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N5 BM Section 2 PP Qs UB/M/OP/HR only

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the reward for land in the factors of production?

a)

Wages

b)

Interest

c)

Profit

d)

Rent

2.

Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?

a)

Enterprise

b)

Capital

c)

Labour

d)

Investment

3.

What is the reward for labour in the factors of production?

a)

Rent

b)

Wages

c)

Interest

d)

Profit

4.

What is a non-durable good?

a)

A good that can be used multiple times

b)

A good that lasts a long time

c)

A single use good

d)

A good that is not essential

5.

Which of the following sectors is owned by private individuals and investors?

a)

Private sector

b)

Public sector

c)

Third sector

d)

Voluntary sector

6.

Which sector is funded by taxes?

a)

Private sector

b)

Public sector

c)

Third sector

d)

Voluntary sector

7.

What is a common objective of both the third and public sector organisations?

a)

To make a profit

b)

To use public funds effectively

c)

To increase awareness/sales

d)

To be socially responsible

8.

What is the main objective of private sector organisations?

a)

To provide a service

b)

To be socially responsible

c)

To make a profit

d)

To increase awareness

9.

What is one of the advantages of setting up a business as a sole trader?

a)

The owner has to share the profits with others.

b)

The owner has unlimited liability.

c)

The owner gets to keep all the profits to themselves.

d)

It is difficult to take time off for holidays or if sick.

10.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of operating as a sole trader?

a)

The owner gets to make all the decisions.

b)

Customers receive a more personal service.

c)

The owner has unlimited liability.

d)

It is very easy to set up.

11.

What is a disadvantage of being a private limited company?

a)

Increased finance through shareholders and lenders.

b)

Shareholders have limited liability.

c)

Control of the company is not lost to outsiders.

d)

Directors and shareholders expertise and experience can be called upon.

12.

How is financial risk managed in a private limited company?

a)

The owner has unlimited liability.

b)

Financial risk is spread between the shareholders.

c)

Finance is limited to what the owner can invest.

d)

All shareholders have to be agreed upon and invited to invest.

13.

What is one of the objectives of an organisation in the public sector?

a)

Maximizing shareholder wealth

b)

Providing a high quality service to others

c)

Focusing solely on profit-making

d)

Expanding market share internationally

14.

Why is good customer service important for an organisation?

a)

It reduces the overall cost of the products sold

b)

It ensures that customers do not return the products

c)

It may increase sales and profit due to higher customer retention

d)

It eliminates the need for a returns policy

15.

Which of the following is a method of ensuring good customer service?

a)

Decreasing the number of staff

b)

Ignoring customer feedback

c)

Having a good aftersales service

d)

Avoiding the use of quality indicators

16.

How can an organisation ensure good customer service during busy periods?

a)

By reducing the number of products offered

b)

By employing extra staff to cover busy periods

c)

By increasing prices during peak times

d)

By limiting the hours of operation

17.

Which of the following is an internal factor that can affect the success of an organisation according to the learning material?

a)

Political changes

b)

Availability of finance

c)

Consumer tastes and fashion

d)

Introduction of new technology in the market

18.

How might having up-to-date technology influence an organisation's performance?

a)

It may decrease profits due to the National Minimum Wage.

b)

It may require the organisation to update its products.

c)

It may allow the organisation to produce quality products.

d)

It may lead to a decrease in customer satisfaction.

19.

What could be a consequence of staff receiving training within an organisation?

a)

Decrease in profits due to increased costs.

b)

Staff may become more productive.

c)

Staff may require more time off.

d)

Staff may feel less loyal to the organisation.

20.

Which of the following is not mentioned as a potential response regarding internal factors that could affect the success of an organisation?

a)

Quality of products

b)

Availability of staff

c)

Leadership/Quality of management

d)

Customer service improvements

21.

Which of the following is a way in which employees can influence the success of a supermarket organization?

a)

By changing taxation levels.

b)

By offering trade credit.

c)

By varying the quality of the work they produce.

d)

By choosing to approve/not approve loan applications.

22.

How can government influence the success of a supermarket organization?

a)

By making major decisions which can lead to mistakes being made resulting in less profit.

b)

By changing legislation which may cost the organization more money to implement.

c)

By carrying out negative advertising/demonstrations.

d)

By offering trade credit.

23.

What is one of the ways in which customers can influence the level of sales of a supermarket organization?

a)

Through the setting of interest rates.

b)

By petitioning and making complaints to the local council.

c)

By taking their custom elsewhere which influences the organization’s level of sales.

d)

By approving or not approving loan applications.

24.

Which stakeholder group can influence a private limited company by offering trade credit?

a)

Employees

b)

Suppliers

c)

Bank/Lenders

d)

Government

25.

How can local community influence a private limited company?

a)

By changing taxation levels.

b)

By offering trade credit.

c)

By petitioning and making complaints to the local council.

d)

Through the decisions they make.

26.

Which action by pressure groups can affect a private limited company?

a)

By choosing to approve/not approve loan applications.

b)

By carrying out negative advertising/demonstrations.

c)

By offering trade credit.

d)

Through the setting of interest rates.

27.

What is desk research primarily based on?

a)

Collecting and analyzing first-hand primary data

b)

Evaluation of secondary data

c)

Direct interviews with consumers

d)

Conducting surveys and focus groups

28.

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of desk research?

a)

It is relatively inexpensive

b)

It may be out-of-date

c)

It is specific to the purpose it was collected for

d)

It is available to competitors, whereas field research can be kept confidential

29.

What is a benefit of using desk research?

a)

It requires extensive training for researchers

b)

It is time-consuming to collect and analyze

c)

It is relatively inexpensive compared to field research

d)

It is always up-to-date and current

30.

What is one of the purposes of market research?

a)

To waste time standing in streets trying to get first-hand information

b)

To replicate or get ideas from competitors

c)

To ensure the product has a low chance of success

d)

To set a lower selling price than necessary

31.

Which of the following is an advantage of branding to an organization?

a)

Brands are less recognizable to customers.

b)

Branding can lead to a decrease in market share.

c)

Brand loyalty can lead to increased repeat purchases.

d)

Marketing campaigns for branded products cannot be global.

32.

What is one of the stages in the product life cycle that follows the introduction stage?

a)

Maturity

b)

Decline

c)

Growth

d)

Development

33.

Which of the following is a stage of product development?

a)

Launching a marketing campaign

b)

Analyzing the market share

c)

Testing the product

d)

Increasing sales volume

34.

Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider before setting the price of a product?

a)

The cost of raw materials

b)

Competitors' prices

c)

The color preferences of the CEO

d)

The image of the product

35.

Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?

a)

Product

b)

Price

c)

Promotion

d)

Packaging

36.

Which of the following is NOT a method of sales promotion?

a)

BOGOF - buy one get one free

b)

Bonus packs - getting extra for the same price

c)

Free gift within the packs

d)

Increasing the product size without changing the price

37.

What is the purpose of using celebrity endorsement as a sales promotion method?

a)

To reduce the cost of the product

b)

To encourage fans of the celebrity to buy the product

c)

To provide legal credibility to the product

d)

To extend the product life cycle

38.

Which of the following is NOT a factor an organisation might consider when choosing a supplier?

a)

The supplier's price competitiveness

b)

The quality of the raw materials provided by the supplier

c)

The supplier's celebrity endorsement

d)

The supplier's ability to deliver the correct quantity

39.

What is a potential problem of having too much stock?

a)

Increased security costs

b)

Reduced administration costs

c)

Decreased insurance costs

d)

Lower chance of theft

40.

What is a consequence of under-stocking?

a)

It becomes easier to cope with unexpected changes in demand

b)

It reduces the risk of goods becoming obsolete

c)

It may lead to customers going elsewhere due to the product shortage

d)

It allows for bulk buying and reduced unit costs

41.

Which of the following is a problem associated with over-stocking?

a)

Lower insurance costs

b)

Increased unit costs due to not bulk buying

c)

Decreased risk of theft

d)

The stock may deteriorate resulting in larger wastage costs

42.

What is the definition of 'Maximum inventory (stock) level'?

a)

The time from placing the order to the goods being delivered

b)

The highest level of inventory that should be held at any one time

c)

The amount of inventory required to meet customer demand

d)

The minimum quantity of stock that should be kept on hand

43.

What does 'Lead time' refer to in inventory management?

a)

The time it takes for a product to become obsolete

b)

The time from placing the order to the goods being delivered

c)

The duration of the production process

d)

The period required to restock an item once it runs out

44.

Which of the following is a consequence of over-stocking?

a)

Reduced storage space required

b)

Lower storage/insurance costs

c)

Goods may become obsolete

d)

Decreased chance of theft

45.

What is a potential consequence of too much cash being tied up in inventory due to overstocking?

a)

Increased cash flow

b)

Cash flow problems

c)

Lower warehousing costs

d)

More space available for production

46.

Which of the following is a method of production?

a)

Standardisation

b)

Job production

c)

Automation

d)

Inventory management

47.

What is an advantage of using automation in production?

a)

More workers are required

b)

Higher chances of product variability

c)

Identical products are made

d)

Increased complaints regarding flaws/faults

48.

What is a disadvantage of using machinery and robotics in production?

a)

Machines can operate 24/7

b)

Large amounts of machinery and robotics are required

c)

Machinery can break down

d)

Difficult to make products to meet customers' individual requirements

49.

Which of the following is not a method of production?

a)

Job

b)

Batch

c)

Flow

d)

Random

50.

What is an advantage of batch production?

a)

Large amounts can be made

b)

Less skilled employees required

c)

Automated process meaning high quality result

d)

All of the above

51.

Which factor is not mentioned as something to consider when choosing a suitable method of production?

a)

The nature of the product

b)

The cost of technology/machinery

c)

The size of the premises

d)

The color of the product

52.

What is a disadvantage of batch production?

a)

Economies of scale gained

b)

Equipment needs to be cleaned between batches

c)

Batches can be customised to meet the customer's requirements

d)

Less human error

53.

Which of the following is NOT a method of ensuring quality?

a)

Quality Circles

b)

Quality Assurance

c)

Quality Control

d)

Quality Competition

54.

What is the main purpose of Quality Circles?

a)

To award a quality logo when the product reaches the required standard

b)

To ensure 'right first time' and prevent errors

c)

To match the standard of the quality leader/competitor

d)

To discuss how to improve methods of working

55.

Which of the following is a reason why good recruitment and selection process is considered a quality input in the production process?

a)

It helps to match the standard of the quality leader/competitor

b)

It ensures that all staff are trained and competent

c)

It checks at the beginning and end of the production process only

d)

It awards a quality logo when the product reaches the required standard

56.

What is a potential outcome of using quality raw materials as a quality input?

a)

It can meet safety targets

b)

It reduces the number of accidents in the workplace

c)

It reduces cost to the organisation

d)

All of the above

57.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a method to ensure the quality of finished goods?

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Quality standards

d)

Quality competition

58.

What is a method used by an organisation to ensure quality at the beginning and end of the production process?

a)

Training staff to ensure they can produce goods to the best quality

b)

Ensuring that raw materials are the best that they can be

c)

Quality is checked at the beginning (inputs) and end (outputs) of the production process

d)

Using quality management processes to reduce waste

59.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of recycling to an organisation?

a)

Takes less energy to recycle than to extract new materials

b)

May give a competitive edge

c)

Need to be sorted into different categories which takes time to do

d)

Items can be reused to make new products

60.

How can an operations department be environmentally friendly by managing waste?

a)

By using quality management processes

b)

By having special controls fitted to lights

c)

By recycling packaging/waste products

d)

By ensuring the recruitment process gets the best staff

61.

Which of the following is a benefit of ethical operations for an organisation?

a)

It limits the organisation's public image.

b)

It may help the organisation win awards.

c)

It increases the cost of production.

d)

It increases the amount of waste in landfills.

62.

What is an advantage of computerised stock control?

a)

Increases the need for stock-taking.

b)

Stock levels are unknown.

c)

Identifies best sellers/non-movers to aid in managerial decisions.

d)

Delays in finding stock levels.

63.

Which technology can be used to keep a running total of inventory in hand?

a)

GPS

b)

CAD (Computer Aided Design)

c)

Database/EPOS

d)

CAM (Computer Aided Manufacture)

64.

How can CAM (Computer Aided Manufacture) be beneficial to a business?

a)

It can be used to track deliveries.

b)

It can be used to design products on a computer screen.

c)

It can help control the machinery of the business.

d)

It can be used to order inventory online.

65.

What is a use of GPS technology within the operations functions of an organisation?

a)

To help control the machinery of the business.

b)

To keep track of deliveries.

c)

To design products on a computer screen.

d)

To locate inventory within the warehouse.

66.

What is the first step in the selection process to choose the right person for the job?

a)

Testing to provide additional information as to a candidate's suitability

b)

Collecting CVs/application forms

c)

Seeking references from previous employers

d)

Informing unsuccessful candidate(s)

67.

Which of the following is NOT included in the responses for describing the stages of the recruitment process?

a)

Identify the vacancy

b)

Advertise the job

c)

Send out application forms

d)

Negotiate the salary with candidates

68.

What does a person specification contain?

a)

The tasks and responsibilities of the job

b)

The conditions of the post e.g., pay, hours

c)

The essential and desirable characteristics of the ideal candidate

d)

A standard form for candidates to complete with personal details

69.

Where can a job advert be placed?

a)

Only on the organization's intranet

b)

Only in newspapers

c)

Internally or externally, including intranet, noticeboards, newspapers, job centres etc.

d)

Only through direct emails to potential candidates

70.

What is the purpose of asking each potential employee a series of questions during an interview?

a)

To finalize the job offer

b)

To test the candidate's negotiation skills

c)

To allow for comparison

d)

To inform the candidate about the job role

71.

Which of the following is a benefit of internal recruitment over external recruitment?

a)

Internal recruitment can attract candidates with new ideas.

b)

Internal recruitment ensures candidates already have knowledge of the organisation.

c)

External recruitment is more cost-effective.

d)

External recruitment can take a very long time.

72.

What is a potential disadvantage of internal recruitment mentioned in the text?

a)

It can create another vacancy within the organisation.

b)

It is less effective as advertising can be done on staff newsletters or intranet.

c)

It is motivating for staff who see a promotion path.

d)

It can be advertised on noticeboards and via email.

73.

Which method of selecting the right person for a job allows an organisation to compare each candidate with a set of identical questions?

a)

Application form/CV.

b)

References.

c)

Testing.

d)

Interviews.

74.

What is one way that testing a candidate during the recruitment process can be beneficial?

a)

To compare against the job description and person specification.

b)

To see if the candidate has the necessary qualifications/experience.

c)

To assess a candidate's performance to see if they can work under pressure.

d)

To create a short list of potential candidates.

75.

Which of the following is a benefit of training employees?

a)

Employees who are trained will be less motivated.

b)

Employees who are trained will be less efficient at their job.

c)

Employees who are trained will have better skills meaning a higher quality output.

d)

Employees who are trained are more likely to be absent.

76.

Which of the following is a reason for an organisation to train its staff?

a)

To decrease staff motivation

b)

To make staff feel undervalued

c)

To increase errors/wastage in production

d)

To enhance staff competence

77.

What is a potential outcome of increased staff motivation due to training?

a)

Reduced staff turnover

b)

Decreased productivity

c)

Lower quality work

d)

Increased errors in production

78.

How does piece-rate pay differ from time-rate pay?

a)

Piece-rate is based on the number of hours worked, while time-rate is based on the units produced.

b)

Piece-rate is often used for skilled workers, while time-rate is often used for unskilled workers.

c)

Piece-rate rewards quality over quantity, while time-rate rewards quantity over quality.

d)

Piece-rate pays more for less units produced, while time-rate pays more for more hours worked.

79.

Which of the following working practices can be used to motivate staff?

a)

Flex-time/flexible working

b)

Standardized working hours

c)

No opportunity for teleworking

d)

Fixed job roles with no job sharing

80.

What is one method of industrial action where employees remain in the workplace but do not work?

a)

Overtime ban

b)

Sit in

c)

Lock out

d)

Go slow

81.

Which of the following is a consequence of a strike as a form of industrial action?

a)

Increased production rate

b)

Employees undertake additional tasks beyond their job description

c)

Withdrawal of labour/refusal to work by employees

d)

Employees are locked out of the business premises

82.

What are the responsibilities of the employer under Health and Safety legislation?

a)

Provide a competitive salary and ensure job security

b)

Make the workplace safe and prevent risks to health

c)

Offer shares of the company to the employees

d)

Ensure all employees have a company car

83.

Which of the following is NOT a method of industrial action?

a)

Sit in

b)

Overtime ban

c)

Work to rule

d)

Employee training

84.

What could be an impact of industrial action on an organization?

a)

Increased productivity and efficiency

b)

Improved employee morale and teamwork

c)

Production within the organization may come to a halt

d)

Expansion into new markets

85.

Which of the following is not a piece of legislation that exists to protect employees?

a)

Equality Act

b)

Health & Safety at Work Act

c)

National Minimum Wage

d)

Employment Equality Act

86.

What is a potential effect of industrial action?

a)

Increase in employee morale

b)

Decrease in production

c)

Improvement in the company's image

d)

Reduction in staff turnover

87.

Which of the following is not a feature of the Health and Safety at Work Act?

a)

Employees must take reasonable care of themselves and other workers

b)

Employees must report safety issues

c)

Employees are allowed to ignore H&S policy if it interferes with their work

d)

Safety training must be provided for employees

88.

What role does technology play in the recruitment and selection of staff?

a)

It eliminates the need for interviews

b)

It allows for pre-employment online screening

c)

It reduces the number of applicants

d)

It guarantees the selection of the most qualified candidate

89.

Which of the following is not an impact of technology on working practices?

a)

Software packages with remote access allow flexible working arrangements

b)

Video conferencing reduces travel time and cost

c)

Email enables employees to communicate with their job partner from home

d)

Technology ensures a higher rate of job security