wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

UA Star Part 2.1

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the proper installation height of the Hartford loop on a steam boiler is how many inches below the NOWL?

a)

at nowl

b)

2-4 inches

c)

6-10 inches

d)

28 inches

2.

to prevent priming in a steam boiler the horizontal steam main should be a minimum of what distance NOWL?

a)

12 inches

b)

24 inches

c)

28 inches

d)

2.31 feet

3.

all except which of the following are flame proving methods?

a)

diode

b)

flame rectification

c)

infrared

d)

Ultraviolet

4.

which type of ignition system uses a pilot flame?

a)

direct spark

b)

glow coil

c)

hot surface ignition

d)

intermittent

5.

which of the following is NOT used to size gas regulators?

a)

inlet pressure

b)

type of ignition system

c)

pipe size

d)

Volume

6.

if a gas regulator is located in the boiler room, typical code requires that the regulator vent needs to be piped where?

a)

indoors

b)

into the floor drain

c)

outdoors

d)

there is no connected piping required

7.

electric heaters are usually composed of which of the following?

a)

capacitors

b)

inductors

c)

rectifiers

d)

resistors

8.

What is the most likely cause if a technician finds that an electric heat element with voltage applied to the element has no current draw?

a)

lack of air flow

b)

low voltage to the element

c)

open or burned element

d)

too much voltage to the element

9.

When replacing the element on an electric heater the technician should verify what the element(s) _______?

a)

Are not shorted to ground

b)

are streched as much as possible

c)

coils are turned clockwise

d)

Coil are turned counter clockwise

10.

Which is an acceptable vent material for condensing boilers?

a)

a-vent

b)

b-vent

c)

pvc

d)

single wall vent

11.

Which of these control modes does NOT provide modulating control?

a)

derivative

b)

integral

c)

proportional

d)

2 position

12.

Why should low water cut off controls on a steam boiler be blown down routinely?

a)

brings clean water into the steam boiler

b)

makes room for boiler water chemical

c)

prevent sediment buildup that would limit proper operation

d)

removes total dissolved solids from the bottom of the boiler water

13.

A 3 way valve having one inlet and two outlets is classified as a _______ valve.

a)
diverting
b)

mixing

c)

pilot operated

d)

two postions

14.

Which type of valve has the best variable flow characteristics in hydronic system?

a)

ball

b)

butterfly

c)

gate

d)

globe

15.

Which of the following is a function of the pressure reducing valve?

a)

adds make up water to the system when needed

b)

de-energizes the burner if the water level falls too low

c)

maintains the desired water temperature in the system

d)

relieves excess system pressure

16.

Which of the following is not a result of pump cavitation?

a)

impeller damage

b)

increased head pressure

c)

no change in flow

d)

reduced head pressure

17.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of cavitation in a pump that is pumping hot water?

a)

decreased water flow

b)

excessive NPSH

c)

insufficient NPSH

d)

noisy pump

18.

Which of the most common pump used in hydronic systems?

a)

centrifugal

b)

gear

c)

reciprocating

d)

scroll

19.

Installing two pumps in parallel will result in the following

a)

decreased flow

b)

increased flow

c)

no change

d)

This arrangement results in no appreciable changes therefore it is never done

20.

What is the purpose of adding glycol to a solar heating system?

a)

It allows adequate freeze protection in low ambient conditions

b)

It keeps water from expanding

c)

It maintains ability of fluid to pump even at low fluid temperatures

d)

It minimizes corrosion in piping

21.

Where would a ground source heat pump reject its heat load when in the cooling mode of operation?

a)

to the ground loop

b)

to the outside air

c)

to the inside air

d)

to the wastewater loop

22.

Which device is used on a water source heat pump to maintain adequate head pressure in the refrigerant loop while in the cooling mode?

a)

circuit setter

b)

shut off valve

c)

solenoid valve

d)

water regulating valve

23.

Higher than normal water loop temperature would lead to which of these results?

a)

high discharge pressure

b)

high sub-cooling

c)

low air flow

d)

low suction pressure

24.

How much heat does a 10-ton water source heat pump inject into the water loop when fully loaded in the cooling mode?

a)

12,000 btu/h

b)

15,000 btu/h

c)

120,000 btu/h

d)

150,000 btu/h

25.

What is the proper method for cleaning a tube-in-tube type condenser on a water source heat pump?

a)

brush or mechanical cleaning

b)

clean the strainer

c)

chemical clean

d)

blow out with nitrogen

26.

Which of these is required on a four-pipe system for chilled water and hot water?

a)

a changeover control valves

b)

longer time for changeover than a two pipe system

c)

only one pump

d)

separate cooling and heating coils

27.

A water coil generally should be piped to provide _____ flow?

a)

counter

b)

cross

c)

parallel

d)

none of the above

28.

What is the differential pressure converted to feet of head across the following pump? 1 psi = 2.31 feet of head Suction pressure = 35 psig Discharge pressure = 62 psig

a)

62 feet of head

b)

80 feet of head

c)

110 feet of head

d)

143 feet of head

29.

When the float rises on an F and T trap, what discharges?

a)

Air

b)

Air and steam

c)

condensate and steam

d)

non condensable

30.

Which of these would result if the float and thermostatic trap failed and filled with water?

a)

air would discharge continuously

b)

condensate would discharge continuously

c)

steam would discharge continuously

d)

Condensate discharge would be greatly reduced

31.

Which type of trap is normally used on a steam radiator?

a)

disc

b)

F & T

c)

inverted

d)

thermostatic

32.

A steam pressure regulator is constructed so that a rise in ______ steam pressure reduces the flow of supply steam to maintain set point?

a)
downstream
b)

barometric

c)

inlet

d)

upstream

33.

If used to drip the end of a steam main, which type of steam trap would require a cooling leg?

a)

F & T

b)

inverted bucket

c)

thermodynamic

d)

thermostatic

34.

A steam coil utilizing a modulating steam control valve would require which type of trap?

a)

F & T

b)

inverted bucket

c)

thermodynamic

d)

thermostatic

35.

A low pressure one pipe gravity return steam heating system is installed and an automatic steam trap is NOT used. Which of these devices will prevent a vacuum from forming?

a)

air vent

b)

atmospheric connection

c)

safety relief valve

d)

vacuum breaker

36.

Which of the following is used to recover the energy that would be lost if flash steam were wasted through a vent?

a)

flash tank

b)

main air vent

c)

radiator

d)

strainer

37.

Air is eliminated from a sub-atmospheric steam system by which of these devices?

a)

air eliminator

b)

air scoop

c)

air vent

d)

vacuum pump

38.

How do condensate return pumps cycle "on"?

a)

by a float switch in the condensate tank

b)

by a boiler feed pump controller

c)

low water condition in boiler

d)

high pressure in boiler

39.

Which of the following is NOT acceptable in a condensate return pump?

a)

air

b)

condensate

c)

live steam

d)

water

40.

Condensate return lines should be made of which type of pipe?

a)

schedule 40 carbon steel

b)

schedule 80 carbon steel

c)

schedule 80 PVC

d)

type M copper

41.

Which of these devices forms a water seal that prevents raw steam from entering and damaging pressure gauges, vapor stats, pressure controls, etc?

a)

dip tube

b)

pigtail

c)

safety glass

d)

sight glass

42.

rpm of drive = diameter of driver x rpm of driver / diameter of driven. A belt driven fan has a 3" motor sheave pitch diameter, a 5" fan sheave pitch diameter and a motor speed of 1720 rpm. What is the fan speed?

a)
1,032 rpm
b)

103.2 rpm

c)

1200 rpm

d)

10320 rpm

43.

The design of the air supply duct will depend on the air velocity but NOT the _______.

a)
air temperature
b)

crf

c)

lengh of run

d)

pressure drop

44.

An air distribution system increases comfort of the occupants by controlling all except which of the following?

a)

air motion

b)

density

c)

humidity

d)

temperature

45.

In addition to drafts and condensation on ducts, which of these is potentially another undesirable effect of using very cold supply air?

a)

icing of cooling coils

b)

insufficient velocity pressure in ducts

c)

outside air too warm

d)

returning air too warm

46.

The amount of air per ton typically delivered through the indoor coil on a properly operating cooling system should be approximately in the range of _____ CFM.

a)
350-450
b)

100-150

c)

600-650

d)

800-850

47.

Which is true of a heat recovery unit designed for latent heat transfer?

a)

It must have a condensate drain

b)

It must move NOT more than 400 cfm

c)

It must move over 400 cfm

d)

It will require enthalpy controls

48.

A desiccant type heat recovery system does all EXCEPT which of the following?

a)

creates higher loads than traditional airside economizers

b)

provides air exchange for conditioned space

c)

provides high efficient outside air makeup

d)

reduces the load of outside air

49.

Which scenario would justify the addition of a heat recovery unit?

a)

a building needs outside air makeup, but hvac equipment is marginally-sized

b)

a heating system holds the load of a garage but has a long recovery time when overhead

c)

a homeowner in San diego needs air makeup when running an attic fan

d)

homeowners in North Dakota complain that their heating system does not keep up when outside air is below 100 degrees

50.

In an air conditioning system, free cooling is so called because it eliminates the operation of which of the following?

a)

chilled water pump

b)

compressor

c)

evaporator fan

d)

furnace

51.

A damper that must throttle air flow should have which of the following?

a)

constant volume control

b)

Face and bypass damper action

c)

opposed blade operation

d)

parallel blade operation

52.

An economizer control contains three automatic dampers, one each for exhaust air, _____, and maximum OSA.

a)

cold plenum

b)

hot plenum

c)

return air

d)

supply air

53.

Economizers can use several types of sensor. Which of these sensors is considered the most accurate?

a)

enthalpy

b)

entropy

c)

fixed resistance

d)

temperature

54.

For good air circulation in an office space without undue danger of drafts, a desirable rate of air supply is within a range of how many air changes per hour?

a)

1 to 3

b)

5 to 8

c)

10 to 12

d)

14 to 18

55.

A firestat should have which of these elements?

a)

automatic reset

b)

nonadjustable set point

c)

remote adjustable set point

d)

all of the above

56.

Which of these may cause high duct pressure limit switches to open?

a)

dirty air filters

b)

electric heater stay on

c)

fire or zone dampers close suddenly

d)

the building is over-pressurized

57.

When the freeze stat trips, the outside air damper, the chilled water valve, and the hot water valve should _____, respectively.

a)

close, close, close

b)

close, open, open

c)

open, close, close

d)

open, open, open

58.

Which of these devices is needed for proper operation of a system with vav control?

a)

sail switch

b)

high limits switch

c)

static pressure sensor

d)

freeze stat

59.

If you were on a job and ran out of fittings while installing 5/8" ACR tube, which of the following sizes of copper water tube fittings could be used?

a)

1/2"

b)

5/8"

c)

3/4"

d)

water tube fitting cannot be used with ACR tube

60.

You are soldering copper tube. After the tube and fitting are cleaned and fluxed, it is recommended that they be soldered how soon?

a)

anytime

b)

asap

c)

within 3 hours

d)

within 24 hours

61.

You may see which of these results if a compressor’s discharge muffler is not properly installed?

a)

it could de-superheat the discharge vapor

b)

it could trap non-condensables

c)

it might increase line size

d)

it might trap oil

62.

What should be the pitch of horizontal suction refrigeration piping runs?

a)

toward the compressor

b)

away from the compressor

c)

in the opposite direction of flow

d)

they should be level

63.

Condensate drain traps must be used on draw-through evaporator coils in order to prevent which of the following conditions?

a)

Drain pipe freezing

b)

high air resistance

c)

low static pressure

d)

water overflow

64.

Which of these is true of the wall thickness of type K copper tube?

a)

It is greater than type L or type M

b)

It is less than type L but greater than type M

c)

It is less than type M but greater than type L

d)

It is the same as ACR hard-tempered tube

65.

When copper tubing is being brazed, nitrogen gas can be purged through the system to prevent which of the following conditions?

a)

damage to the temperature sensitive components

b)

overheating the tubing

c)

oxidation inside the tubing

d)

production of toxic fumes

66.

Steam branch line connection should be made from the ________ of the steam main.

a)

bottom

b)

side

c)

top

d)

location is at the installer's discretion

67.

Which of these may be caused by an undersized vapor line in a refrigerant circuit?

a)

decrease sub-cooling

b)

excessive pressure drop

c)

increased sub-cooling

d)

poor oil return

68.

On a refrigeration system where the evaporator is located below the compressor suction, how are risers sized?

a)

larger for higher velocity

b)

larger for low pressure drop

c)

smaller for higher velocity

d)

smaller for low pressure drop

69.

Which of these is true when a load is to be lifted with a sling?

a)

all sharp edges should be padded

b)

slight damage to the sling is acceptable

c)

the sling strength is irrelevant

d)

all of the above

70.

What should be done with defective rigging components and hardware?

a)

recycle

b)

remove from service

c)

repair

d)

wash

71.

When connecting rigging to equipment, where should the connection be made?

a)

at the top

b)

basket only

c)

only at the corners

d)

connect according to equipment manufacturer's instructions

72.

Which of the four lifting sling configurations shown here creates the greatest amount of load strain on the sling?

a)

(Medium angle

b)

(Shallow angle)

c)

(Steep angel)

d)

Straight

73.

Which method should be used with lifting heavy objects from the floor?

a)

lift with straight legs and a bent back

b)

lift with straight legs and bent arms

c)

lift with the back, not the legs

d)

lift with the legs, not the back

74.

Which federal agency is responsible for personnel safety?

a)

DOT

b)

EPA

c)

NFPA

d)

OSHA

75.

When conducting certification of lockout procedures, which of the following observations would trigger the need for re-training?

a)

The operator uses a hasp to allow lockout by more than one person

b)

The operator informs other in the area about lockout

c)

An identification tag is placed on the lock

d)

None of the above

76.

After opening the disconnect, a service technician must first ________ to confirm that there is no power present.

a)

Confirm that there is no power

b)

Notify customer that the power is off

c)

install lockout/tag out on disconnect

d)

install lock out/ tagout device

77.

The clean air act regulations are enforced by which of these government agencies?

a)

Department of commerce

b)

DOT

c)

EEDC

d)

EPA

78.

Which of these government agencies regulates the certification of refrigerant cylinders?

a)

DOT

b)

EPA

c)

FTC

d)

OSHA

79.

What is the definition of "de minimus"?

a)

5 ounces

b)

Legal term for minimum amount

c)

Minimum vacuum pressure

d)

What your gauge set holds

80.

When handling refrigerants, what protection is required for your eyes?

a)

#4 brazing lens

b)

Chemical/splash goggles

c)

Contact lenses

d)

Eye protection is not required

81.

How should skin that comes in contact with liquid refrigerant be treated?

a)

As a scald

b)

As frostbite

c)

As a burn

d)

As bruising

82.

A cylinder recovery tank with a DOT service rating of ____ psig is required for r410a.

a)

100

b)

200

c)

300

d)

400

83.

What is a pump's maximum theoretical lift?

a)

433lbs/ft head

b)

4ft hd/lb

c)

29.92 ft

d)

34 ft

84.

Choose the form of water with the largest in BTU per pound.

a)

latent heat of fusion

b)

latent heat of melting

c)

latent heat of vaporization

d)

sensible heat

85.

How many BTUs are absorbed by the water when one pound of water at 212 degrees F?

a)

zero

b)

144

c)

180

d)

970.3

86.

How would Terminals "A" be labeled?

Terminals connected to line side

a)

H1, H2, H3

b)

L1, L2, L3

c)

T1, T2, T3

d)

X1, X2, X3

87.

Which of the following is NOT a required part of the word order?

a)

a complete list of materials used

b)

clear and legible handwritten information

c)

amount of time spent on the job

d)

wholesale cost of parts used

88.

When contacting a manufacturer regarding packaged parts for a roof top unit, which of these is the most important piece of information to have available?

a)

date of manufacture

b)

job site address

c)

model and serial number

d)

voltage

89.

Which of the following is NOT your responsibility relative to your work crew?

a)

Getting to work on time and working effectively during your shift

b)

keeping to yourself and not bothering others

c)

presenting a good appearance and being enthusiastic and cooperative on the job

d)

working safely at the worksite

90.

Which of the following is true of a dirty and unkempt service van?

a)

It improves work efficiency

b)

It is normal for a service technician

c)

It is unprofessional and inefficient

d)

It represents a professional image for the company

91.

What is the last thing you should do before leaving the job?

a)

Clean the job site

b)

Cost out the job

c)

Have the work order signed

d)

Place all panels back into position

92.

Worn sleeve bearings can be quickly checked by which of these methods?

a)

Check the centrifugal switch points

b)

Check the squirrel cage rotor

c)

Check the stator

d)

Try to move the shaft at right angles to the bearing

93.

Which type of coupling is shown here?

Looks like a tire

a)

Chain

b)

Gear

c)

Soft torque (tire type)

d)

Spider gear

94.

Which type of flexible coupling insert is shown here?

Looks like a spider

a)

Chain

b)

Flange type

c)

Gear type

d)

Spider