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Worksheets

Test 1-100

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does a YANG model provide?

a)

standardized data structure that can be used only with NETCONE or RESTCONF transport protocols

b)

creation of transport protocols and their interaction with the OS

c)

user access to interact directly with the CLI of the device to receive or modify network configurations

d)

standardized data structure independent of the transport protocols

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are required on router R1 to block TP and allow all other traffic from the Branch 2 network? (Choose two)

a)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0

ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.252

ip access-group 101 out

b)

access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.0.101.3 eq ftp-data

access-list 101 permit ip any any

c)

access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.0.101.3 eg ft

access-list 101 permit ip any any

d)

interface GigabitEthernet0/0

ip address 10.0.101.1 255.255.255.252

ip access-group 101 in

e)

access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.0.101.3 eq ftp

access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.0.101.3 eq ftp-data

access-list 101 permit ip any any

3.

What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST?

a)

It is an lET standard.

b)

It does not require a RADIUS server certificate.

c)

It operates in transparent mode

d)

It requires a client certificate.

4.

A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?

a)

three-tier 

b)

routed access

c)

two-tier

d)

Layer 2 access

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which privilege level is assigned to VTY users?

a)

13

b)

7

c)

15

d)

1

6.

Which resource must a hypervisor make available to the virtual machines?

a)

Storage

b)

secure acc

c)

IP address

d)

Bandwidth

7.

In a Cisco Catalyst switch equipped with two supervisor modules, an administrator must temporarily remove the active supervisor from the chassis to perform hardware maintenance on it. Which mechanism ensures that the active supervisor removal is not disruptive to the network operation?

a)

SSO

b)

NSF/NSR

c)

HSRP

d)

VRRP

8.

An engineer must configure interface and sensor monitoring on a router. The NMS server is located in a trusted zone with IP address 10.15.2.19. Communication between the router and the NMS server must be encrypted and password-protected using the most secure algorithms. Access must be allowed only for the NMS server and with the minimum permission levels needed. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

a)

ip access-list standard nms

permit 10.15.2.19 0.0.0.0

shmp-server view ro iso included

snmp-server view ro ifEntry included

snmp-server group ms v3 priv read ro access nms

snmp-server user user1 nms v3 auth sha Password1 pri aes 256 Password 123

b)

ip access-list extended nms

permit 1 host 10.15.2.19 any

snmp-server view ro internet included

snmp-server view ro ifEntry included

snmp-server group ms v3 priv notify ro access nms

snmp-server user user1 nms v3 encrypted auth md5 Password1 pri 3des Password 123

c)

ip access-list standard nms

permit 10.15.2.19 0.0.0.0

snmp-server view rw iso included

Mehn

2024.

snmp-server view.w ifEntry included

snmp-server group nms v3 auth write w access nms

d)

ip access-list standard nms

permit 10.15.2.19 255.255.255.255

snmp-server view ro cisco included

snmp-server view ro ifEntry included

snmp-server group nms v3 priv read ro access nms

snmp-server user user1 nms v3 auth 3des Password1 pri aes 192 Password123

9.

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?

 

a)

The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored.

b)

The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions

c)

The FIB is populated based on RIB content

d)

The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB

10.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the error message relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device?

a)

The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

b)

NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed

c)

A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist.

d)

The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?

a)

intracontroller

b)

Layer 3 intercontroller

c)

Layer 2 intercontroller

d)

indirect

12.

Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?

a)

VPN routing/forwarding

b)

overlay network

c)

easy virtual network

d)

underlay network

13.

Refer to the exhibit. The IP SLA is configured in a router: An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA Which configuration should the engineer use?

a)

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state down

b)

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state unreachable

c)

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state unreachable

d)

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state down

14.

What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

a)

4464

b)

1791

c)

9100

d)

1500

15.

What is one characteristic of Cisco DNA Center and Manage northbound APls?

a)

They push configuration changes down to devices.

b)

They are RESTful APls.

c)

They implement the NETCONF protocol

d)

They exchange XML-formatted content

16.

A network engineer is enabling HTTPS access to the core switch, which requires a certificate to be installed on the switch signed by the corporate certificate authority. Which configuration commands are required to issue a certificate signing request from the core switch?

a)

Core-Switch(config)# ip http secure-trustpoint Core-Switch

Core-Switch(config)# crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

b)

Core-Switch(config)# crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

Core-Switch(config)# ip http secure-trustpoint Core-Switch

c)

Core-Switch(config)# crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch

Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)# enrollment terminal

Core-Switch(config)# crypto pki enroll Core-Switch

d)

Core-Switch(config)# crypto pki trustpoint Core-Switch

Core-Switch(ca-trustpoint)# enrollment terminall

Core-Switch(config)# ip http secure-trustpoint Core-Switch

17.

Which devices does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an IP-based access control policy?

a)

all devices integrating with ISE

b)

all devices in selected sites

c)

selected individual devices

d)

all wired devices

18.

What is a characteristic of VXLAN?

a)

It has a 12-byte packet header

b)

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay

c)

It uses TCP for transport.

d)

It is a multi-tenant solution.

19.

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

a)

WCS location server

b)

wireless LAN controller

c)

access point

d)

wireless client

20.

Refer to the exhibit. Clients are reporting an issue with the voice traffic from the branch site to the central site. What is the cause of this issue?

a)

There is a routing loop on the network

b)

The voice traffic is using the link with less available bandwidth

c)

Traffic is load-balancing over both links, causing packets to arrive out of order

d)

There is a high delay on the WAN links

21.

What is one difference between SaltStack and Ansible?

a)

SaltStack uses SSH to interact with Cisco devices, whereas Ansible uses an event bus.

b)

SaltStack uses the Ansible agent on the box, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet server on the box

c)

SaltStack is constructed with minion, whereas Ansible is constructed with YAML

d)

SaltStack uses an API proxy agent to program Cisco boxes in agent mode, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet connection.

22.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer applies this configuration to R1:

ip nat inside source static 192.168.10.17192.168.27.42

Which command set should be added to complete the configuration?

a)

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

R1 (config-if)# ip nat outside

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/1

R1 (config-if)# ip nat inside

b)

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

R1(config)# ip pat inside

R1 (config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/1

R1(config)# ip pat outside

c)

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

R1 (config)# ip pat outside

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/1

R1(config)# ip pat inside

d)

R1 (config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

R1 (config-if)# ip nat inside

R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/1

R1 (config-if)# ip nat outside

23.

Which version of NetFlow does Cisco Threat Defense utilize to obtain visibility into the network?

a)

8

b)

NBAR2

c)

flexible

d)

IPFIX

24.

In a campus network design, what are two benefits of using BFD for failure detection? (Choose two.)

a)

BFD speeds up routing convergence time.

b)

BFD enables network peers to continue forwarding packets in the event of a restart.

c)

BFD provides fault tolerance by enabling multiple routers to appear as a single virtual router.

d)

BFD provides path failure detection in less than a second

e)

BFD is an efficient way to reduce memory and CPU usage.

25.

Where is the wireless LAN controller located in a mobility express deployment?

a)

The wireless LAN controller is embedded into the access point.

b)

The wireless LAN controller exists in a server that is dedicated for this purpose

c)

The wireless LAN controller exists in the cloud

d)

There is no wireless LAN controller in the network.

26.

Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.)

a)

DHCP Option 43

b)

Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor

c)

broadcasting on the local subnet

d)

DNS lookup CISCO-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain

e)

querying other APs

27.

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

a)

economy of mechanism

b)

least common mechanism

c)

complete mediation

d)

separation of privilege

28.

Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the web server on port 8080. To allow this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port GO/0 in the inbound direction?

a)

permit tcp host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080

b)

permit tcp host 192.168.0.5 It 8080 host 172.16.0.2

c)

permit tcp host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2

d)

permit tcp host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080

29.

An engineer must configure an ACL that permits packets which include an ACK in the TCP header. Which entry must be included in the ACL?

a)

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack

b)

access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

c)

access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack

d)

access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

30.

Which feature is provided by Cisco Mobility Services Engine in a Cisco Wireless Unified Network architecture?

a)

It adds client tracking and location API

b)

It adds client packet capturing

c)

It enables NetFlow data collection

d)

It identifies authentication problems

31.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow the FTP traffic from users on 172.16.1.0/24 to 172.16.2.0/24 and block all other traffic. Which configuration must be applied?

a)

R1 (config)# access-list 120 deny any any

R1(config)# access-list 120 permit tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 172. 16.2.00.0.0.255 21

R1(config)# interface giga 0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 out

b)

R1(config)# access-list 120 permit tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255 20

R1 (config)# access-list 120 permit tcp 172.16.1.00.0.0.255 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255 21

R1 (config)# interface giga 0/2

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 120 in

c)

R1(config)# access-list 120 permit tcp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 21 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255

R1(config)# access-list 120 permit udp 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 21 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255

R1(config)# interface giga 0/2

R1 (config-if)# ip access-group 120 out

d)

R1(config)# access-list 120 permit tcp 172.16,1.00.0.0.255 21 172.16.2.0 0.0.0.255

R1 (config)# interface giga 0/2

R1 (config-if)# ip access-group 120 in

32.

A wireless administrator must create a new web authentication corporate SSID that will be using ISE as the external RADIUS server. The guest VLAN must be specified after the authentication completes. Which action must be performed to allow the ISE server to specify the guest VLAN?

a)

Enable AAA Override

b)

Set AAA Policy name

c)

Enable Network Access Control State

d)

Set RADIUS Profiling

33.

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

a)

{

  "hostname": "edge_router_1",

  "interfaces": {

    "GigabitEthernet1/1"

    "GigabitEthernet1/2"

    "GigabitEthernet1/3"

  }

}

b)

{

  "hostname": "edge_router_1",

  "interfaces": {

    "GigabitEthernet1/1",

    "GigabitEthernet1/2",

    "GigabitEthernet1/3",

  }

}

c)

{

  "hostname": "edge_router_1",

  "interfaces": [

    "GigabitEthernet1/1",

    "GigabitEthernet1/2",

    "GigabitEthernet1/3"

  ]

}

d)

{

  "hostname": "edge_router_1",

  "interfaces": {

    "GigabitEthernet1/1"

    "GigabitEthernet1/2"

    "GigabitEthernet1/3"

  }

}

34.

If the noise floor is -90 dBm and the wireless client is receiving a signal of -75 dBm, what is the SNR?

a)

15

b)

83

c)

-165

d)

1.2

35.

Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are required to allow SSH connections to the router?

a)

Router(config)#access-list 100 permit udp any any eq 22

Router(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 22

Router(config)#class-map class-ssh

Router(config-cmap)#match access-group 101

Router(config)#policy-map CoPP

Router(config-pmap)#police 100000 conform-action transmit

b)

Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any any eq 22

Router(config)#access-list 101 permit tcp any any eq 22

Router(config)#class-map class-ssh

Router(config-cmap)#match access-group 101

Router(config)#policy-map CoPP

Router(config-pmap)#class class-ssh

Router(config-pmap-c#police 100000 conform-action transmit

c)

Router(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp any eq 22 any

Router(config)#class-map class-ssh

Router(config-cmap)#match access-group 10

Router(config)#policy-map CoPP

Router(config-pmap)#class class-ssh

Router(config-pmap-c)#police 100000 conform-action transmit

d)

Router(config)#access-list 10 permit tcp any eq 22 any

Router(config)#class-map class-ssh

Router(config-cmap)#match access-group 10

Router(config)#policy-map CoPP

Router(config-pmap)#class class-ssh

Router(config-pmap-c)#police 100000 conform-action transmit

36.

A customer wants to provide wireless access to contractors using a guest portal on Cisco ISE. The portal is also used by employees. A solution is implemented, but contractors receive a certificate error when they attempt to access the portal. Employees can access the portal without any errors. Which change must be implemented to allow the contractors and employees to access the portal?

a)

Install a trusted third-party certificate on the contractor devices

b)

Install an Internal CA signed certificate on the Cisco ISE

c)

Install an internal CA signed certificate on the contractor devices

d)

Install a trusted third-party certificate on the Cisco ISE

37.

Which Python library is used to work with YANG data models via NETCONF?

a)

cURL

b)

ncclient

c)

Postman

d)

requests

38.

What is one role of the VTEP in a VXLAN environment?

a)

to maintain VLAN configuration consistency

b)

to forward packets to non-LISP sites

c)

to provide EID-to-RLOC mapping

d)

to encapsulate the tunnel

39.

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2?

a)

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed

b)

No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI

c)

Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed

d)

No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router

40.

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 must access resources on Server1. An engineer configures NAT on Router R1 to enable the communication and enters the show command to verity operation. Which IP address is used by the hosts when they communicate globally to Server1?

a)

their own address in the 10.10.10.0/24 range

b)

155.1.1.1

c)

155.1.1.5

d)

random addresses in the 155.1.1.0/24 range

41.

What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

a)

to send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources

b)

to connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network, publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site and respond to map-

request messages

c)

to decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS

d)

to advertise routable non-USP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family

42.

What is used to perform QoS packet classification?

a)

the TOS field in the Layer 3 header

b)

the Options field in the Layer 3 header

c)

the Flags field in the Layer 3 header

d)

the Type field in the Layer 2 frame

43.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an ERSPAN tunnel that mirrors traffic from Linux1 on Switch1 to Linux2 on Switch2.Which command must be added to the source configuration to enable the ERSPAN tunnel?

a)

(config-mon-erspan-src-dst)#traffic bidirectional

b)

(config-mon-erspan-src-dst)#no shut

c)

(config-mon-erspan-src-dst)#ip address 10.10.10.10

d)

(config-mon-erspan-src-dst)monitor session 1 activate

44.

When a DNS host record is configured for a new Cisco AireOS WLC, which hostname must be added to allow APs to successfully discover the WLC?

a)

CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER

b)

CISCO-CONTROLLER-CAPWAP

c)

CAPWAP-CISCO-CONTROLLER

d)

CONTROLLER-CAPWAP-CISCO

45.

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down. Which script must the engineer apply?

a)

event manager applet ENABLE OSPF DEBUG

event syslog pattern "%OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 6, Nbr 1,1.1.1 on Serlal0/0 from FULL to DOWN"

action 1.0 cli command "enable"

action 2.0 cli command "debug ip ospf event"

action 3.0 cli command "debug ip ospf adi"

action 4.0 syslog priority informational msg "ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUG"

b)

event manager applet ENABLE OSPF DEBUG

event syslog pattern "%OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 5, Nbr 1.1.1,1 on Serlal0/0 from LOADING to FUL!

action 1.0 cli command "debug ip ospf event"

action 2.0 cli command "debug ip ospf adj"o

action 3.0 syslog priority informational msg "ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUG"

c)

event manager applet ENABLE_OSPE-DEBUG

event syslog pattern "%OSPE-1-ADJCHG: Process 5, Nbr 1.1.1.1 on Serial0/0 from FULL to DOWN°

action 1.0 cli command "debug ip ospf event"

action 2.0 cll command "debug ip ospf adi"

action 3.0 syslog priority informational msg "ENABLE_OSPF_ DEBUG"

d)

event manager applet ENABLE_OSPF-DEBUG

event syslog pattern"%OSPF-5-ADJCFG. Process 5, Nbr 1.1,1.1 on SerialO/0 from LOADING to FULL"

action 1.0 cli command "enable"

action 2.0 cli command "debug ip ospf event"

action 3.0 cli command "debug ip ospf adj"

action 4.0 syslog priority informational msg "ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUG"

46.

Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site?

a)

ITR

b)

ETR

c)

Proxy ITR

d)

Proxy ETR

47.

When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

a)

RADIUS server

b)

TACACS server

c)

PKI server

d)

NTP server

48.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting an mDNS issue in an environment where Cisco ISE is used to dynamically assign mDNS roles to users. The engineer has confirmed that ISE is sending the correct values, but name resolution is not functioning as expected. Which WLC configuration change resolves the issue?

a)

Enable Aironet IE

b)

Enable AAA Override.

c)

Change NAC state to ISE NAC.

d)

Set MFP client protection to Required

49.

Refer to the exhibit: Which action completes the configuration to achieve a dynamic continuous mapped NAT for all users?

a)

Reconfigure the pool to use the 192.168.1.0 address range

b)

Increase the NAT pool size to support 254 usable addresses

c)

Configure a match-host type NAT pool.

d)

Configure a one-to-one type NAT pool

50.

Which capability does a distributed virtual switch have?

a)

to use floating static routes

b)

to provide centralized management for virtual switches

c)

to use advanced IPsec encryption algorithms

d)

to run dynamic routing protocols

51.

Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is subtracted to determine the EIRP value?

a)

antenna gain

b)

signal-to-noise ratio

c)

antenna cable loss

d)

transmitter power

52.

An engineer is configuring RADIUS-Based Authentication with EAP. MS-CHAPV2 is configured on a client device. Which outer method protocol must be configured on the ISE to support this authentication type?

a)

LDAP

b)

EAP-TLSO

c)

EAP-FAST

d)

PEAP

53.

An engineer must configure an EXEC authorization list that first checks a AAA server then a local username. If both methods fail, the user is denied. Which configuration should be applied?

a)

aaa authorization exec default group radius local

b)

 aaa authorization exec default group radius local none

c)

 aaa authorization exec default local group radius none

d)

aaa authorization exec default local group tacacs+

54.

A network engineer is configuring Flexible NetFlow and enters these commands:

sampler NetFlow1

mode random one-out-of 100

 

interface fastethernet 1/0

flow-sampler NetFlow1

What are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional NetFlow? (Choose two.)

a)

The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

b)

CPU and memory utilization are reduced

c)

Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported

d)

The data export flow is more secure

e)

The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

55.

Which function is performed by Smart in the Cisco SD-WAN architecture?

a)

facilitation of NAT detection and traversal

b)

distribution of IPsec keys

redistribution between

c)

OMP and other routing protocols

d)

execution of localized policies

56.

What is a consideration when designing a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

a)

End user subnets and endpoints are part of the underlay network

b)

It must support IPv4 and IPv6 underlay networks

c)

The underlay switches provide endpoint physical connectivity for users

d)

Static routing is a requirement

57.

What is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?

a)

It is installed on an operating system and supports other operating systems above it

b)

It is completely independent of the operating system

c)

 Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system

d)

It is referred to as a hosted hypervisor

58.

A company recently decided to use RESTCONF instead of NETCONF, and many of their NETCONF Scripts contain the operation < edit-config> (operation="create"). Which RESTCONF operation must be used to replace these statements?

a)

PUT

b)

CREATE

c)

POST

d)

GET

59.

In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of the Identity Services Engine?

a)

It provides GUl management and abstraction via apps that share context

b)

It is used to analyze endpoint to app flows and monitor fabric status

c)

It is leveraged for dynamic endpoint to group mapping and policy definition

d)

It manages the LISP EID database

60.

A client requests a wireless solution for remote branch offices to eliminate the need for a local controller at each branch. The branch users require local termination in a specific VLAN for local internet breakout. Which solution must be deployed?

a)

FlexConnect local switching

b)

central switched

c)

auto-anchor mobility

d)

asymmetric tunneling

61.

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

a)

ip access-list extended NO_HTTP

deny tcp host 10,10.10.1 any eq 80

b)

ip access-list extended 200

deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 eq 80 any

permit ip any any

c)

ip access-list extended 10

deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80

permit ip any any

d)

ip access-list extended 100

deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80

permit ip any any

62.

Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?

a)

82

b)

43

c)

52

d)

60

63.

Refer to the exhibit. What is output by this code?

for x in range(6):

print(x)

a)

0 1 2 3 4

b)

0 1 2 3 4 5

c)

0 5

d)

(0,5)

64.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must configure router B to allow traffic only from network 10.100.2.0 to networks outside of router B. Which configuration must be applied?

a)

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 permit ip 10.100.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

RouterB(config)#int g0/0/0

RouterB(config-if#ip access-group 101 out

RouterB (config)#int g0/0/1

RouterB(config-if)#ip access-group 101 out

b)

 RouterB(config)#access-list 101 permit ip 10.100.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 deny any

RouterB(config)#int g0/0/0

RouterB(config-if)#ip access-group 101 out

c)

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 permit ip 10.100.2.0 0.0.0.255 any

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 deny any

RouterB (config)#int g0/0/2

RouterB(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in

d)

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 permit ip 10.100.3.0 0.0.0.255 any

RouterB(config)#access-list 101 deny any

RouterB(config)int g0/0/0

RouterB(config-if)#ip access-group 101 out

RouterB(config)#int g0/0/1

RouterB(config-if#ip access-group 101 out

65.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must modify the access control list EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the outbound direction on router interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/1. Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows?

a)

config t

ip access-list extended EGRESS2

permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

deny ip any any

!

interface g0/1

no ip access-group EGRESS out

ip access-group EGRESS2 out

b)

config t

ip access-list extended EGRESS

5 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

c)

config t

ip access-list extended EGRESS

permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

d)

config t

ip access-list extended EGRESS

permit ip 10.1.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0

66.

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router handle traffic after the CoPP policy is configured on the router?

a)

Traffic generated by R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed

 

b)

Traffic coming to R1 that does not match access list SNMP is dropped

c)

Traffic passing through R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed

d)

Traffic coming to R1 that matches access list SNMP is policed

67.

Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

a)

shaping

b)

marking

c)

classification

d)

policing

68.

What are two characteristics of a directional antenna? (Choose two.)

a)

receive signals equally from all directions

b)

provides the most focused and narrow beam-width

c)

high gain

d)

commonly used to cover large areas

e)

low gain

69.

Which HTTP status code is the correct response for a request with an incorrect password applied to a REST API session?

a)

HTTP Status Code:401

b)

HTTP Status Code: 504

c)

HTTB Status Code:200

d)

HTTP Status Code:302

70.

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless environment, which device is responsible for hosting the anycast gateway?

a)

fabric edge node

b)

 fusion router

 

c)

control plane node

d)

fabric border node

71.

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, which virtual IP address must be used in this configuration?

a)

1.1.1.1

b)

192.0.2.1

c)

192.168.0.1

d)

172.20.10.1

72.

Refer to the exhibit. Users cannot reach the web server at 192.168. 100.1. What is the root cause for the failure?

a)

The gateway cannot translate the server domain name

b)

The server is attempting to load balance between links 10.100.100.1 and 10.100.200.1

c)

The server is out of service

d)

There is a loop in the path to the server

73.

An engineer must provide wireless coverage in a square office. The engineer has only one AP and believes that it should be placed it in the middle of the room. Which antenna type should the engineer use?

a)

Yagi

b)

directional

c)

Omnidirectional

d)

Polarized

74.

Which characteristic distinguishes Ansible from Chef?

a)

The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix

b)

Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server

c)

Ansible lacks redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode

d)

Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations, Chef uses YAML to manage configurations

75.

Refer to the exhibit. What is output by this code?

count = 8

while count > 4:

print (count)

count -= 1

a)

8 7 6 5

b)

-1 -2 -3 -4

c)

4 5 6 7 0

d)

-4 -5 -6 -7

76.

Which Cisco SD-WAN component authenticates the routers and the Smart controllers?

a)

Bond orchestrator

b)

Manage NMS

c)

vEdge

d)

vAnalytics

77.

How does policy-based routing function?

a)

It processes traffic based on the destination IP address

b)

It processes packets entering an interface and overrides the logic in the routing table

c)

It processes egress packets and changes the next hop based on the destination IP address

d)

It schedules traffic based on policies applied to queues

78.

Which algorithms are used to secure REST API from brute force attacks and minimize the impact?

a)

PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt

b)

SHA-512 and SHA-384

c)

MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384

d)

SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512

79.

What are two benefits of implementing a Cisco SD-WAN architecture? (Choose two.)

a)

It enforces a single, scalable, hub-and-spoke topology

b)

It simplifies endpoint provisioning through standalone router management

c)

It provides resilient and effective traffic flow using MPLS

d)

It allows configuration of applicatlon-aware policies with real time enforcement

e)

It improves endpoint protection by Integrating embedded and cloud security features

80.

Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

a)

SSL

b)

MD5

c)

AES256

d)

AES128

81.

Which virtualization component creates VMs and performs hardware abstraction that allows multiple VMs to run at the same time?

a)

Docker

b)

Container

c)

rkt

d)

hypervisor

82.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures NAT on R1 and enters the show command to verity the configuration. What does the output confirm?

a)

A Telnet session from 160.1.1.1 to 10. 11.10 has been initiated

b)

R1 is configured with PAT overload parameters

c)

The first packet triggered NAT to add an entry to the NAT table

d)

R1 is configured with NAT overload parameters

83.

Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal wireless network with a hidden SSID and RADIUS-based client authentic ation for increased security. An employee attempts to manually add the company network to a laptop, but the laptop does not attempt to connect to the network. The regulatory domains of the access points and the laptop are identical. Which action resolves this issue

a)

Change the security type to WPA2-Personal AES

b)

Limit the enabled wireless channels on the laptop to the maximum channel range that is supported by the access points

c)

Ensure that the "Connect even if this network is not broadcasting" option is selected

d)

Use the empty string as the hidden SSID network name

84.

What is the function of the fabric control plane node In a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

a)

It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric

b)

It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric

c)

It provides Integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments

d)

It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric

85.

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520s at a site directly next to a large commercial airport. Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two.)

a)

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

b)

Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub bands of the 5 Ghz band only

c)

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference

d)

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

e)

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference

86.

A network engineer configures a WLAN controller with increased security for web access. There is IP connectivity with the WLAN controller, but the engineer cannot start a management session from a web browser. Which action resolves the issue?

a)

Use a private or incognito session

b)

Disable Adobe Flash Player

c)

Use a browser that supports 128-bit or larger ciphers

d)

Disable JavaScript on the web browser

87.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a Cisco WLC with WPA2 Enterprise mode and avoid global server lists. Which action is required?

a)

Enable EAP parameters

b)

Select a RADIUS authentication server

c)

Disable the RADIUS server accounting interim update

d)

Apply CISCO ISE default settings

88.

Refer to the exhibit. What is displayed when the code is run?

a)

The answer is 100

b)

The answer is 25

c)

The answer is 5

d)

The answer is 70

89.

An engineer modifies the existing ISE guest portal URL to use a static FQDN. Users immediately report that they receive certificate errors when they are redirected to the new page. Which two additional configuration steps are needed to implement the change? (Choose two.)

a)

Add the FQDN entry under the WLC virtual interface

b)

Add a new DNS record to resolve the FQDN to the PSN IP address

c)

Disable HTTPS on the WLC under the Management menu

d)

Manualy configure the hosts file on each user device

e)

Create and sign a new CSR that contains the static FQDN entry

90.

Which TLV value must be added to Option 43 when DHCP is used to ensure that APs join the WLC?

a)

0x77

b)

642

c)

AAA

d)

0xf1

91.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two.)

a)

The device is using the default HSRP hello timer

b)

The standby device is configured with the default HSRP priority

c)

The device sends unicast messages to its peers

d)

The device is configured with the default HSRP priority

e)

The device's HSRP group uses the virtual IP address 10.0.3.242

92.

How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?

a)

EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

b)

EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost

c)

EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF

d)

EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors

93.

An engineer must configure a multicast UDP jitter operation. Which configuration should be applied?

a)

Router(config)#ip sla 1

Router(config)#udp jitter 10.0.0.1 source-ip 192. 168. 1.1

b)

Router(config)#ip sla 1

Router(config)#udp-jitter 192.0.2.115 65051 num-packets 20

c)

Router(config)#ip sla 1

Router(config)#udp jitter 239.1.1.1 65051 end-point list List source-ip 192.168.1.1

d)

Router(config)#ip sla 1

Router(config)#udp-jitter 192.0.2.115 65051

94.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must log in to the router via the console, but the RADIUS servers are not reachable. Which credentials allow console access?

a)

no username and only the password "cisco 123"

b)

the username "cisco" and the password "cisco 123"

c)

no username and only the password "test 123"

d)

the username "cisco" and the password "cisco"

95.

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

a)

referred to as bare-metal

b)

ideal for client/end-user system

c)

ideal for data center

d)

complicated deployment

96.

Which activity requires access to Cisco DNA Center CLI?

a)

provisioning a wireless LAN controller

b)

graceful shutdown of Cisco DNA Center

c)

upgrading the Cisco DNA Center software

d)

creating a configuration template

97.

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

a)

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails

b)

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller

c)

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between itself and the primary controller

d)

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs

98.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command filters the ERSPAN session packets only to interface GigabitEthernet1?

a)

source interface gigabitethernet1 ip 10.10.10.1

b)

destination ip 10.10.10.1

c)

source ip 10.10.10.1

d)

filter access-group 10

99.

When is GLBP preferred over HSRP?

a)

When the gateway routers are a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco routers

b)

When the traffic load needs to be shared between multiple gateways using a single virtual IP

c)

When clients need the gateway MAC address to be the same between multiple gateways

d)

When encrypted hellos are required between gateways in a single group

100.

Which action is a LISP ITR responsible for?

a)

accepting registration requests from ETRs

b)

responding to map-request messages

c)

forwarding user data traffic

d)

finding EID-to-RLOC mappings