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DNA, RNA, and Replication/Transcription/Translation - Genetics

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the function of the ribosomes in an animal cell?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Digestion of cellular waste

c)

Energy production

d)

Modification and packaging of proteins

2.

Which structure in the animal cell is responsible for organizing microtubules during cell division?

a)

Centriole

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Peroxisome

d)

Secretory vesicles

3.

What is the role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in an animal cell?

a)

Synthesizing lipids

b)

Producing ribosomes

c)

Generating ATP

d)

Packaging proteins into vesicles

4.

What did Friedrich Miescher isolate from the nuclei of white blood cells in 1868?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Enzymes

d)

Carbohydrates

5.

Which university was Friedrich Miescher associated with as a physician and biologist?

a)

University of Zurich

b)

University of Geneva

c)

University of Basel

d)

University of Tübingen

6.

Who demonstrated that DNA taken from a bacterium could make non-infectious bacteria become infectious in 1943?

a)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

b)

James Watson and Francis Crick

c)

Oswald Avery

d)

Rosalind Franklin

7.

What did Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase use to demonstrate that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material of the bacteriophage virus?

a)

Radioactive sulfur

b)

Radioactive phosphorus

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Enzymes

8.

Who conducted experiments in 1928 that demonstrated the transfer of genetic material through bacterial transformation?

a)

Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty

b)

Frederick Griffith

c)

James Watson and Francis Crick

d)

Gregor Mendel

9.

In which year did Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty determine that DNA is the transformation material?

a)

1928

b)

1944

c)

1953

d)

1961

10.

What type of strain did Frederick Griffith use in his experiments that was virulent?

a)

Rough (R)

b)

Smooth (S)

c)

Mold (M)

d)

Bacteriophage (B)

11.

What organism was used by Frederick Griffith in his transformation experiments?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Bacillus subtilis

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Salmonella typhimurium

12.

What does the Griffith experiment demonstrate with the use of smooth and rough colonies?

a)

The difference in nutritional needs of bacteria

b)

The role of environmental factors in bacterial colony morphology

c)

The process of bacterial conjugation

d)

The principle of transformation in bacteria

13.

What was the outcome when live R bacteria were injected into mice in Griffith's experiment?

a)

The mice remained healthy.

b)

The mice died.

c)

The mice mutated.

d)

The mice's tissue was analyzed.

14.

In Griffith's experiment, what was the result when heat-killed S bacteria were injected into mice?

a)

The mice remained healthy.

b)

The mice died.

c)

The mice mutated.

d)

The mice's tissue was analyzed.

15.

What happened to the mice when a mixture of live R bacteria and heat-killed S bacteria was injected?

a)

The mice remained healthy.

b)

The mice died.

c)

Living S bacteria were recovered from the tissue of the mice.

d)

No change was observed in the mice.

16.

What does the "S" in the Griffith experiment refer to?

a)

A specific nutrient required by bacteria.

b)

The scientist who conducted the experiment.

c)

The smooth appearance of the bacterial colonies.

d)

The substance that causes mutations in bacteria.

17.

What does the "R" in the Griffith experiment refer to?

a)

A resistant strain of bacteria.

b)

The rough appearance of the bacterial colonies.

c)

A radioactive marker used in the experiment.

d)

The researcher's assistant.

18.

What was the purpose of the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment?

a)

To discover the structure of DNA

b)

To prove that DNA is the genetic material

c)

To create a vaccine for pneumonia

d)

To demonstrate bacterial conjugation

19.

In the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment, what was mixed with living R form bacteria?

a)

Heat-killed S form components in medium

b)

Live S form bacteria

c)

Viral DNA

d)

Protein extracts

20.

What was the outcome of the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment?

a)

The living R form bacteria remained the same

b)

The living R form bacteria transformed into living S form

c)

The living R form bacteria died

d)

The living R form bacteria replicated DNA

21.

What was the conclusion of the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment regarding the transforming principle?

a)

Protein is the transforming principle.

b)

RNA is the transforming principle.

c)

DNA is the transforming principle.

d)

Fats are the transforming principle.

22.

In the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment, what was the result when DNA was destroyed?

a)

R cells transformed into S cells.

b)

S cells transformed into R cells.

c)

No transformation occurred in R cells.

d)

Fats were eliminated.

23.

Which enzyme was used to destroy protein in the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment?

a)

Protease

b)

RNase

c)

DNase

d)

Ultracentrifugation

24.

What was the purpose of ultracentrifugation in the Avery, MacLeod, McCarty experiment?

a)

To destroy RNA.

b)

To destroy DNA.

c)

To eliminate fats.

d)

To introduce components into R cells.

25.

Who conducted experiments in 1952 that provided convincing evidence that DNA is the genetic material?

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

c)

Hershey and Chase

d)

Mendel

26.

What was used to label DNA in the Hershey and Chase experiments?

a)

14C

b)

32P

c)

35S

d)

15N

27.

What did Hershey and Chase use to label protein in their experiments?

a)

14C

b)

32P

c)

35S

d)

15N

28.

What type of experiment did Hershey and Chase perform to study genetic material?

a)

Microscopy experiment

b)

Waring blender experiment

c)

Centrifugation experiment

d)

Electrophoresis experiment

29.

Which organisms were used in the Hershey and Chase Waring blender experiment?

a)

E. coli and human cells

b)

T2 bacteriophage and bacteria

c)

Yeast and viruses

d)

Drosophila and mice

30.

What is the first step in the process depicted in the Hershey and Chase Waring blender experiment?

a)

Phage DNA replicates; new phage proteins are made.

b)

Phage attaches to bacterium (host).

c)

Cell bursts, releasing new phage.

d)

Phage particles assemble.

31.

During the Hershey and Chase Waring blender experiment, what happens after the phage DNA replicates and new phage proteins are made?

a)

Phage attaches to bacterium (host).

b)

Phage injects its genes into host cell.

c)

Phage particles assemble.

d)

Cell bursts, releasing new phage.

32.

What is the final step in the cycle of the phage as shown in the Hershey and Chase Waring blender experiment diagram?

a)

Phage DNA replicates; new phage proteins are made.

b)

Phage injects its genes into host cell.

c)

Phage particles assemble.

d)

Cell bursts, releasing new phage.

33.

What did Hershey and Chase label with radioactive phosphorus (32P) in their experiment?

a)

Bacterial cell walls

b)

Bacterial ribosomes

c)

Phage DNA

d)

Phage protein

34.

What did Hershey and Chase label with radioactive sulfur (35S) in their experiment?

a)

Bacterial cell walls

b)

Bacterial ribosomes

c)

Phage DNA

d)

Phage protein

35.

After blending the phages and bacteria briefly, where was the radioactivity found in the Hershey and Chase experiment when DNA was labeled with 32P?

a)

Inside the bacterial cells

b)

Inside the phage ghosts

c)

In the supernatant

d)

On the bacterial cell surface

36.

After blending the phages and bacteria briefly, where was the radioactivity found in the Hershey and Chase experiment when protein was labeled with 35S?

a)

Inside the bacterial cells

b)

Inside the phage ghosts

c)

In the supernatant

d)

On the bacterial cell surface

37.

According to Erwin Chargaff's experiments, what is the ratio of adenine (A) to thymine (T) in DNA?

a)

2:1

b)

1:2

c)

1:1

d)

1:3

38.

What did James Watson learn in 1951 that contributed to the discovery of the DNA structure?

a)

The sequence of nucleotides in DNA

b)

The x-ray diffraction pattern projected by DNA

c)

The function of DNA in protein synthesis

d)

The process of DNA replication

39.

What did Rosalind Franklin's photograph of DNA molecules using x-rays help to demonstrate about the structure of DNA?

a)

The DNA molecule varied greatly in diameter.

b)

The DNA molecule was flat and two-dimensional.

c)

The DNA molecule had a constant diameter of 2 nm.

d)

The DNA molecule was composed of a single strand.

40.

Which scientist associated with the discovery of the structure of DNA died in 1958?

a)

James Dewey Watson

b)

Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

c)

Francis Harry Compton Crick

d)

Rosalind Franklin

41.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

b)

Dioxynucleic Acid

c)

Deoxynucleotide Acid

d)

Dioxoribonucleic Acid

42.

What are the three basic components of a nucleotide?

a)

A) Amino acid, sugar, phosphate

b)

B) Nitrogen base, amino acid, sugar

c)

C) Nitrogen base, phosphate, five carbon sugar

d)

D) Phosphate, five carbon sugar, lipid

43.

What is the difference between mitochondrial DNA and nuclear DNA?

a)
Mitochondrial DNA is found in the cell nucleus, while nuclear DNA is found in the mitochondria.
b)
Mitochondrial DNA is responsible for cell division, while nuclear DNA is responsible for energy production.
c)
Mitochondrial DNA contains the genetic information for the entire organism, while nuclear DNA is responsible for energy production.
d)
Mitochondrial DNA is only present in plant cells, while nuclear DNA is only present in animal cells.
e)
Mitochondrial DNA is found in the mitochondria and is responsible for energy production, while nuclear DNA is found in the cell nucleus and contains the genetic information for the entire organism.
44.

What is Friedrich Miescher, a Swiss trained physician and biologist, best known for in the field of genetics?

a)
Creating the first genetic modification
b)
Discovering the structure of proteins
c)
Discovering nucleic acids and isolating DNA
d)
Developing the first vaccine
e)
Inventing the first microscope
45.

How many chromosomes does a dog have?

a)
92
b)
64
c)
78
d)
46
e)
35
46.

How many chromosomes does a cat have?

a)
44
b)
20
c)
30
d)
50
e)
38
47.

How many chromosomes does a cow have?

a)
24
b)
60
c)
40
d)
72
e)
50
48.

How many chromosomes does a rabbit have?

a)
20
b)
60
c)
50
d)
32
e)
44
49.

How many chromosomes does a mouse have?

a)
20
b)
50
c)
30
d)
60
e)
40
50.

How many chromosomes does a pig have?

a)
50
b)
12
c)
38
d)
40
e)
24
51.

How many chromosomes does a sheep have?

a)
38
b)
72
c)
54
d)
46
e)
20
52.

How many chromosomes does a goat have?

a)
50
b)
72
c)
60
d)
40
e)
24
53.

How many chromosomes does a chicken have?

a)
46
b)
64
c)
35
d)
78
e)
92
54.

How many chromosomes does a rat have?

a)
24
b)
60
c)
42
d)
38
e)
56
55.

How many chromosomes does a deer have?

a)
60
b)
70
c)
50
d)
90
e)
100
56.

How many chromosomes does a turkey have?

a)
50
b)
100
c)
120
d)
80
e)
64
57.

How many chromosomes does a horse have?

a)
72
b)
56
c)
40
d)
64
e)
32
58.

How many chromosomes do Llamas, Alpacas, and Camels have?

a)
100
b)
46
c)
30
d)
12
e)
74
59.

What are the two purine bases?

a)

Guanine and Adenine

b)

Guanine and Cytosine

c)

Adenine and Uracil

d)

Adenine and Thymine

e)

Guanine and Thymine

60.

What kind of bond appears between adenine and thymine?

a)
Covalent bond
b)
Ionic bond
c)
Van der Waals bond
d)

Double Hydrogen bond

e)
Polar bond
61.

What are the two pyrimidine bases?

a)
Adenine and Guanine
b)
Thymine and Adenine
c)
Uracil and Guanine
d)
Cytosine and Adenine
e)
Cytosine and Thymine (in DNA) or Cytosine and Uracil (in RNA)
62.

How many bonds form between Cytosine and Guanine?

a)
3
b)
2
c)
4
d)
1
e)
5
63.

What are the four requirements for DNA to be a genetic material?

a)
It must be able to produce energy
b)
It must be able to change color
c)
The four requirements for DNA to be a genetic material are: 1) It must contain complex information, 2) It must be able to replicate faithfully, 3) It must have the capacity to store information, and 4) It must be able to undergo variation.
d)
It must be able to conduct electricity
e)
It must be made of protein
64.

Complimentary base pairing produces what type of replication?

a)
Inverted replication
b)
Semi-conservative replication
c)
Random replication
d)
Double-stranded replication
e)
Unstable replication
65.

This enzyme produces new strands of complementary DNA

a)

DNA polymerase I

b)
Lipase
c)
Amylase
d)

DNA polymerase III

e)
Protease
66.

This enzyme fills in gaps between newly synthesized Okazaki fragments

a)
Helicase
b)
Topoisomerase
c)
RNA polymerase
d)
DNA ligase
e)

DNA polymerase I

67.

This enzyme unwinds the double helix of a DNA strand

a)
helicase
b)
RNA
c)
topoisomerase
d)
ligase
e)
polymerase
68.

This proteins keep the double helix open as it is replicated

a)
carbohydrates
b)
amino acids
c)

single-stranded binging protein

d)
lipids
e)
nucleotides
69.

This enzyme creates RNA primers to initiate synthesis

a)
polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
topoisomerase
e)
primase
70.

This enzyme welds okazaki fragments together

a)
DNA polymerase
b)
DNA helicase
c)
DNA ligase
d)
ATP synthase
e)
RNA polymerase
71.

This enzyme prevents the helix from supercoiling by nicking strands

a)
polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
kinase
e)
topoisomerase
72.

What direction does DNA replication occur?

a)
Left to right
b)
3' to 5'
c)
Clockwise
d)
Up and down
e)
5' to 3'
73.

What direction does the leading strand build?

a)
North to South
b)
Left to right
c)
5' to 3'
d)
Up and down
e)
3' to 5'
74.

What direction does the lagging strand build in?

a)
2' to 4'
b)
5' to 3'
c)
1' to 6'
d)
7' to 2'
e)
3' to 5'
75.

What are some differences between RNA and DNA?

a)

RNA is less stable than DNA

b)

RNA contains a different sugar called Ribose

c)

RNA is a single-stranded unit

d)
All of the above
e)

RNA contains Uracil in place of Thymine

76.

True or False: RNA persists in the cell longer than DNA

a)
True
b)
False
77.

What are the three different RNA's

a)
ATP, ADP, AMP
b)
DNA, RNA, mRNA
c)
Protein, Carbohydrate, Lipid
d)
mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
e)
Ribose, Deoxyribose, Glucose
78.

What is RNA transcription?

a)
The process of making an RNA copy of a gene's DNA sequence.
b)
The process of duplicating a gene's RNA sequence.
c)
The process of breaking down RNA into its component nucleotides.
d)
The process of converting RNA into DNA.
e)
The process of making a protein copy of a gene's DNA sequence.
79.

Where does Transcription occur?

a)
Mitochondria
b)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Cytoplasm
e)
Nucleus
80.

What is RNA polymerase's function?

a)
Produce proteins from RNA
b)
Break down RNA into DNA
c)
Regulate gene expression
d)
Copy DNA from RNA
e)

RNA polymerase moves along the DNA and unzips the strands, allowing for one mRNA molecule to be formed

81.

What is a mRNA capping end?

a)
Unmodified adenine nucleotide
b)
Methylated cytosine nucleotide
c)
Phosphorylated thymine nucleotide
d)
Acetylated uracil nucleotide
e)
Modified guanosine nucleotide
82.

What is the purpose of a mRNA cap located at the 5' end?

a)

Preventing degradation

b)

Signals the end of transcription

c)

Helping with Stability

d)

Helping with attachment to ribosome

e)

Indicates the start of transcription

83.

What is the purpose of a mRNA Poly-A tail located at the 3' end?

a)

Preventing degradation

b)

Signals the end of transcription

c)

Helping with Stability

d)

Helping with attachment to ribosome

e)

Indicates the start of transcription

84.

What are introns in a strand of mRNA and DNA?

a)
Genes responsible for coding proteins
b)
Sections of mRNA and DNA that are identical
c)

Non-coding sections of a gene

d)
Regions of mRNA and DNA that determine the genetic code
e)
Segments of mRNA and DNA that are removed during transcription
85.

What is different about introns between mRNA and DNA?

a)
Introns are present in mRNA but not in DNA.
b)
Introns are removed from DNA during post-transcriptional processing.
c)
Introns are only found in prokaryotic DNA, not in eukaryotic DNA.
d)
Introns are longer in mRNA compared to DNA.
e)

Introns are removed from mRNA during post-transcriptional processing and help with stability/nuclear export

86.

What are exons in both mRNA and DNA?

a)
Coding regions of a gene
b)
Enhancer regions
c)
Promoter regions
d)
Introns
e)
Non-coding regions of a gene
87.

Each genetic code consists of how many codons?

a)
100
b)
64
c)
12
d)
50
e)
200
88.

What are the 3 stop codons?

a)
AUG, UAC, and UGG
b)
UAA, UGG, and UCC
c)
UAA, UAG, and UGA
d)
UAG, UCG, and UAA
e)
UAA, UAG, and UAA
89.

What is the start codon and its amino acid?

a)
AUG - Valine
b)
UAG - Threonine
c)
AUG - Methionine
d)
AUG - Lysine
e)
UAA - Leucine
90.

What is translation in genetics?

a)
Copying DNA to create a new strand of RNA
b)
The process of transcribing DNA into mRNA
c)
Synthesizing a protein from the information encoded in mRNA
d)
The process of splicing introns from mRNA
e)
The process of DNA replication
91.

Where does translation occur in the cell?

a)
Endoplasmic reticulum
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)

Ribosomes in Cytoplasm

e)
Golgi apparatus
92.

What is the purpose of rRNA?

a)
To regulate cell division
b)
To store genetic information
c)
To produce energy for the cell
d)
To help in the process of photosynthesis
e)

To help in the synthesis of proteins in the cell by helping mRNA bind to the ribosome

93.

What is tRNA and what is its purpose?

a)
tRNA is involved in the process of photosynthesis
b)
tRNA is responsible for producing energy in the cell
c)
tRNA is a type of DNA found in the nucleus
d)
tRNA is only found in animal cells
e)
Transfer RNA (tRNA) carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.

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