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Radio, Radar, and Sonar Systems Quiz

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of a transponder in the context of radio, radar, or sonar systems?

a)

To amplify incoming signals

b)

To automatically transmit a signal upon reception of a designated incoming signal

c)

To decode encrypted signals

d)

To store data from incoming signals

2.

Which type of radar requires the use of an active sensor computer to identify an object?

a)

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)

b)

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

c)

Passive radar

d)

Active radar

3.

What is a distinguishing feature of Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)?

a)

It requires a reply from the aircraft.

b)

It operates by transmitting a narrow beam of RF.

c)

It can get barometric altitude and identification information.

d)

It uses encrypted signals for detection.

4.

How does Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) differ from Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) in terms of aircraft response?

a)

SSR does not require a reply from the aircraft.

b)

SSR and PSR both require replies from the aircraft.

c)

SSR requires a reply from the aircraft.

d)

Neither SSR nor PSR requires a reply from the aircraft.

5.

What is the primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

a)

To control air traffic manually

b)

To provide weather updates

c)

To combine PSR and SSR systems for a total range of information

d)

To monitor ground traffic

6.

What does the ATCRBS use to allow continuous communication between its system and aircraft?

a)

Single frequency operation

b)

Two different frequencies

c)

Multiple antennas

d)

Only PSR systems

7.

Which component of the ATCRBS is responsible for determining the validity of incoming signals?

a)

Transmitter

b)

Modulator

c)

Decoder

d)

Receiver

8.

What type of signal does the ATCRBS encoder generate?

a)

DC pulse

b)

RF pulse train

c)

Reply signal

d)

Control signal

9.

What information does the airborne transponder provide to the radar operator when working with a ground radar system?

a)

Weather conditions

b)

Aircraft security information

c)

Engine performance

d)

Navigation routes

10.

What is the purpose of Mode 1 in the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)?

a)

Barometric altitude identification

b)

Traffic identification

c)

Security identification/Mission Number

d)

Personal identification

11.

Which mode is used for personal identification or identifying cargo and aircraft type?

a)

Mode 1

b)

Mode 2

c)

Mode 3/A

d)

Mode C

12.

What type of codes are available for Mode 2 in the ATCRBS?

a)

00 - 73

b)

Alt. Encoded

c)

0000 - 7777

d)

None of the above

13.

Which entities use Mode C in the ATCRBS?

a)

Military only

b)

Civilian only

c)

Both Military and Civilian

d)

None of the above

14.

What input does Mode 3/A require in the ATCRBS?

a)

Control Box

b)

Receiver/Transmitter

c)

CADC (G&C)

d)

Altimeter Encoder

15.

What is the frequency of the transmitter in the SIF System Characteristics?

a)

1030 MHz

b)

1090 MHz

c)

1150 MHz

d)

1200 MHz

16.

Which modes are supported by the airborne interrogators?

a)

All 4 modes 1,2,3/A, C

b)

Modes 3/A, C only

c)

Modes 1, 2 only

d)

Mode C only

17.

What type of antennas are used in the components section?

a)

Fixed-directional

b)

Omni-directional

c)

Adjustable

d)

Internal

18.

What is the normal sensitivity of the receiver in dBm?

a)

66 dBm

b)

78 dBm

c)

85 dBm

d)

95 dBm

19.

Which component is described as optional equipment?

a)

Control Box

b)

Mount

c)

In-Flight Test Set

d)

Receiver/Transmitter (Transponder)

20.

What does the emergency code 7700 signify in Mode 3A?

a)

Normal operation

b)

Military operation

c)

Emergency situation

d)

System malfunction

21.

What is the unique feature of Mode S interrogations?

a)

They use a standard 16 bits identification

b)

They contain a unique 24 bits aircraft address identification

c)

They operate only in military zones

d)

They require manual input from the pilot

22.

How is altitude encoded in the altimeter encoder?

a)

In 50-foot increments

b)

In 100-foot increments

c)

In 150-foot increments

d)

In 200-foot increments

23.

What is the reference value for the frame of reference in TCAS operations?

a)

10.5 microseconds

b)

15.8 microseconds

c)

20.3 microseconds

d)

25.7 microseconds

24.

How is the UHF radio's MIC I/P function controlled?

a)

Automatically

b)

Manually with a lever

c)

With a switch on the control box

d)

Remotely via satellite

25.

What is the purpose of the TACAN's TX suppression line?

a)

To enhance signal strength

b)

To prevent systems from transmitting at the same time and causing interference

c)

To increase the duration of transmission

d)

To secure communication with crypto IDs

26.

Which mode in IFF allows for the identification and distinction between allied and oppositional forces?

a)

Mode 2

b)

Mode 4

c)

Mode 5

d)

Mode 1

27.

What are the benefits of distributing keys by electronic method only in Mode 5?

a)

More efficient, more secure, less labor intensive

b)

Less efficient, less secure, more labor intensive

c)

More efficient, less secure, more labor intensive

d)

Less efficient, more secure, less labor intensive

28.

What is the role of the NSA's Central Facility in the context of the Electronic Key Management System (EKMS)?

a)

Monitoring and surveillance

b)

Research and development

c)

Production, management, and distribution of specialized keys and materials

d)

Data encryption and decryption

29.

What is the primary role of the Central Office of Record (COR) in the cryptographic key management system?

a)

To generate and distribute software updates

b)

To serve as the focal point for production, management, and distribution of cryptographic keys

c)

To provide customer support for key management

d)

To monitor and report on key usage

30.

Which devices are included in Tier 3 of the cryptographic key management system?

a)

Local Management Devices (LMDs) and Key Processors (KPs)

b)

Data Transfer Device (DTD), Data Management Device-Power Station (DMD-PS), and Simple Key Loader (SKL)

c)

Central Office of Record (COR)

d)

None of the above

31.

What type of key is the JOSEKI A Split?

a)

A Mode 5 only key

b)

A Tier 2 transfer security key

c)

A key generated by the NSA Central facility and distributed via the EKMS

d)

An unencrypted key

32.

What does the color black signify in the context of key types?

a)

The key is unencrypted

b)

The key is encrypted

c)

The key is inactive

d)

The key is in transit

33.

What is the maximum number of days that Type B keys can hold data?

a)

31 days

b)

93 days

c)

24 hours

d)

365 days

34.

How long does a crypto period last in ECU Key Storage?

a)

31 days

b)

93 days

c)

24 hours

d)

365 days

35.

Which device is an example of a non-tagged Mode 4 & 5 Equipment?

a)

APX-123/UPX-41 Type A

b)

KIV-77 Type B

c)

KIV-78 Type B

d)

None of the above

36.

What happens when the Audio-Out-Light switch is set to OUT in the Interphone System?

a)

The reply light turns on

b)

An audio signal is generated

c)

The system shuts off

d)

Both A and B

37.

How many inputs are required for the Hold function to operate?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

38.

What is the purpose of the IFF Transponder Test Set as mentioned in the document?

a)

To check the functionality of the SIE/IFF transponder and interrogator systems and E-TCAS system

b)

To enhance the GPS signal reception

c)

To control the aircraft power systems

d)

To monitor the aircraft's landing gear status

39.

How is the TS-4530 unit powered according to the document?

a)

One rechargeable battery stick

b)

Solar power

c)

Fixed electrical outlets

d)

Wind energy

40.

Which of the following is NOT a mode of operation for the TS-4530 as listed in the document?

a)

Mode 1

b)

Mode 2

c)

Mode X

d)

Mode S

41.

According to the document, how many push buttons does the TS-4530 unit have?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Four

d)

One

42.

What is the range of testing for a transponder as mentioned in the document?

a)

10 to 150 feet

b)

30 to 150 feet

c)

10 to 100 feet

d)

30 to 100 feet

43.

Which button is used to advance the test sequence?

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

None of the above

44.

What happens to the device after 15 minutes of no activity?

a)

It powers off

b)

It enters standby mode

c)

It resets the test sequence

d)

It continues running

45.

According to the document, mid-air collisions are avoidable if the crew is provided with what type of information?

a)

Detailed and complex

b)

Timely and accurate

c)

General and basic

d)

Historical and extensive

46.

What is the primary purpose of Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems (TCAS)?

a)

To increase air traffic

b)

To reduce or eliminate mid-air collisions

c)

To improve weather forecasting

d)

To enhance aircraft speed

47.

Which type of Collision Avoidance System relies on local radar and cannot operate in a non-radar environment?

a)

Active

b)

Passive

c)

TCAS I

d)

E-TCAS

48.

What additional capabilities does TCAS II have over TCAS I?

a)

Traffic situation and auditory warnings only

b)

Resolution advisories and visual maneuvers

c)

Plus range extension and Mode A tracking

d)

Surveillance functions only

49.

What is a unique feature of E-TCAS compared to other TCAS versions?

a)

Auditory warnings only

b)

Collision avoidance

c)

Plus range extension, Mode A tracking, and identification tracking for formation flight

d)

Passive surveillance

50.

How many volume types should be considered in the surveillance function of TCAS?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

51.

What is the maximum number of aircraft that the E-TCAS can track at one time?

a)

30

b)

35

c)

40

d)

45

52.

How many aircraft with the highest threat potential are displayed by the E-TCAS?

a)

25

b)

30

c)

35

d)

40

53.

Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the E-TCAS?

a)

Collision avoidance computation

b)

Azimuth maneuvers generation

c)

Threat potential evaluation

d)

Traffic advisory display

54.

On which devices can the Resolution Advisory Display Function be displayed in an aircraft equipped with E-TCAS?

a)

TCAS/VSI or MFD

b)

GPS or MFD

c)

Radar or MFD

d)

Autopilot or MFD

55.

What does the E-TCAS base its collision avoidance computation on?

a)

Intruder's speed and direction

b)

Intruder's range divided by range rate

c)

Intruder's altitude and speed

d)

Intruder's threat level and proximity

56.

What is the purpose of synthesized audio announcements in TCAS systems?

a)

To provide music during flights

b)

To issue alerts such as Clear, Traffic, Preventative RA, and Corrective RA

c)

To communicate with air traffic control

d)

To broadcast weather updates

57.

What type of data does the E-TCAS system use to determine the range to an intruder?

a)

The time it takes for sound waves to travel

b)

The time it takes for light signals to reflect

c)

The time it takes RF signals to go from TCAS to the intruder’s transponders and back

d)

The speed of the intruder's aircraft

58.

How is the bearing to an intruder determined by the TCAS system?

a)

By the altitude difference between the aircraft

b)

By the speed of the intruder's aircraft

c)

By where the signal is received on the two TCAS directional antennas

d)

By GPS positioning

59.

What determines the intruder altitude in the E-TCAS system?

a)

The GPS altitude of the intruder

b)

The barometric altitude reported by the intruder’s transponder’s mode-C or mode-S reply

c)

The visual confirmation from the pilot

d)

The estimated time of arrival of the intruder

60.

What does a white open diamond symbol indicate in TCAS indicators?

a)

A nearby intruder that is within 48 seconds of closest point of approach

b)

A target beyond proximity advisory range

c)

A resolution advisory threat within 35 seconds of CPA

d)

A proximity alert for an intruder within 1200ft of own altitude

61.

What is represented by a yellow filled circle in TCAS symbols?

a)

Non-threat target

b)

Proximity alert

c)

Traffic Advisory

d)

Resolution Advisory

62.

Which TCAS symbol indicates a resolution advisory?

a)

White open diamond

b)

Yellow filled circle

c)

Red filled square

d)

White filled diamond

63.

What is the purpose of the initial aural alert in Traffic Advisories?

a)

To indicate a proximity alert

b)

To provide a 48 seconds closest point of approach warning

c)

To provide 10-15 seconds preparatory time

d)

To alert the pilot about a potential threat

64.

What is the primary function of the E-TCAS Processor in aircraft systems?

a)

Controls engine power

b)

Manages fuel efficiency

c)

Controls all surveillance, data acquisition, tracking, advisory, air-to-air maneuvering coordination functions

d)

Monitors cabin pressure

65.

Resolution Advisories (RA) in TCAS are only issued for aircraft that report what mode?

a)

Mode A

b)

Mode S

c)

Mode C

d)

Mode D

66.

How many directional antennas are typically installed on an aircraft for TCAS?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

67.

What is required for the E-TCAS processor to function properly?

a)

At least one operational radio/radar altimeter and valid heading and attitude

b)

Only a functional GPS

c)

Only a functional autopilot system

d)

At least two operational radio/radar altimeters

68.

Into how many quadrants does the directional antenna divide the 360-degree azimuth?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

69.

What is the purpose of the set of 4 individual cables in the TCAS system?

a)

To connect the TCAS system to the power supply

b)

To connect antennas to the TCAS processor

c)

To provide power to the cockpit lights

d)

To signal the emergency systems

70.

What happens if the cables connected to the TCAS processor are damaged?

a)

The cables are repaired

b)

The cables are ignored until regular maintenance

c)

The cables are replaced

d)

The system is manually operated

71.

How is vertical speed displayed in the TCAS/VSI system?

a)

Through a series of LED lights

b)

On a horizontal bar graph

c)

On a standard circular dial with a pointer

d)

Via digital numeric output

72.

What feature does the center of the TCAS/VSI display provide?

a)

It shows the fuel level

b)

It provides horizontal situation presentation of traffic

c)

It displays weather information

d)

It indicates the altitude level

73.

What is the function of the built-in Test circuits in the TCAS/VSI system?

a)

To control the cockpit temperature

b)

To monitor the TCAS/VSI for failures

c)

To navigate the aircraft

d)

To communicate with the ground crew

74.

Which statement best describes the control hierarchy in the MFD/E-TCAS system?

a)

Copilot's control overrides the pilot's control

b)

Both pilot and copilot have equal control

c)

Pilot's control overrides the copilot's control

d)

Ground control overrides both pilot and copilot

75.

What is the normal range of the TCAS operation in nautical miles (NM)?

a)

30 NM

b)

40 NM

c)

50 NM

d)

60 NM

76.

How many Resolution Advisories (RAs) can the TCAS issue simultaneously?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

77.

What does the Tau represent in TCAS operation?

a)

Time until minimum separation

b)

Time to react to a threat

c)

Minimum time to discern a collision threat and take evasive action

d)

Time to complete an evasive maneuver

78.

What is the unique feature of Mode S in TCAS?

a)

It uses a 16-bit address ID

b)

It uses a 24-bit unique address ID

c)

It identifies only the aircraft's speed

d)

It communicates only with the control tower

79.

Which code corresponds to the 'Open White Diamond' in Active Threat Solutions?

a)

+03

b)

+07

c)

+12

d)

+17

80.

What type of Resolution Advisory requires no change to the present flight path for safe separation?

a)

Corrective

b)

Preventative

c)

Monitor Vertical Speed

d)

Climb or Descend

81.

What action does a Corrective Resolution Advisory require when a change in present flight path is necessary for safe separation?

a)

Monitor Vertical Speed

b)

No action required

c)

Climb or Descend

d)

Increase Climb

82.

What frequency does the Mode S Transponder transmit when it receives a 1030MHz interrogation from TCAS equipped aircraft?

a)

1090 MHz

b)

1030 MHz

c)

1200 MHz

d)

1000 MHz

83.

What unique identifier do Mode S interrogations contain?

a)

16-bit aircraft address ID

b)

24-bit aircraft address ID

c)

32-bit aircraft address ID

d)

48-bit aircraft address ID

84.

What does the Radio Altimeter provide to the E-TCAS system?

a)

Aircraft pressure altitude data

b)

Aircraft above ground altitude data

c)

E-TCAS heading data

d)

E-TCAS pitch and roll data

85.

Which system is used to provide aircraft pressure altitude data to E-TCAS?

a)

Radio Altimeter

b)

INU

c)

Interphone System

d)

None of the above

86.

What type of advisories does the Interphone System broadcast for E-TCAS?

a)

Visual advisories

b)

Aural advisories

c)

Manual advisories

d)

Automatic advisories

87.

What must the MFD be set in to display TCAS data?

a)

HSI format

b)

VSI format

c)

PFD format

d)

CDU format

88.

What is the primary control for E-TCAS and Mode S transponder?

a)

MFD

b)

CDU

c)

INU

d)

Radio Altimeter