

Radius of convergence

b)

Radius of divergence

c)

Feasible solution

d)

None of the mentioned

125.

What is the ROC of the system function H(z) if the discrete time LTI system is BIBO stable?

a)

Entire z-plane, except at z=0

b)

Entire z-plane, except at z=∞

c)

Contain unit circle

d)

None of the mentioned

126.

What is the ROC of a causal infinite length sequence?

a)

|z|<r1

b)

|z|>r1

c)

r2<|z|<r1

d)

None of the mentioned

127.

What is the ROC of the z-transform of the signal ( x(n)=anu(n)+bnu(−n−1)x\left(n\right)=a^nu\left(n\right)+b^nu\left(-n-1\right)  ?

a)

|a|<|z|<|b|

b)

|a|>|z|>|b|

c)

|a|>|z|<|b|

d)

|a|<|z|>|b|

128.

If the system is initially relaxed at time n=0 and memory equals to zero, then the response of such state is called as ____________

a)

Zero-state response

b)

Zero-input response

c)

Zero-condition response

d)

None of the mentioned

129.

Zero-state response is also known as ____________

a)

Free response

b)

Forced response

c)

Natural response

d)

None of the mentioned

130.

The solution obtained by assuming the input x(n) of the system is zero is ____________

a)

General solution

b)

Particular solution

c)

Complete solution

d)

Homogenous solution

131.

The total solution of the difference equation is given as _______________ where yh(n) is homogeneous solution and yp(n) is particular solution

a)

yp(n)-yh(n)

b)

yp(n)+yh(n)

c)

yh(n)-yp(n)

d)

None of the mentioned

132.

1. Given a discrete time signal x[k] defined by x[k] = 1, for -2≤k≤2 and 0, for |k|>2. Then, y[k] = x[3k-2] is ______________

a)

y[k] = 1, for k = 0, 1 and 0 otherwise

b)

y[k] = 1, for k = 1 and -1 for k=-1

c)

y[k] = 1, for k = 0, 1 and -1 otherwise

d)

d) y[k] = 1, for k = 0, 1 and 0 otherwise

133.

What is the particular solution of the first order difference equation y(n)+ay(n-1)=x(n) where |a|<1, when the input of the system x(n)=u(n)?

a)

a) 1/(1+a)u(n)

b)

1/(1−a)u(n)

c)

1/(1+a)

d)

1/(1−a)

134.

A Discrete signal is said to be even or symmetric if X(-n) is equal to __________

a)

X(n)

b)

0

c)

–X(n)

d)

–X(-n)

135.

The system described by the difference equation y(n) – 2y(n-1) + y(n-2) = X(n) – X(n-1) has y(n) = 0 and n<0. If x (n) = δ(n), then y (z) will be?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

0

d)

-1

136.

The Nyquist frequency for the signal x (t) = 3 cos 50πt + 10 sin 300πt – cos 100t is ___________

a)

50 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

200 Hz

d)

300 Hz

137.

 Find x(∞) if 

X(z)=(z+1)(z−0.6)2X\left(z\right)=\frac{\left(z+1\right)}{\left(z-0.6\right)^2}  

a)

1

b)

0

c)

∞

d)

0.6

138.

Find x(∞) if X(z) = (z+3)/(z+1)(z+2)

a)

∞

b)

-1

c)

1

d)

0

139.

What is the nature of Fourier representation of a discrete & aperiodic signal?

a)

Continuous & periodic

b)

Discrete & aperiodic

c)

Continuous & aperiodic

d)

Discrete & periodic

140.

Which property of periodic signal in DTFS gets completely clarified / identified by the equation x (n – n0)?

a)

Conjugation

b)

Time Shifting

c)

Frequency Shifting

d)

Time Reversal

141.

1. Which of the following is an example of amplitude scaling?

a)

a) Electronic amplifier

b)

b) Electronic attenuator

c)

c) Both amplifier and attenuator

d)

d) Adder

142.

5. Which of the passive component performs differentiation operation?

a)

a) Resistor

b)

b) Capacitor

c)

c) Inductor

d)

d) Amplifier

143.

The signal X (t) = e-4t u (t) is _______________

a)

a) Power signal with P∞ = 14

b)

b) Power signal with P∞ = 0

c)

c) Energy signal with E∞ = 1/4

d)

d) Energy signal with E∞ = 0 E∞ = 0

144.

Should real time instruments like oscilloscopes be time invariant?

a)

a) Yes

b)

b) Sometimes

c)

c) Never

d)

d) They have no relation with time variance

145.

All real time systems concerned with the concept of causality are

a)

a) non causal

b)

b) causal

c)

c) neither causal nor non causal

d)

d) memoryless

146.

All causal systems must have the component of

a)

a) memory

b)

b) time invariance

c)

c) stability

d)

d) linearity

147.

What is the value of u[1], where u[n] is the unit step function?

a)

a) 1

b)

b) 0.5

c)

c) 0

d)

d) -1

148.

1. What are periodic signals?

a)

a) The signals which change with time

b)

b) The signals which change with frequency

c)

c) The signal that repeats itself in time

d)

d) The signals that repeat itself over a fixed frequency

149.

The property of Fourier Transform which states that the compression in time domain is equivalent to the expansion in the frequency domain is ____________

a)

a) Duality

b)

b) Scaling

c)

c) Time scaling

d)

d) Frequency shifting

150.

Which of the following is a dynamic system?

a)

a) y(n) = y(n-1) + y(n+1)

b)

b) y(n) = y(n-1)

c)

c) y(n) = x(n)

d)

d) y(n) + y(n+1) + y(n+3) = 0

151.

Which of the following is true about the bounded signal?

a)

a) A finite signal is always bounded

b)

b) A bounded signal always possess finite energy

c)

c) A bounded signal is always zero outside a given interval

d)

d) A bounded signal is always finite

152.

From the given conditions, what are the Dirichlet conditions?i. X(t) should be absolutely integrableii. X(t) should have finite discontinuitiesiii. X(t) should have a finite number of maxima as well as minima in its domain

a)

a) i, ii and iii

b)

b) i and ii

c)

c) i and iii

d)

d) ii and iii

153.

Find the Laplace transform of δ(t)

a)

a) 1

b)

b) 0

c)

c) ∞

d)

d) 2

154.

The ROC of u(n) = 4n, for n<0; 2n, for n≥0 is ___________

a)

a) 0<z<1

b)

b) z<4

c)

c) 2<z

d)

d) 2<z<4

155.

For causal sequences, the ROC is the exterior of a circle of radius r.

a)

a) True

b)

b) False

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