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MGMT 2: fiscal, org. planning and power

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the difference between for profit and not for profit

a)

for profit ownership where there are stocks with paid dividends

b)

not for profit where profits are turned back into the organizatin

c)

for profit where the patients pay out of pocket

d)

not for profit where everything is free

2.

Cost containment is considered effective and efficient delivery of services while generating revenues. What would be an example of this

a)
Increasing administrative costs
b)
Reducing staff training programs
c)
Expanding unnecessary services
d)

having a nurse “on call” verses working during low census

3.

Cost effective fiscal planning involves producing good results for the amount of money spent. What would be an example of this

a)

antibiotic dressing for wound/incision

b)
Investing in outdated technology
c)
Hiring unqualified personnel
d)
Ignoring budget constraints
4.

What step of the nursing process is occurring when staff figures out what is needed in the budget

a)
Planning
b)
Implementation
c)
Evaluation
d)
Assessment
5.

What step of the nursing process in fiscal planning is occurring when you figure out what is needing to be accomplished

a)
Assessment
b)

diagnosis

c)
Implementation
d)
Evaluation
6.

What is a plan that uses numerical data to predict the activities of an organization over a period of time

a)
Strategic forecast
b)

budget

c)

estimation

d)
Operational projection
7.

What type of budgeting is simple, flat or % increase over current expenses

a)
Performance-based budgeting
b)
Incremental budgeting
c)
Zero-based budgeting
d)
Activity-based budgeting
8.

What type of budgeting requires justification for expenses (labor intensive)

a)
Incremental budgeting
b)

activty-based budgeting

c)
Performance-based budgeting
d)
Zero-based budgeting
9.

Performance budgeting requires what

a)

Setting specific targets and outcome measures

b)
Assigning unlimited resources to government programs
c)
Not monitoring the performance of government programs
d)
Setting vague targets for resource allocation
10.

Flexible budgeting can be characterized by which of the following

a)
Setting the budget once at the beginning of the period and not making any changes
b)
Ignoring actual activity levels and sticking to the original budget
c)
Adjusting the budget based on actual activity levels
d)
Creating a budget based on estimated activity levels without any adjustments
11.

Operational budgets involve which of the following

a)

day to day budget

b)

includes personnel, supplies, rent, utilities

c)

long term planning

d)

buildings

12.

What type of budget is similar to a savings account where buildings, major equipment, and extra money is put.

a)
Operational budget
b)
Personal budget
c)
Emergency budget
d)
Capital budget
13.

calculate full-time equivalent of a worker that worked 36 hours in a week

a)
0.9 FTE
b)
1.2 FTE
c)
0.6 FTE
d)
0.3 FTE
14.

Nurse manager is approved to hire 2 Full-time nurses to work 36 hours per week. How many FTE’s are being hired?

a)
1.4
b)
2.2
c)
1.8
d)
1.6
15.

How would you calculate Nursing Care Hours

a)
Divide the number of nurses by the number of hours worked.
b)
Add the number of nurses to the number of hours worked.
c)

Divide the number of nursing hours worked by the patient census

d)
Subtract the number of nurses from the number of hours worked.
16.

What does “fee for service” reimbursement mean and how did it contribute to spiraling health care costs?

a)
Fee for service reimbursement incentivizes more tests and procedures, contributing to overutilization and increased healthcare costs.
b)
Fee for service reimbursement encourages preventive care and cost-saving measures
c)
Fee for service reimbursement leads to decreased patient satisfaction
d)
Fee for service reimbursement reduces the quality of healthcare services
17.

Medicare was established in 1965. What role does part A and part B play?

a)

part A funded the social security tax and federal taxes

b)

part B subsidized 75% of federal gov. and 25% subscribers

c)

part A sent money to the troops

d)

Part B went to tax returns state by state

18.

Majority of medicaid recipients come from which two demographics

a)

women and children

b)
middle-income and elderly
c)
unemployed and veterans
d)
high-income and children
19.

What are diagnosis related groups

a)

predetermined payment schedules that reflect historical costs for the treatment of specific patient conditions.

b)
DRGs are a type of medical equipment
c)
DRGs are a form of patient insurance
d)
DRGs are a type of surgical procedure
20.

As a result of the PPS and the need to contain costs, the length of stay for most hospital admissions has....

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

stayed the same

d)

tripled

21.

This law passed in 2010 promised significant reductions in numbers of uninsured people, greater access to coverage for those with preexisting conditions, and mandated health care insurance provision by employers.

a)
Affordable Care Act (ACA) or Obamacare
b)
Medicare for All
c)
Medicaid Expansion Act
d)
Healthcare Reform Act
22.

What is value based purchasing

a)
Value-based purchasing is a marketing strategy for retail businesses.
b)

a healthcare delivery model based on rewarding providers for quality and efficiency of care.

c)
Value-based purchasing is a type of currency used in online transactions.
d)
Value-based purchasing is a form of entertainment popular in the 19th century.
23.

What concept occurs when providers are held accountable for the quality and cost of the health-care services they provide by a system of rewards and consequences, conditional upon achieving prespecified performance measures.

a)
Accountable Care Organization
b)
Capitation
c)

Value-Based purchasing/care

d)
Fee-for-Service
24.

What three aspects are included in the published future of nursing

a)

ADVANCING HEALTH EQUITY BY EXPANDING
NURSING ROLES AND FUNCTIONS

b)

PAYMENT SYSTEMS THAT SUPPORT AND INCENTIVIZE

c)

PAYMENT SYSTEMS OPPORTUNITIES

25.

What is forecasting in planning

a)
Ignoring historical data and trends
b)
Copying previous plans without adjustments
c)
Guessing without any data analysis
d)
Predicting future trends or events based on historical data and analysis.
26.

Organizations and planners tend to use one of the four planning modes which include

a)
strategic planning, tactical planning, operational planning, and emergency planning
b)

Reactive

Inactivism

Preactivism

Proactive

c)
long-term planning, short-term planning, daily planning, and crisis planning
d)
strategic planning, financial planning, marketing planning, and risk planning
27.

Normally the goal in planning style where you purposefully plan ahead

a)
tactical planning
b)

proactive planning

c)
operational planning
d)
random planning
28.

Mitchell waits until a problem exist and planning is neccesary. What type of planning style is he using

a)
Reactive planning
b)
Predictive planning
c)
Proactive planning
d)
Preventive planning
29.

What are some strategies of organizational planning

a)
Ignoring feedback from employees
b)
Setting clear goals, creating action plans, allocating resources effectively, establishing communication channels, monitoring progress, and adapting to changes.
c)
Implementing random changes without a plan
d)
Focusing solely on short-term goals
30.

Generally, complex organizational plans that involve a long period (usually 3 to 7 years) are referred to as long-range or

a)
Medium-range plans
b)
Immediate plans
c)
Short-term plans
d)

strategic plans

31.

What tool to assist in planning that highlights strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats

a)
SWOT matrix
b)
Opportunity matrix
c)
PEST analysis
d)
SWOT analysis
32.

What two parts of the SWOT analysis in planning is external and which two are internal

a)

strengths and weaknesses internal

b)

strengths and opportunities internal

c)

opportunities and threats external

d)

threats and weaknesses external

33.

A balanced scorecard analyzes data from what four organizational perspectives

a)
financial, customer, external business processes, and learning and growth
b)
financial, consumer, internal business processes, and learning and development
c)
financial, client, internal business processes, and learning and growth
d)
financial, customer, internal business processes, and learning and growth
34.

What is the planning hierarchy

a)
Types of employees in an organization
b)

Mission

Philosophy

Goals

Objectives

Policies

Procedures

Rules

c)
Levels of planning within an organization
d)
Categories of office supplies
35.

Used to describe future goals or aims of an organization

a)
Operational tactics
b)
Tactical execution
c)
Strategic management
d)

vision

36.

Highest priority in planning

Influences the organization’s philosophy, goals, objectives, policies and rules

a)
Mission statement
b)
Employee handbook
c)
Core values
d)
Vision statement
37.

Flows from the mission statement

Delineates values and beliefs

Guides all actions of the organization

a)
Employee benefits
b)
Financial projections
c)

philosophy

d)
Vision and goals
38.

Which are correctly paired

a)

goal--> the desired result toward which effort is directed

b)

objective --> how the goal will specifically be achieved (SMART GOAL)

c)

policies --> plans reduced to statements

d)

procedures --> step by step process

e)

rules --> plans that specifically define acceptable choices of action

39.

The authority that enables one to meet their goals

The capacity to act or the strength and potency to accomplish something is considered

a)
Authority
b)
Enablement
c)

power

d)
Capability
40.

TRUE OR FALSE: Power is likely to bring more power in an ascending cycle, whereas powerlessness will only generate more powerlessness.

a)
MAYBE
b)
TRUE
c)
POSSIBLE
d)
FALSE
41.

the legitimate right to command, accompanies any management position

a)
Authorized right to request
b)

Legal

c)

Illegitimate

d)

authority

42.

Response to authority involves which three aspects

a)

legitmate authority of the position

b)

percieved power of the manager

c)

socialization of individuals to power/authority figures

d)

the volume of people

43.

When does authority power gap exist

a)

•when someone in authority issues orders and they are not followed.

b)
When formal authority matches actual power.
c)
When there is no hierarchy in place.
d)
When there is a balance between authority and power.
44.

the negative effect of a wide authority power gap is that ....

a)

organizational chaos may develop.

b)
boosted employee morale, trust, effective communication, and facilitated decision-making processes
c)
enhanced employee morale, trust, effective communication, and streamlined decision-making processes
d)
increased employee morale, trust, effective communication, and improved decision-making processes
45.

What is true of the authority-power gap

a)

Widens as the manager expresses a personal interest in their employees

b)

Can be decreased by the visible exercise of authority in decision making

c)

Increases when the manager loses credibility with employees

d)

Is influenced by how much status the manager has

46.

true or false: it is better to underpromise rather than overpromise

a)
true
b)
maybe
c)
false
d)
sometimes
47.

What is queen bee syndrome

a)
A popular board game involving worker bees
b)
A type of insect that rules over a hive
c)
A woman in a position of authority treating female subordinates more critically, hindering their career advancement.
d)
A term used to describe a woman who is admired by others
48.

•The art of using legitimate power wisely

•Requires clear decision making, assertiveness, accountability, and the willingness to express one’s own views

•Requires being proactive rather than reactive and demands decisiveness

a)
Followership
b)

politics

c)
Isolation
d)
Passivity

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