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Physics A2 level Quiz

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the formula for angular displacement?

a)

ω = 2π / T

b)

a = v^2 / r

c)

v = rω

d)

a = rω^2

2.

What is the unit of angular speed?

a)

m/s

b)

m/s^2

c)

rad/s

d)

N

3.

What is the formula for centripetal acceleration?

a)

a = rω^2

b)

a = v^2 / r

c)

F = mv^2 / r

d)

F = mrω^2

4.

What causes centripetal force in circular motion?

a)

Friction

b)

Normal force

c)

Resultant force

d)

Gravity

5.

What is the relationship between velocity and radius in circular motion?

a)

V1 = V2

b)

V1 = r

c)

V1 < V2

d)

V1 > V2

6.

What is the formula to convert degrees to radians?

a)

π / 7

b)

2π / 3

c)

180 / π

d)

π / 180

7.

What is the formula for angular velocity?

a)

a = rω^2

b)

a = v^2 / r

c)

ω = 2π / T

d)

ω = θt

8.

What is the reason for keeping your head towards the centre on a roundabout?

a)

To avoid dizziness

b)

To increase speed

c)

To decrease speed

d)

To maintain balance

9.

What is the term used to describe the time taken for one complete oscillation in Simple Harmonic Motion?

a)

Period

b)

Displacement

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

10.

In Simple Harmonic Motion, what occurs when acceleration is proportional to displacement from a fixed point and in the opposite direction?

4 lines
11.

What is the term used to describe the frequency of a sinusoidal oscillation expressed in terms of radians?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Angular frequency

d)

Displacement

12.

What type of oscillation occurs when resistive forces cause the energy of the system to be transferred to the surroundings as internal energy?

a)

damped

b)

reduced

c)

resonance

d)

critical

13.

In resonance, what happens when the forcing frequency matches the natural frequency of the system?

a)

the amplitude is the lowest

b)

the amplitude is the highest

c)

the frequency is the highest

d)

the damping is critical

14.

What is the equation used to describe the interchange between kinetic and potential energy during simple harmonic motion?

a)

E0 = 1/2mω2x0

b)

E0 = 1/2mω2x02

c)

E0 = 1/2mω2x0sin(ωt)

d)

E0 = 1/2mω2x0x

15.

What is the term used to describe the minimum damping that causes the oscillating system to return to its equilibrium position in the minimum time and without oscillating?

a)

Damped oscillation

b)

Heavy damping

c)

Light damping

d)

Critical damping

16.

Which graph shows how kinetic energy and elastic potential energy change with time during simple harmonic motion?

a)

Energy Vs Frequency

b)

Energy Vs Displacement

c)

Energy Vs Time

d)

Energy Vs Velocity

17.

What is the equation used to calculate the motion of a body undergoing Simple Harmonic Motion with three trigonometry equations describing displacement, velocity, and acceleration?

a)

x(t)=Acos(ωt)

v(t)=− ωt sin(ωt)

a(t)=− ω2t cos(ωt)

b)

x(t)=Acos(ωt)

v(t)=− ωt sin(ωt)

a(t)=− ω2t cos(ωt)

c)

x(t)=Asin(ωt)

v(t)=ωA cos(ωt)

a(t)=− ω2Asin(ωt)

d)

x(t)=Acos(ωt)

v(t)=− ωA cos(ωt)

a(t)=− ω2A sin(ωt)

18.

What is capacitance?

a)

The charge on the plates of the capacitor per unit P.d.

b)

The resistance in a circuit

c)

The voltage supplied to a capacitor

d)

The current flowing through a capacitor

19.

What is the formula for combined capacitance of capacitors in series?

a)

V = QC

b)

Ctotal = C1 + C2 + C3

c)

Q = CV

d)

C = Q / V

20.

What is the effect of changing the resistance in the circuit when discharging a capacitor?

a)

Increased charge flow

b)

Increased voltage

c)

Decreased time to discharge

d)

Decreased current

21.

What is the time constant of a circuit equal to?

a)

RC

b)

R + C

c)

1/RC

d)

C/R

22.

What is the formula for exponential decay of charge on a capacitor?

a)

I = I0 e^(t/RC)

b)

V = V0 e^(-t/RC)

c)

I = I0 e^(-t/RC)

d)

Q = Q0 e^(-t/RC)

23.

What happens when the capacitor discharges through a resistor?

a)

Potential difference increases

b)

Current remains constant

c)

Voltage across the capacitor decreases

d)

Charge flows off the capacitor

24.

What is the formula for the energy stored in a capacitor?

a)

V = QC

b)

Q = CV

c)

W = 1/2CV^2

d)

W = 1/2QV

25.

What is the formula for the charge stored on a capacitor?

a)

Q = V / C

b)

V = Q / C

c)

C = Q / V

d)

Q = CV

26.

What is the force per unit mass defined as in a gravitational field?

a)

Gravitational field strength

b)

Acceleration

c)

Velocity

d)

Weight

27.

What is the value of the gravitational field strength near the surface of the Earth?

a)

0 N/kg

b)

9.81 N/kg

c)

0.75 N/kg

d)

25 N/kg

28.

What is the classic equation for weight in relation to gravitational field strength?

a)

W = mv

b)

W = ma

c)

W = mg

d)

W = mr

29.

What is the value of the Universal gravitational constant G?

a)

6.67 x 10^-11 Nm^2/kg^2

b)

9.81 ms^-2

c)

0.75 N/kg

d)

25 N/kg

30.

What is the force between two point masses according to Newton's law of gravitation?

a)

F = Gm1m2 / r

b)

F = mr

c)

F = ma

d)

F = mv

31.

What is the gravitational potential at a point defined as?

a)

Velocity of an object

b)

Work done per unit mass in bringing a small test mass from infinity to the point

c)

Acceleration due to gravity

d)

Force per unit mass

32.

What is the gravitational potential energy of two point masses given by?

a)

EP = GMm / r

b)

EP = ma

c)

EP = mv

d)

EP = mr

33.

Why is the value of gravitational field strength roughly constant for small changes in height near the Earth's surface?

a)

Due to the spherical shape of the Earth

b)

Due to the inverse square law of gravity

c)

Due to the presence of the Moon

d)

Due to the rotation of the Earth

34.

What is the equation for the gravitational field strength due to a point mass?

a)

g = GM / r^2

b)

g = G / r^2

c)

g = M / r^2

d)

g = Gm / r^2

35.

What is the work done per unit mass in bringing a point mass from infinity defined as?

a)

Gravitational constant

b)

Gravitational potential energy

c)

Gravitational field strength

d)

Gravitational potential

36.

What is the principle of an ultrasound?

a)

Directing ultrasound waves into the body to obtain diagnostic information about internal structures

b)

Producing radioisotopes

c)

Injecting a tracer into a vein to produce an image

d)

Using X-rays to image internal body structures

37.

What is the purpose of a CAT scan?

a)

To detect gamma rays during a PET scan

b)

To generate ultrasound waves

c)

To calculate the attenuation of X-rays in matter

d)

To produce a 3D image of an internal structure by combining multiple X-ray images

38.

What is the main factor causing attenuation of ultrasound waves?

a)

Refraction

b)

Scattering

c)

Reflection

d)

Absorption

39.

How are gamma rays detected during a PET scan?

a)

By applying a p.d. across a piezo-electric crystal

b)

Using a crystal that scintillates and a photomultiplier

c)

By rotating anode and vacuum

d)

By using a piezoelectric transducer

40.

What is the purpose of using gel on the patient during an ultrasound?

a)

To prevent reflection of ultrasound waves at the skin

b)

To increase the attenuation of ultrasound waves

c)

To generate ultrasound waves

d)

To match the impedance of the skin and reduce reflection

41.

What is the specific acoustic impedance of a medium defined as?

a)

Z = ρ, where ρ is the density of the medium

b)

Z = ρc, where c is the speed of sound in the medium

c)

Z = α, where α is the absorption coefficient

d)

Z = c, where c is the speed of sound in the medium

42.

What is the fraction of incident intensity of ultrasound that is reflected at the boundary between two materials?

a)

𝐼𝑟/𝐼0=(𝑍1+𝑍2 )2/(𝑍1+𝑍2)2

b)

𝐼𝑟/𝐼0=(𝑍1+𝑍2)2/(𝑍1−𝑍2)2

c)

𝐼𝑟/𝐼0=(𝑍1−𝑍2)/(𝑍1+𝑍2)2

d)

𝐼𝑟/𝐼0=(𝑍2−𝑍1)2/(𝑍2+𝑍1)2

43.

What is the energy of the gamma-ray photons emitted during the annihilation of an electron-positron pair?

a)

𝒇𝒎𝒂𝒙= 𝒆𝑽𝒉

b)

𝑬𝒎𝒂𝒙=𝒉𝒇𝒎𝒂𝒙

c)

𝑬𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒐𝒇 𝒑𝒉𝒐𝒕𝒐𝒏=𝑬𝒄

d)

𝑬𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒐𝒇 𝒑𝒉𝒐𝒕𝒐𝒏=𝒉𝒇

44.

What is the famous equation that represents the equivalence between energy and mass?

a)

E = mc^2

b)

E = 1/2 mv^2

c)

F = ma

d)

P = mv

45.

What is the term used to describe the minimum external energy required to completely separate all the neutrons and protons of a nucleus to infinity?

a)

Binding energy

b)

Half-life

c)

Mass defect

d)

Decay constant

46.

Which element is the most stable according to the graph showing binding energy per nucleon vs. number of nucleons?

a)

Iron

b)

Uranium

c)

Carbon

d)

Helium

47.

What is the probability that an individual nucleus will decay per unit time interval called?

a)

Decay constant

b)

Binding energy

c)

Activity

d)

Half-life

48.

What is the formula used to calculate the activity of a radioactive sample?

a)

A = λN

b)

A = ΔN/Δt

c)

A = N0e^-λt

d)

A = -λN

49.

What is the time taken for half of the unstable nuclei to decay called?

a)

Half-life

b)

Nuclear time

c)

Decay time

d)

Stability time

50.

Which formula represents the exponential nature of radioactive decay?

a)

N = N0e^-λt

b)

E = mc^2

c)

R = R0e^-λt

d)

A = λN

51.

If a sample of uranium originally contained 109 radioisotopes and its decay constant is 4.9x10^-12s^-1, how many radioisotopes will be left after 3 billion years?

a)

54

b)

34

c)

68

d)

27

52.

What did Einstein postulate light is composed of?

a)

Atoms

b)

Wave packets

c)

Molecules

d)

Particles

53.

What is the formula for the energy of a photon?

a)

E = QV

b)

E = 1/2mv^2

c)

E = mc^2

d)

E = hf

54.

What is the unit of energy equal to the work done when 1 electron is moved through a p.d. of 1V?

a)

Ampere

b)

Electronvolt

c)

Watt

d)

Joule

55.

What is the formula for the momentum of a photon?

a)

p = E / c

b)

p = QV

c)

p = mv

d)

p = hf

56.

What is the threshold frequency for the photoelectric effect?

a)

Frequency at which emission is maximum

b)

Frequency above which emission occurs

c)

Frequency at which absorption occurs

d)

Frequency below which emission does not occur

57.

What did Louis De Broglie theorize about particles with mass?

a)

They possess only particle properties

b)

They are invisible

c)

They possess wave properties

d)

They are stationary

58.

What is the wavelength associated with a moving particle according to de Broglie?

a)

λ = QV

b)

λ = E / c

c)

λ = hf

d)

λ = h / p

59.

What can be used to determine the composition of distant stars?

a)

Quantum physics

b)

Emission and absorption line spectra

c)

Photoelectric effect

d)

Wave-particle duality

60.

What is an electric field?

a)

A region around a charged particle within which a force would be exerted only on neutral particles

b)

A region around a charged particle within which no force is exerted on other charged particles

c)

A region around a neutral particle within which a force would be exerted on other neutral particles

d)

A region around a charged particle within which a force would be exerted on other charged particles

61.

What is the formula for the force on a charge in an electric field?

a)

F = EQ

b)

F = E/q

c)

F = qE

d)

F = q/E

62.

How is the electric field strength at a point defined?

a)

Force per unit charge exerted on a stationary negative charge at that point

b)

Force per unit charge exerted on a stationary positive charge at that point

c)

Force per unit charge exerted on a stationary neutral charge at that point

d)

Force per unit charge exerted on a moving positive charge at that point

63.

What is the work done by the electric field to move a positive charge from one plate to another in a uniform field?

a)

W = qV

b)

W = qE

c)

W = qVAB

d)

W = qd

64.

What type of motion does a charged particle exhibit in a uniform electric field when entering at right angles to the field lines?

a)

Random motion

b)

Parabolic motion

c)

Linear motion

d)

Circular motion

65.

What is Coulomb's law used for?

a)

Calculating the force between a charged particle and a neutral particle

b)

Calculating the force between two neutral particles

c)

Calculating the force between two charged particles in a conductor

d)

Calculating the force between two point charges in free space

66.

What is the formula for the electric field strength due to a point charge in free space?

a)

E = Q / (8πε0r2)

b)

E = Q / (πε0r2)

c)

E = Q / (2πε0r2)

d)

E = Q / (4πε0r2)

67.

How is electric potential defined at a point?

a)

The work done per unit positive charge in bringing a small test charge from infinity to the point

b)

The force exerted per unit negative charge in bringing a small test charge from infinity to the point

c)

The work done per unit negative charge in bringing a small test charge from infinity to the point

d)

The force exerted per unit positive charge in bringing a small test charge from infinity to the point

68.

What is transferred from a region of higher temperature to a region of lower temperature?

a)

Electricity

b)

Sound

c)

Light

d)

Heat

69.

What happens when two systems in contact are at the same temperature?

a)

Heat stops transferring

b)

Heat transfers faster

c)

Heat reverses direction

d)

Heat increases

70.

What is the lowest possible temperature known as?

a)

Absolute Zero

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Room Temperature

d)

Freezing Point

71.

Which property can be used for the measurement of temperature?

a)

Density of a liquid

b)

Volume of a gas

c)

All of the above

d)

Resistance of a metal

72.

What is the specific heat capacity of a substance?

a)

Energy needed to boil the substance

b)

Energy needed to change state

c)

Energy needed to raise the temperature by 1Kg

d)

Energy needed to freeze the substance

73.

What is the internal energy of a system determined by?

a)

Kinetic energy only

b)

Potential energy only

c)

Both kinetic and potential energies

d)

Temperature only

74.

What does the First Law of Thermodynamics state about heat energy?

a)

It can be created

b)

It can be destroyed

c)

It can be transferred

d)

It can be converted to light

75.

What is the difference between heat and temperature?

a)

Temperature is the average kinetic energy of particles

b)

Heat is thermal energy transferred between systems

c)

Temperature is measured in Joules

d)

Heat is measured in Kelvin

76.

What is luminosity in terms of a star?

a)

Total power of radiation emitted by a star

b)

Distance between stars

c)

Surface temperature of a star

d)

Mass of a star

77.

What is the radiant flux intensity?

a)

Distance between stars

b)

Power passing through a surface per unit area

c)

Temperature of a star

d)

Brightness of a star

78.

What is the purpose of standard candles in astronomy?

a)

Study the composition of stars

b)

Determine distances to galaxies

c)

Measure the size of stars

d)

Classify stars based on color

79.

What is the relationship between luminosity and distance from a source?

a)

Radiant flux decreases by a factor of 2 when distance is doubled

b)

Radiant flux remains constant with distance

c)

Radiant flux increases when distance is doubled

d)

Radiant flux decreases by a factor of 4 when distance is doubled

80.

What is the Stefan-Boltzmann law used for?

a)

Calculate the distance between stars

b)

Determine the color of a star

c)

Measure the brightness of a star

d)

Estimate the luminosity of a star based on its temperature and radius

81.

What does redshift in the spectra of distant galaxies indicate?

a)

Galaxies are moving away from us

b)

Galaxies are rotating

c)

Galaxies are moving towards us

d)

Galaxies are stationary

82.

What did Edwin Hubble discover about the movement of galaxies?

a)

Galaxies do not move

b)

Further galaxies move faster away from us

c)

Closer galaxies move faster away from us

d)

All galaxies move at the same speed

83.

What is the Big Bang theory?

a)

Model of creation of the universe from a hot and dense state

b)

Model of a static universe

c)

Model of a contracting universe

d)

Model of a flat universe

84.

What is the base unit for amount of substance in the SI system?

a)

Mol

b)

G

c)

Kg

d)

L

85.

What is Avogadro's constant?

a)

2.718

b)

9.81

c)

3.1416

d)

6.022 x 10^23

86.

What is the molarity of a substance if the number of atoms is 1.8069x10^24?

a)

0.3 mol

b)

0.5 mol

c)

1 mol

d)

2 mol

87.

What is the molar mass of 1 molecule of oxygen (O2)?

a)

0.016 kgmol-1

b)

0.032 kgmol-1

c)

0.064 kgmol-1

d)

0.128 kgmol-1

88.

According to Boyle's Law, what is constant for a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature?

a)

Pressure x Volume

b)

Volume

c)

Pressure

d)

Temperature

89.

What is the new pressure if a gas with a volume of 3m3 at 20Nm-2 is reduced to 1.5m3?

a)

10 Nm-2

b)

20 Nm-2

c)

40 Nm-2

d)

30 Nm-2

90.

According to Charles Law, what is directly proportional to the absolute temperature for a constant mass of gas at fixed pressure?

a)

Volume

b)

Pressure

c)

Temperature

d)

Molarity

91.

What is the ideal gas equation that can be used for gases behaving ideally?

a)

pV = 1/3Nm

b)

pV = NkT

c)

pV = NkT

d)

pV = nRT

92.

What is the root-mean-square speed (𝑐𝑟.𝑚.𝑠) defined as?

a)

The average of the squares of the speeds of all the molecules in a gas

b)

The speed of light

c)

The speed of sound

d)

The speed of a falling object

93.

What is the relationship between the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule and the absolute temperature of a gas?

a)

𝑲.𝑬.(𝒐𝒇𝒂 𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒆) = 3𝒌𝑻𝟐𝑵𝑨

b)

𝑲.𝑬.(𝒐𝒇𝒂 𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒆) = 3/2TR/𝑵𝑨

c)

𝑲.𝑬.(𝒐𝒇𝒂 𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒆) = 2/3𝒌𝑻

d)

𝑲.𝑬.(𝒐𝒇𝒂 𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒆) = 3/2𝒌𝑻

94.

What is a magnetic field?

a)

A field of force produced by moving charges

b)

A field of force produced by stationary charges

c)

A field of force produced by light waves

d)

A field of force produced by sound waves

95.

How can a magnetic field be represented?

a)

By numbers

b)

By dots

c)

By field lines

d)

By arrows

96.

What increases the magnetic field due to the current in a solenoid?

a)

An aluminum core

b)

A plastic core

c)

A ferrous core

d)

A copper core

97.

What is the direction of a magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire according to the right hand rule?

a)

Thumb is the direction of force, fingers show the direction of current

b)

Thumb is the direction of the field, fingers show the direction of current

c)

Thumb is the direction of current, fingers show the direction of force

d)

Thumb is the direction of current, fingers show the direction of the field

98.

What is the direction of a magnetic field produced by a solenoid according to the right hand rule?

a)

Thumb is the direction of the south pole, fingers show the direction of the current

b)

Thumb is the direction of the current, fingers show the direction of the north pole

c)

Thumb is the direction of north pole, fingers show the direction of the current

d)

Thumb is the direction of the current, fingers show the direction of the south pole

99.

What is the force experienced per unit length by a current carrying conductor placed at right angles to a magnetic field?

a)

Magnetic flux

b)

Electric flux

c)

Electric field strength

d)

Magnetic flux density

100.

What is the Hall voltage directly proportional to?

a)

Magnetic flux density B

b)

Electric field strength E

c)

Magnetic flux Φ

d)

Electric flux Ψ

101.

What is the direction of the force on a charge moving in a magnetic field according to the right hand rule?

a)

Thumb is the direction of charge, fingers show the direction of magnetic field

b)

Thumb is the direction of magnetic field, fingers show the direction of charge

c)

Thumb is the direction of velocity, fingers show the direction of force

d)

Thumb is the direction of force, fingers show the direction of velocity

102.

What is Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction?

a)

The magnitude of the induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage

b)

The magnitude of the induced e.m.f is inversely proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linkage

c)

The magnitude of the induced e.m.f is directly proportional to the magnetic flux density

d)

The magnitude of the induced e.m.f is inversely proportional to the magnetic flux density

103.

What does Lenz's law state about the direction of an induced e.m.f?

a)

An induced e.m.f is in a direction so as to produce effects that oppose the change producing it

b)

An induced e.m.f is in a direction so as to enhance the change producing it

c)

An induced e.m.f is in a direction so as to have no effect on the change producing it

d)

An induced e.m.f is in a direction so as to delay the change producing it

104.

What is the r.m.s value of an alternating current?

a)

That current which delivers the minimum power to a resistive load

b)

That current which delivers the maximum power to a resistive load

c)

That steady current which delivers the same average power as the A.C to a resistive load

d)

That current which delivers no power to a resistive load

105.

What is the purpose of a single diode in half-wave rectification?

a)

To allow current flow in only one direction

b)

To decrease the voltage

c)

To increase the voltage

d)

To allow current flow in both directions

106.

What is the effect of a single capacitor in smoothing in rectification?

a)

Maintains the voltage at a high level by discharging gradually

b)

Decreases the voltage by discharging quickly

c)

Has no effect on the voltage

d)

Increases the voltage by charging quickly

107.

What does a larger capacitor do in smoothing in rectification?

a)

Charges more quickly

b)

Discharges more slowly

c)

Discharges more quickly

d)

Charges more slowly

108.

What does a larger resistor do in smoothing in rectification?

a)

Causes a slower discharge of the capacitor

b)

Has no effect on the discharge of the capacitor

c)

Causes the capacitor to charge instead of discharge

d)

Causes a quicker discharge of the capacitor