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DR. IMPRINT BY KNT - 6

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

debridement is:

a)

The removal of damaged tissue or foreign objects from a wound.

b)

The inclusion of damaged tissue or foreign objects from a wound.

c)

The cleansing of a wound before care

d)

A pain management technique

2.

These protect wound from injury, prevent introduction and spread of bacteria, reduce discomfort, and speed healing.

a)

Wound Care

b)

Ideal Dressing

c)

Dry Dressing

d)

Bandage

3.

What is the first phase of wound healing?

a)

Maturation/Remodeling

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Proliferation/Repair

d)

Inflammation and Debridement

4.

Which type of wound closure occurs when a wound heals on its own by forming granulation tissue, epithelializing, and contracting?

a)

Healing by Second Intention

b)

Delayed Primary Closure

c)

Primary Closure

d)

Secondary Closure

5.

What is the goal of treating wounds?

a)

To keep the wound dry at all times

b)

To minimize pain, decrease infection, and promote healing

c)

To cause infection in the wound

6.

Which type of wound is created when a nonsterile organ is entered with little or no spillage of contents or when a minor breach in aseptic technique occurs when treating a clean wound?

a)

Dirty wounds

b)

Contaminated wounds

c)

Clean-contaminated wounds

d)

Clean wounds

7.

What is the most reliable way to achieve the desired pressure for wound flushing?

a)

Using a syringe

b)

Using a 1-L bag of fluids attached to a venoset and a needle

c)

Using a dropper

d)

Using a spray bottle

8.

What is the main goal of the first step in treating wounds?

a)

To cover the wound with a bandage

b)

To evaluate the surrounding tissue for further damage

c)

To remove the hair around the wound

d)

To sedate or anesthetize the patient

9.

Which type of wound closure occurs at least 5 days after injury and after healthy granulation tissue has formed?

a)

Secondary Closure

b)

Delayed Primary Closure

c)

Primary Closure

d)

Healing by Second Intention

10.

What is the phase of wound healing that begins at the time of injury and lasts 3 to 5 days?

a)

Angiogenesis

b)

Inflammation and Debridement

c)

Maturation/Remodeling

d)

Proliferation/Repair

11.

What is the phase of wound healing that occurs 3 to 5 days after injury?

a)

Proliferation/Repair

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Maturation/Remodeling

d)

Inflammation and Debridement

12.

What is the phase of wound healing that occurs 7 to 14 days after injury?

a)

Inflammation and Debridement

b)

Proliferation/Repair

c)

Maturation/Remodeling

d)

Angiogenesis

13.

What is the main goal of the second phase of wound healing?

a)

To allow for migration of fibroblasts and creation of collagen

b)

To control hemorrhage

c)

To provide hemostasis

14.

What is the main goal of the third phase of wound healing?

a)

To provide hemostasis

b)

To control hemorrhage

c)

To increase wound strength at the fastest rate

d)

To increase blood flow and bring transudates into the wound

15.

What is the main goal of the fourth phase of wound healing?

a)

To increase wound strength at the fastest rate

b)

To increase blood flow and bring transudates into the wound

c)

To provide hemostasis

d)

To control hemorrhage

16.

Which type of wound is created when a sterile organ is entered with significant spillage of contents?

a)

Dirty wounds

b)

Contaminated wounds

c)

Clean-contaminated wounds

d)

Clean wounds

17.

What is the least reliable way to achieve the desired pressure for wound flushing?

a)

Using a syringe

b)

Using a 1-L bag of fluids attached to a venoset and a needle

c)

Using a dropper

d)

Using a spray bottle

18.

Which type of wound closure occurs immediately after injury?

a)

Healing by Second Intention

b)

Delayed Primary Closure

c)

Primary Closure

d)

Secondary Closure

19.

What is the main goal of the inflammation and debridement phase of wound healing?

a)

To increase wound strength at the fastest rate

b)

To control hemorrhage

c)

To remove dead tissue and bacteria from the wound

d)

To increase blood flow and bring transudates into the wound

20.

Which type of wound closure occurs when a wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inside out?

a)

Healing by Second Intention

b)

Delayed Primary Closure

c)

Primary Closure

d)

Secondary Closure

21.

What is the main goal of the maturation/remodeling phase of wound healing?

a)

To increase wound strength at the fastest rate

b)

To control hemorrhage

c)

To provide hemostasis

d)

To reshape and strengthen the new tissue

22.

Which type of wound closure occurs when a wound is sutured immediately after injury?

a)

Healing by Second Intention

b)

Delayed Primary Closure

c)

Primary Closure

d)

Secondary Closure

23.

What is the main goal of the angiogenesis phase of wound healing?

a)

To increase wound strength at the fastest rate

b)

To control hemorrhage

c)

To provide hemostasis

d)

To form new blood vessels in the wound

24.

What's this?

a)

maceration

b)

wound

c)

debridement

d)

dressing

25.

The type of intention healing that includes closures with staples or sutures.

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Inflammation

d)

Tertiary

26.

Type of wound healing complication that occurs due to incomplete hemostasis.

a)

Abrasion

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Hematoma

d)

Hemorrhage

27.

Sanguineous drainage can indicate

a)

Infection

b)

Healing

c)

Need for a drain

d)

Active bleeding

28.

The image shows which wound healing complication?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Laceration

d)

Hematoma

29.

The CDC classifies wounds that include entry to GI, GU, or respiratory tracts as

a)

Class I Clean

b)

Class II Clean-contaminated

c)

Class III Contaminated

d)

Class IV Dirty/infected

30.

A pressure ulcer with partial-thickness loss of dermis, that may appear as a red blister is which stage?

a)

Stage II

b)

Stage IV

c)

Stage I

d)

Stage III

31.

Which stage of pressure ulcer includes muscle damage with possible bone exposure?

a)

Stage IV

b)

Stage I

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage II

32.

This pressure ulcer is classified as

a)

Stage III

b)

Stage IV

c)

Unstageable

d)

Stage II

33.

Which of the following is not an appropriate nursing intervention for pressure ulcer treatment?

a)

Reposition patient Q 2 hrs

b)

Use a special mattress to reduce pressure

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Strict bedrest

34.

Which of the following is not a treatment for stasis ulcers?

a)

Unna boot

b)

Wet-to-dry dressing

c)

hydrocolloid dressing

d)

Compression therapy

35.

Which phase of wound healing includes the formation of fibrin?

a)

Hemostasis

b)

Inflammatory

c)

Reconstruction

d)

Maturation

36.

A wound that cannot be closed requiring a drain is an example of what kind of intention healing?

a)

Tertiary

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

None of the above

37.

A balanced diet can help assist in wound healing. Foods that are rich in vitamin C may include

a)

seafood

b)

bananas

c)

tomatoes

d)

avocado

38.

Clear, watery drainage from a wound should be documented as

a)

Serosanguineous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serous

39.

What intervention should be completed 30 minutes prior to a dressing change?

a)

Administer analgesics

b)

Mark the dressing for drainage

c)

Emptying the bladder

d)

Position change

40.

Which type of dressing is air and water tight, keeping the wound moist?

a)

ABD pads

b)

Occlusive

c)

Telfa pads

d)

semiocclusive

41.

Surgical glue is beneficial for all of the following except

a)

Lower rates of infection

b)

Less time in OR

c)

Can be used for diabetic patients

d)

Less scarring

42.

What nursing interventions are appropriate for a stage I pressure ulcer?

a)

Applying a moisture barrier cream

b)

Hydrocolloid dressing

c)

Cleaning with sterile water

d)

debridement

43.

Which is not true of wound VACs?

a)

Change the dressing Q 24-72 hrs

b)

Helping draw together wound edges

c)

Keeps the wound dry and cool

d)

Decreases inflammation

44.

Cavity containing pus that is surrounded by inflamed tissue is considered to be an

a)

Adhesion

b)

Abrasion

c)

Abscess

d)

Evisceration

45.

What is the importance of patient care and safety in nursing?

a)

Patient care and safety only have a minimal impact on patient well-being and recovery.

b)

Patient care and safety are important in nursing because they directly impact patient well-being and recovery.

c)

Patient care and safety are not important in nursing.

d)

Patient care and safety are more important in other healthcare professions than in nursing.

46.

How do effective communication skills contribute to being a good nurse?

a)

Nurses don't need to establish rapport with patients or collaborate with other healthcare professionals.

b)

Effective communication skills have no impact on being a good nurse.

c)

Being a good nurse is solely dependent on medical knowledge and skills, not communication.

d)

Effective communication skills allow nurses to establish rapport with patients, understand their needs and concerns, provide clear instructions and explanations, and collaborate effectively with other healthcare professionals.

47.

Why is critical thinking and problem-solving essential for nurses?

a)

Critical thinking and problem-solving are only important for administrative tasks in nursing.

b)

Critical thinking and problem-solving only apply to certain nursing specialties.

c)

Critical thinking and problem-solving are essential for nurses because they enable them to assess and analyze complex situations, make informed decisions, and provide effective patient care.

d)

Critical thinking and problem-solving are not essential for nurses.

48.

Explain the role of empathy and compassion in nursing.

a)

Empathy and compassion have no role in nursing.

b)

Empathy and compassion are only important for doctors, not nurses.

c)

Nurses should prioritize technical skills over empathy and compassion.

d)

Empathy and compassion help nurses connect with patients on an emotional level and provide holistic care.

49.

Why is attention to detail crucial for nurses?

a)

Attention to detail is not crucial for nurses as they can rely on their intuition.

b)

Attention to detail is only important for doctors, not nurses.

c)

Nurses don't need to pay attention to detail because they have other staff members to do that for them.

d)

Attention to detail is crucial for nurses because it helps them identify and prevent potential errors in patient care.

50.

What are some ways nurses can ensure patient safety?

a)

Not washing hands regularly

b)

Regularly washing hands, following proper infection control protocols, accurately documenting patient information, administering medications correctly, monitoring patients closely, and effectively communicating with the healthcare team.

c)

Not accurately documenting patient information

d)

Not following proper infection control protocols

51.

How can nurses improve their communication skills?

a)

By actively listening, using clear language, practicing empathy, and utilizing non-verbal communication techniques.

b)

By interrupting the patient while they are speaking and not allowing them to finish their thoughts.

c)

By avoiding eye contact and not paying attention to the patient's concerns.

d)

By using complex medical jargon that the patient may not understand.

52.

Give an example of a critical thinking scenario that a nurse may encounter.

a)

Administering medication based on patient's preference

b)

Prioritizing patient symptoms based on urgency and condition

c)

Performing routine check-ups on patients

d)

Assisting patients with daily activities

53.

How can nurses show empathy and compassion towards their patients?

a)

By showing indifference and lack of concern towards the patient's well-being.

b)

By rushing through appointments and not taking the time to listen to the patient.

c)

By actively listening, showing genuine concern, providing emotional support, and being present in the moment.

d)

By ignoring the patient's emotions and focusing solely on their medical needs.

54.

What are some common areas where attention to detail is important in nursing?

a)

patient communication, time management, teamwork, and infection control

b)

medication administration, patient assessments, wound care, documentation, and infection control

c)

patient communication, time management, teamwork, and wound care

d)

patient communication, time management, teamwork, and physical assessments

55.

What is abrasion?

a)

Skin scraped against a rough surface

b)

Several layers of skin are torn loose or totally removed

c)

Usually more painful than deeper wound

d)

ALL of the Above

56.

  • Usually more painful lang deeper wound because of exposure of Millions of _​



(a)  

57.

Abrasion can be covered or uncovered;

depending on the comfort of the patient

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

58.

What is the first name of your SME?

(a)  

59.

It is OK not to do hand washing/hygiene before and after wound dressing as long as you are using a pair of gloves.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

60.

What can be a sign of infected wound. (2 answers)

a)

Red and swelling

b)

Presence of Pus

c)

Dry and intact skin

d)

Itchy wound

61.

What is the proper way on applying antiseptics?

a)

Clean in a systematic manner

b)

Clean in a circular motion starting from the centre going out.

c)

You can Blow the antiseptic to make it dry

d)

Use aseptic non-touch technique

62.

Skin is the largest organ of our body.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.

Skin is waterproof.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which is NOT a SKIN Layer?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Fat Layer

d)

Liver

65.

These protect wound from injury, prevent introduction and spread of bacteria, reduce discomfort, and speed healing.

a)

Wound Care

b)

Ideal Dressing

c)

Dry Dressing

d)

Bandage

66.

An ideal dressing is, except:

a)

Able to absorb or contain exudates

b)

Acceptable in appearance

c)

Easily removed with damage to the healing surface

d)

Flexible but durable

67.

These are clear and watery plasma wound drainage.

a)

Serous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serosanguineous

68.

These are thick and either yellow, green, tan or brown wound drainage.

a)

Serous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serosanguineous

69.

These are bright red wound drainage.

a)

Serous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serosanguineous

70.

These are pale red and watery wound drainages.

a)

Serous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serosanguineous

71.

This nutrient repairs the body from wear and tear, builds new tissue and contributes to numerous essential body functions.

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Fat

d)

Sugar

72.

The health care provider on duty is dressing the wound of an incised wound. He/she knows that the concept "least to most contaminated" must be followed. How will dress he/she wound?

a)

In a circular motion starting from the center of the wound going towards the outside part in one swab.

b)

In a circular motion starting from the outside of the wound going towards the inside part in one swab.

c)

Start cleaning, in one swab, from one end of the incision to the other end. Then, use another swab to clean one side of the incision in one swabbing motion. And repeat to the other side with another cotton ball.

d)

Start cleaning on one side of the incision and end on the same side in one circular motion.

73.

MT Elias is a newly hired health care provider in their barangay. Upon checking, he found out that that the health center has no gloves available. He is not worried because he knows he can use these when dressing clients' wounds.

a)

Clean Gloves

b)

Bare Hands

c)

Cleaned Forceps

d)

Sterilized Forceps

74.

When inspecting the wound, what should we check to monitor the status of healing? (Give one.)

(a)  

75.

MT Bob is assessing an 8-year old crying patient with a burn wound. He sweetly introduced himself and explained to the client what he will do. When asking for the pain rating of the patient. He asked the client to rate his pain in a scale of 0 to 10. The client answered 0. How did MT Bob do?

a)

Good. MT Bob did the correct assessment.

b)

Bad. MT Bob should have asked the client the reason for crying.

c)

Bad. MT Bob should have established trust and rapport more.

d)

Bad. MT Bob should have presented the emoji icon level to the client.

76.

Handwashing is done to remove microorganisms on the skins and the hands.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

A sanguineous wound drainage indicates active bleeding.

a)

True

b)

False

78.
What is type of wound in the picture?
a)
Contusion
b)
Abrasion
c)
Laceration
d)
Avulsion
79.
What type of wound in the picture?
a)
Penetrate 
b)
Puncture
c)
Incision
d)
Stap
80.

In terms of preparing small dirty wound bed with necrotic tissue and slough , the best preparation would be

a)

Daily dressing of the wound and IV antibiotic

b)

Daily dressing with bed site surgical debridement

c)

Daily dressing with gel

81.

Before you open your dressing pack you must?

a)

Prepare/Clean your work surface

b)

Wash your hands

c)

Select your dressing

d)

All of the above

82.

In what sphase of the healing process is the wound is fresh and also include warmth, redness, pain, and edema.

a)

Reconstruction Phase

b)

First Intention Phase

c)

Maturation Phase

d)

Inflammatory Phase

83.

The type of intention healing that includes closures with staples or sutures.

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Inflammation

d)

Tertiary

84.

Type of wound healing complication that occurs due to incomplete hemostasis.

a)

Abrasion

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Hematoma

d)

Hemorrhage

85.

Sanguineous drainage can indicate

a)

Infection

b)

Healing

c)

Need for a drain

d)

Active bleeding

86.

The image shows which wound healing complication?

a)

Evisceration

b)

Dehiscence

c)

Laceration

d)

Hematoma

87.

The CDC classifies wounds that include entry to GI, GU, or respiratory tracts as

a)

Class I Clean

b)

Class II Clean-contaminated

c)

Class III Contaminated

d)

Class IV Dirty/infected

88.

A pressure ulcer with partial-thickness loss of dermis, that may appear as a red blister is which stage?

a)

Stage II

b)

Stage IV

c)

Stage I

d)

Stage III

89.

Which stage of pressure ulcer includes muscle damage with possible bone exposure?

a)

Stage IV

b)

Stage I

c)

Stage III

d)

Stage II

90.

This pressure ulcer is classified as

a)

Stage III

b)

Stage IV

c)

Unstageable

d)

Stage II

91.

Which of the following is not an appropriate nursing intervention for pressure ulcer treatment?

a)

Reposition patient Q 2 hrs

b)

Use a special mattress to reduce pressure

c)

Encourage ambulation

d)

Strict bedrest

92.

Which of the following is not a treatment for stasis ulcers?

a)

Unna boot

b)

Wet-to-dry dressing

c)

hydrocolloid dressing

d)

Compression therapy

93.

Which phase of wound healing includes the formation of fibrin?

a)

Hemostasis

b)

Inflammatory

c)

Reconstruction

d)

Maturation

94.

A wound that cannot be closed requiring a drain is an example of what kind of intention healing?

a)

Tertiary

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

None of the above

95.

A balanced diet can help assist in wound healing. Foods that are rich in vitamin C may include

a)

seafood

b)

bananas

c)

tomatoes

d)

avocado

96.

Clear, watery drainage from a wound should be documented as

a)

Serosanguineous

b)

Purulent

c)

Sanguineous

d)

Serous

97.

What intervention should be completed 30 minutes prior to a dressing change?

a)

Administer analgesics

b)

Mark the dressing for drainage

c)

Emptying the bladder

d)

Position change

98.

Which type of dressing is air and water tight, keeping the wound moist?

a)

ABD pads

b)

Occlusive

c)

Telfa pads

d)

semiocclusive

99.

Surgical glue is beneficial for all of the following except

a)

Lower rates of infection

b)

Less time in OR

c)

Can be used for diabetic patients

d)

Less scarring

100.

What nursing interventions are appropriate for a stage I pressure ulcer?

a)

Applying a moisture barrier cream

b)

Hydrocolloid dressing

c)

Cleaning with sterile water

d)

debridement

101.

Which is not true of wound VACs?

a)

Change the dressing Q 24-72 hrs

b)

Helping draw together wound edges

c)

Keeps the wound dry and cool

d)

Decreases inflammation

102.

Cavity containing pus that is surrounded by inflamed tissue is considered to be an

a)

Adhesion

b)

Abrasion

c)

Abscess

d)

Evisceration

103.

What is healing by secondary intention?

a)

The wound edges are pulled together and secured with sutures.

b)

The wound is left to heal spontaneously and occurs by granulation, contraction and epithelisation.

c)

The wound closure is delayed and later closed with sutures.

104.

What is purulent exudate?

a)

Thin, clear and watery drainage

b)

Fresh blood

c)

Thick, milky, gray/green/yellow drainage

d)

Thin, watery, pink/red drainage

105.

Assess the wound edge and select the term?

a)

Healthy

b)

Raised

c)

Callused

d)

Rolled

106.

What does the S stand for in the PQRST pain assessment?

a)

Severity

b)

Source

c)

Situation

d)

Suffering

107.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

108.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

109.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

110.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

111.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

112.

Assess the wound bed. Select the predominant type of tissue in the wound bed.

a)

Epithelisation

b)

Granulation

c)

Slough

d)

Infected

e)

Necrotic

113.

Select the mode of healing.

a)

Fourth intention

b)

Third intention

c)

Secondary intention

d)

Primary intention

114.

Select the mode of healing.

a)

Delayed primary intention

b)

First intention

c)

Secondary intention

d)

Primary intention

e)

Third intention