wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Unit 04: Cellular Communication Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do second messengers do?

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer

b)

relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

c)

relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm

d)

dampen the message

2.

An example of DIRECT cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

3.

An example of endocrine cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

4.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
5.
This is an example of
a)
paracrine signaling
b)
synaptic signaling
c)
long-distance signaling
d)
all of the above
6.

What is being depicted in the image?

a)

Amplification of the signal molecule

b)

Enzymatic proteins inhibiting process of the signal transduction pathway

c)

Kinase groups adding dimer groups to other enzymes

d)

Diffusion of molecules within the cell due to the signaling molecule

7.

Ligands are signaling molecules that bind to receptors. Which of the following statements is true of ligands?

a)

All ligands are proteins.

b)

Each ligand is only able to bind to one specific receptor

c)

Ligands can bind to cell-surface receptors, but they cannot enter the cell

d)

Ligands bond to receptor proteins and cause the protein to relay a message to intracellular proteins.

8.

Which letter represents the cell surface receptor protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

9.
Which of the following correctly describes the reception stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
protein kinases phosphoylate molecules
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
10.
Which of the following correctly describes the transduction stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
cAMP binds to the g-protein coupled receptor protein
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
11.
Which of the following correctly describes the response stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
cAMP binds to the g-protein coupled receptor protein
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
12.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
13.

What type of signaling is shown here?

a)

autocrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

d)

paracrine

14.

Long distance signals involving hormones are ________ signals.

a)

paracrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

15.

An example of LOCAL cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

16.
Do plant cells communicate using hormones?
a)
yes
b)
no
17.

Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?

a)

hormone

b)

local regulator

c)

endocrine cell

d)

plasmodesmata

18.

Choose the correct order of communication.

a)

reception, response, transduction

b)

transduction, reception, response

c)

response, transduction, reception

d)

reception, transduction, response

19.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
20.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
21.

A cell converting a chemical signal into a cellular response is known as __.

a)

energetics

b)

transduction

c)

ligand response

d)

transformation

22.

What do secondary messengers, like cAMP, do?

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer

b)

relay & amplify a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

c)

relay & amplify a message from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm

d)

dampen the message

23.

What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?

a)

gated ion channel

b)

G-protein receptor

24.

A protein called Sonic Hedgehog plays a key role in vertebrate embryonic development. When this protein is released by secretory cells, it travels through the extracellular fluid and signals adjacent cells to go through the process of cell differentiation (process of cells becoming specialized). Sonic hedgehog is thought to be especially important for the development of the brain and limbs. What type of signaling is this an example of?

a)

Synaptic Signaling (Local)

b)

Paracrine Signaling (Local)

c)

Endocrine Signaling (Long Distance)

25.

Adjacent plant cells have narrow channels called plasmodesmata that pass through the cell walls of the connected cells and allow a cytoplasmic connection between the cells.

Which of the following statements best describes a primary function of plasmodesmata?

a)

They allow the movement of molecules from one cell to another, enabling communication between cells.

b)

They prevent the cell membrane from pulling away from the cell wall during periods of drought.

c)

They eliminate the need to produce signaling molecules and eliminate the need for cells to have receptors for signaling molecules.

d)

They increase the surface area available for attachment of ribosomes and thus increase protein synthesis.

26.

Which of the following represents a signaling molecule that acts long-distance?

a)

hormone

b)

saccharide

c)

second messengers

d)

neurotransmitter

27.

True/False: steroid hormones (non-polar/hydrophobic molecules) can passively diffuse across membranes.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What is it called when you add energy to a molecule via the addition of a phosphate

a)

energization

b)

phosphorylation

c)

phosphorylase

29.

Largests category of cell surface receptors, important in animal sensory systems

a)

GPCRs

b)

Ion Channels

c)

Cation Channels

d)

CPCRs

30.

Located in the plasma membrane, important to the nervous system, receptors act as a gate

a)

GPCRs

b)

Ion Channels

c)

Cation Channels

d)

CPCRs

31.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

32.

This type of cell signaling will only be effective...

a)

over long distances (endocrine)

b)

when cells are in direct contact (juxtacrine)

c)

when responding to its own ligands (autocrine)

d)

if cells are nearby (paracrine)

33.

If ATP were unavailable, what would be the effect on this pathway?

a)

Protein kinase A would not be produced

b)

GDP would not bind to the transmembrane protein

c)

The hormone would not bind to the transmembrane protein

d)

The secondary messenger would not be produced

34.

Classify the image by their type of communication.

a)

Direct Contact (Animal Cell)

b)

Direct Contact (Plant Cell)

c)

Long Distance / Endocrine Signaling

d)

Local Signaling / Paracrine

e)

Local Signaling / Synaptic Signaling

35.

Classify the image by their type of communication.

a)

Direct Contact (Animal Cell)

b)

Direct Contact (Plant Cell)

c)

Long Distance / Endocrine Signaling

d)

Local Signaling / Paracrine

e)

Local Signaling / Synaptic Signaling

36.

What is direct contact communication in animal cells called?

a)

Gap Junctions

b)

Plasmodesmata

c)

Endosymbiosis

d)

Spongebob / Patrick Junction

37.

What is the stage of signal transduction labeled A?

a)

Transduction

b)

Response

c)

Reception

d)

Endocrine

38.

How do bacteria sense local population density?

a)

quorum sensing

b)

bacteria sensing

c)

signal sensing

d)

population sensing

39.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
40.

When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets will rush to the site of damage and adhere to the vessel beginning the formation of a blood clot. These platelets will then release a chemical into the bloodstream, which recruits even more platelets to rush to the site of damage. As more platelets accumulate, more of the signaling chemical is released into the blood. This process will end when the blood has been sufficiently clotted and active bleeding is no longer occurring. What type of feedback loop is blood clotting an example of?

a)

Negative Feedback Loop

b)

Positive Feedback Loop

41.

A researcher examining a root tip observes a plant cell with condensed sister chromatids, kinetochores with attached microtubules, and individual chromosomes that are aligned at the equatorial plate of the cell. Which of the following best describes what the next process will be in the cell?

a)

Homologous chromosomes (each with two sister chromatids) will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

b)

Paired chromatids will separate, and the new daughter chromosomes will move toward opposite poles of the cell.

c)

The nuclear envelope will break down, and the spindle will begin to form.

d)

The chromatin will decondense, and the daughter cell will enter interphase.

42.

Cyclin dependent kinases are activated by their associated cyclin proteins. At the G1 checkpoint, activated CDKs signal the cell to continue on to DNA Synthesis (S phase). p53 is a protein that acts as a CDK inhibitor, blocking the action of CDK and preventing cells from continuing on to the S phase if their DNA is damaged. If a cell acquires a mutation which inactivates p53, how will it likely affect the cell cycle?

a)

Cells with DNA damage will move through the cell cycle more slowly resulting in slower wound healing

b)

Cells with damaged DNA will progress through the cell cycle, resulting in the potential development of a cancerous tumor

c)

Cells with damaged DNA will no longer be able to divide and will be sent to the G0 phase

d)

Another protein will take over the role of p53 and the cell cycle will proceed normally

43.

When we are dehydrated, ADH is released which causes more water to be absorbed into our bloodstream. What type of feedback does this represent?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

44.

How is negative feedback different from positive feedback?

a)

Negative feedback harms the body

b)

Negative feedback works to reverse a change in a system

c)

Negative feedback is rarer than positive

d)

Negative feedback is slower than positive feedback

45.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

46.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

47.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

48.

What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

a)

Evenly divide the cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Creating an exact copy of a cell's genetic material

c)

Protect an organism from mutations

d)

Ensure genetic material is properly transferred to daughter cells

49.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

50.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the greatest amount of time in?

a)

S phase

b)

Interphase

c)

M-phase

d)

Cytokinesis

51.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

52.

How are cyclins and CDKs involved with the cell cycle?

a)

Cyclins stop the cell cycle from proceeding

b)

Cyclins and CDKs make up a protein ring used to perform cytokinesis

c)

Cyclins activate CDKs, which perform the work of cell division

d)

CDKs are secreted from cells to trigger division in neighboring cells

53.

A process in which an initial change will bring about more change in the same direction.

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

homeostasis

d)

neutral feedback

54.

Which of the following is not an example of a negative feedback loop?

a)

body maintaining a temperature of about 37°C

b)

release of ADH to increase H2O reabsorption when dehydrated

c)

a ripe apple releasing ethylene, which causes more ripening

d)

heart rate increasing when exercising to deliver more O2 to cells

55.

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate developing between two nuclei. What's going on?

a)

a plant cell is in the process of cytokinesis

b)

an animal cell is in the process of cytokinesis

c)

an animal cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle

d)

a bacterial cell is diving via binary fission

56.

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

a)

condensation of chromatin to chromosomes

b)

replication of DNA

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

the formation of a spindle apparatus

57.

Which of the following is not a cell cycle check point?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G0

d)

M

58.

Which type of feedback loop would mammals use to maintain a constant body temperature or say 124.6 C?

a)

Homeostatic

b)

Postive

c)

Negative

d)

Isotonic

59.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

60.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

61.

Phase?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

62.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
63.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
64.

Structure A refers to the _____.

a)

chromatid

b)

chromosome

c)

centromere

65.

___________ is programmed cell death.

a)

Mitosis

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Interphase

66.

During telophase

a)

DNA lines up in the middle of the cell and DNA attaches to spindle fibers

b)

centrioles and spindle fibers appear

c)

Each DNA gets pull to the opposite sides of the cell

d)

2 new nuclei form

67.

The G1, S, and G2 are parts of which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

68.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
negative
b)
neutral 
c)
positive
69.

Which hormone is most directly related to osmoregulation?

a)

Insulin

b)

HGH

c)

ADH

d)

Adrenaline

70.

What evidence is there that cell communication is a process that has evolved over billions of years?

a)

Only cells with a nucleus are able to communicate effectively

b)

The processes are very similar in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

c)

Eukaryotic cells have much more advanced signaling pathways

d)

Prokaryotic cells are much more efficient at communicating.

71.

Plant cells can exchange small soluble compounds with neighboring cells directly through junctions in the cell wall called -

a)

gap junctions

b)

thylakoids

c)

stomata

d)

plasmodesmata

72.

Which of these is a common type of final response in a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Activation of a G-protein receptor

b)

Transcription of a desired mRNA sequence

c)

Formation of cAMP

d)

Phosphorylation cascade

73.

A mutation in a cell membrane receptor would most likely have what effect on a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Reduce the response of the pathway

b)

An alternative response will be expressed

c)

Increase ligand binding

d)

Increase ligand release from the effector cell

74.

A person with an insulin deficiency would have trouble regulating what condition in their body?

a)

Blood calcium

b)

Blood pH

c)

Blood sugar

d)

Blood temperature

75.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

76.

This diagram shows transduction of a signal. How is the signal being transduced to its target location in the cell?

a)

A hormone is binding to an intracellular protein receptor

b)

Transport vesicles are passing neurotransmitters to neighboring cells

c)

Enzymes are passing phosphate groups down a series of proteins

d)

cAMP is formed activating a desired response

77.

What is a catabolic reaction?

a)

A reaction that requires an input of energy

b)

A reaction that forms complex molecules from simple building blocks

c)

A reaction that releases energy

d)

A reaction that breaks down complex molecules into their components

78.

Why do hormones not affect every cell in the body when they are released?

a)

All cells are affected by a hormone when it is released

b)

A cell needs a specific receptor for the hormone to be affected

c)

A cell must have the proper ATP levels to activate a cellular response

d)

Cells need compatible DNA for the hormone to activate transcription of a gene

79.

Secondary messengers that can activate or deactivate enzymes in a cell are typically part of which step of cell signaling?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

80.

Why do mutations in receptor proteins affect cell signaling?

a)

The receptor needs the proper sequence of amino acids to interact with the cell membrane

b)

The receptor needs a specific shape to bind to it's ligand

c)

The receptor must have the right polarity to interact with it's ligand

d)

All of the above

81.

Which of these cellular components are most directly involved with density dependent inhibition in the cell cycle?

a)

Membrane proteins

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Nucleus

d)

Centrioles

82.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

83.

When we are dehydrated, ADH is released which causes more water to be absorbed into our bloodstream. What type of feedback does this represent?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

84.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

b)

Immune cells releasing inflammatory cytokines

c)

Breathing faster to release excess CO2

d)

Shivering to increase blood temperature

85.

How is negative feedback different from positive feedback?

a)

Negative feedback harms the body

b)

Negative feedback works to reverse a change in a system

c)

Negative feedback is rarer than positive

d)

Negative feedback is slower than positive feedback

86.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

87.

After metaphase what phase occurs next in mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

88.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

89.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

90.

What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

a)

Evenly divide the cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Creating an exact copy of a cell's genetic material

c)

Protect an organism from mutations

d)

Ensure genetic material is properly transferred to daughter cells

91.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

92.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the greatest amount of time in?

a)

S phase

b)

Interphase

c)

M-phase

d)

Cytokinesis

93.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

94.

How are cancerous cell different from healthy cells?

a)

The have a much shorter cell cycle

b)

They do not need nutrients to survive

c)

They are reliant upon density dependent inhibition

d)

They have twice as much genetic material

95.

How are cyclins and CDKs involved with the cell cycle?

a)

Cyclins stop the cell cycle from proceeding

b)

Cyclins and CDKs make up a protein ring used to perform cytokinesis

c)

Cyclins activate CDKs, which perform the work of cell division

d)

CDKs are secreted from cells to trigger division in neighboring cells