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EMSE 2021 EXAM 1 REVIEW (PART 2)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This is the most superior part of the airway. The septum divides the right and left.

a)
Mouth
b)
Bronchi
c)
Nasal cavity
d)
Esophagus
2.

Formed by the cheeks, hard and soft palate, and tongue.

a)
nasal cavity
b)
esophageal cavity
c)
pharyngeal cavity
d)
oral cavity
3.

Muscular tube that extends vertically from the back of the soft palate to the superior aspect of the esophagus.

a)
Cerebellum
b)
Pharynx
c)

Nasal cavity

d)

Oral cavity

4.

Upper most region of the pharynx, extends from the back of the nasal opening to the plane of the soft palate.

a)
Oropharynx
b)
Laryngopharynx
c)

Hypopharynx

d)
Nasopharynx
5.

This part of the pharynx extends posteriorly from the hyoid bone to the esophagus and anteriorly to the larynx.

a)
Oropharynx
b)
Laryngopharynx
c)

Hypopharynx

d)
Nasopharynx
6.

This part of the pharynx extends from the plane of the soft palate to the hyoid bone

a)
Laryngopharynx
b)
Nasopharynx
c)
Oropharynx
d)
Epiglottis
7.

Complex structure that joins the pharynx with the trachea.

a)
esophagus
b)
bronchus
c)
trachea
d)
larynx
8.

Microscopic air sacs where most oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange takes place.

a)
alveoli
b)
esophagus
c)
trachea
d)
bronchi
9.

Tubes from the trachea into the lungs

a)
Esophagus
b)
Pancreas
c)
Liver
d)
Bronchi
10.

Membranous connective tissue covering the lungs

a)
Pleura
b)
Myocardium
c)
Pericardium
d)
Endocardium
11.

10-12 cm long tube that connects the larynx to the mainstem bronchi

a)

bronchi

b)

treachea

c)

alveoli

d)

plesura

12.

This is arranged in two pulmonary lobules that from the anatomic division of the lungs. These are further organized into lobes.

a)
Heart
b)

Pleura

c)
Kidney
d)

Lung parenchyma

13.

Placement in which a supine patients head is elevated to the point where the ear and sternal notch are horizontally aligned.

a)
Trendelenburg position
b)
Prone position
c)
Supine position
d)

Ear- to-sternal-notch position

14.

Ear- to-sternal-notch position for airway management in the obese patient.

a)

incline position

b)

ramped position

c)

sniffing position

d)

smelling position

15.

Ear- to-sternal-notch position for airway management in the non obese patient.

a)

incline position

b)

ramped position

c)

sniffing position

d)

smelling position

16.

Performed by placing one hand on the patients forehead tilting the head back and two fingers of the other hand under the bony part of the chin and lifting the jaw anteriorly.

a)

Head-tilt/Chin-lift maneuver

b)
Forehead push technique
c)

Jaw thrust method

d)
Chin tuck maneuver
17.

Lifting the jaw by using two fingers behind the mandibular angles, not tilting the head if cervical spine injury is suspected.

a)
Head tilt method
b)
Chin lift maneuver
c)
Neck twist technique
d)
Jaw thrust maneuver
18.

This device follows the natural curvature of the nasopharynx, passing through the nose and extending from the nostril to the posterior pharynx just below the base of the tongue.

a)

Nasopharyngeal airway

b)

Oropharyngeal airway

c)

Non rebreather

d)

Nasal cannula

19.

Indications for the use of the NPA include

a)

obtunded patients

b)

intact gag reflex

c)

no gag reflex

d)

unconscious

20.

The tip of the patients nose to the earlobe is how to properly measure

a)

OPA

b)

nasal cannula

c)

NPA

d)

ET tube

21.

When inserting an NPA the bevel should be facing:

a)

away from the septum

b)

towards the septum

22.

This device holds the base of the tongue away from the posterior oropharynx; thus preventing it from obstructing the glottis.

a)

NPA

b)

I- Gel

c)

OPA

d)

ET tube

23.

The OPA is indicated for use in patients

a)

With an intact gag reflex

b)

No gag reflex

24.

To measure for insertion of this device the flange is placed beside the patients cheek parallel to the front of the teeth. If properly sized it will extend from the patients mouth to the angle of the jaw.

a)

NPA

b)

OPA

c)

ET tube

d)

Flexible suction device

25.

This type of suction device is lightweight, portable, inexpensive, and is simple to operate, however it has a limited volume and is manually powered.

a)

Hand powered

b)

oxygen powered

c)

battery operated

d)

mounted

26.

This type of suction device is lightweight, and small however it has limited suction power and uses much oxygen.

a)

Hand powered

b)

oxygen powered

c)

battery operated

d)

mounted

27.

This type of suction device is lightweight, portable, has excellent suction power however its battery memory decreases with time.

a)

Hand powered

b)

oxygen powered

c)

battery operated

d)

mounted

28.

This type of suction device has a strong suction, adjustable vacuum power, and a disposable fluid container, however it is not portable.

a)

Hand powered

b)

oxygen powered

c)

battery operated

d)

mounted

29.

We should limit each suctioning attempt to how many seconds?

a)
10 seconds
b)
20 seconds
c)
15 seconds
d)
5 seconds
30.

The hard/rigid catheter

a)

Has large tube with or without multiple holes at the distal end

b)

can suction large volumes of fluid rapidly

c)

comes in various sizes

d)

removes large particles

31.

Soft catheters:

a)

have long flexible tube

b)

cannot remove large volumes of fluid rapidly

c)

comes in a standard size

d)

can be placed in the oropharynx, nasopharynx, or down an ET tube.

32.

Complications from suctioning related to hypoxemia is from

a)

suctioning all of the oxygen from the lungs

b)

prolonged suctioning attempts without proper ventilation or oxygenation

c)

incorrect catheter use

d)

too much pressure from suction device

33.

When the vagus nerve is stimulated during suctioning it could cause the following

a)

bradycardia

b)

hypotension

c)

hypoxia

d)

altered mental status

34.

Stimulating the cough reflex while suctioning the patient can also cause an increase in

a)
heart rate
b)
blood pressure
c)
oxygen saturation
d)

ICP

35.

When determining the depth of the suction catheter insertion measure from

a)
Tip of the patient's nose to the belly button
b)
Tip of the patient's nose to the chin
c)
Tip of the patient's nose to the back of the head
d)

Tip of the patient's earlobe to the lips

36.

Basic maneuvers that are appropriate to the patients age and mental status for a patient with an FBAO include:

a)

abdominal thrust

b)

back blows

c)

chest thrust

d)

Magill forceps use

37.

This is a dual lumen airway that has a ventilatory port for each lumen. It has two inflatable cuffs. If ventilation through tube 1 is unsuccessful then ventilate through the shorter tube.

a)

Esophageal Tracheal Combitube

b)

King LT

c)

LMA

d)

iGel

38.

This airway device is a two tube system. The first tube is short with a large diameter. A large cuff encircles the tubes lower 3rd. when inflated the cuff seals off the entire oropharynx. The second tube can be inserted blindly into either the trachea or esophagus. when inflated the distal cuff seals off which ever anatomical structure the tube has entered.

a)

Combitube

b)

LMA

c)

PtL

d)

LMA Supreme

39.

These types devices are inserted blindly into the airway to facilitate oxygenation and ventilation via a self inflating bag or transport ventilator but do not enter the glottis.

a)
Chest tubes
b)

Extraglottic airway devices

c)
Nasogastric tubes
d)
Endotracheal tubes
40.

This subcategory of EGAs sit behind the vocal cords

a)

retroglottic airways

b)

supraglottic airways

41.

This subcategory of EGAs sit above the vocal cords

a)

retroglottic airways

b)

supraglottic airways

42.

This airway device i a single lumen retroglottic airway. This device has a large pharyngeal balloon and smaller esophageal balloon like other retroglottic airways, but both balloons are inflated through a single port with a single syringe.

a)

King LT

b)

LMA

c)

iGel

d)

Combitube

43.

This supraglottic device has a rigid design that makes insertion easy without the need to place fingers in the mouth. It offers a very good seal against aspiration and facilitates gastric decompression through a separate channel. Does not offer many pediatric options.

a)

King LTD

b)

iGel

c)

LMA

d)

ET tube

44.

This is a laryngeal mask that comes in a variety of sizes including multiple pediatric sizes. It has a built in bite block and a passageway that allows for gastric tube insertion.

a)

LMA

b)

iGel

c)

Combitube

d)

King LTD

45.

Endotracheal Intubation Indications include which of the following

a)

Respiratory arrest

b)

Respiratory failure

c)

cardiac arrest

d)

Airway swelling

46.

These are used to lift the soft tissue if the tongue and epiglottis out of the way to allow the practitioner to directly visualize the vocal cords

a)
Otoscope
b)
Endoscope
c)

Direct Laryngoscope

d)
Stethoscope
47.

This type of blade is deigned to fit into the vallecula and put pressure on the hyoepiglottic ligament that connects the epiglottis to the base of the tongue. This allows you to see the glottic opening

a)

Macintosh

b)

straight blade

c)

curved blade

d)

Miller

48.

This style of blade fits under the epiglottis and manually lifts it out of the way

a)

Miller

b)

Philips

c)

Wisconsin

d)

Straight blade

49.

This type of endotracheal intubation is the most widely used path because it allows visualization of the vocal cords and the ETT's passage through them.

a)
Indirect laryngoscopy
b)
Nasal intubation
c)
Tracheostomy
d)

Orotracheal intubation

50.

This type of ETT has a proximal O-shaped ring attached to a plastic wire that runs the length of the tube and terminates distally. This is often used during nasotracheal intubation

a)

Macintosh

b)

Endotrol

c)

Styletless tube

d)

Bougie