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AP Bio Review Practice Quiz #1

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is one function of the other pigments  besides chlorophyll, in the chloroplast?
a)
to block damaging wavelengths of light
b)
to absorb different wavelengths than the chloroplasts
c)
to provide different colors to the leaves
d)
to transfer energy to a separate photosystem beside the one using chlorophyll a and b.
2.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
3.
What supplies the electrons that are lost in PS I?
a)
the electrons from PS II
b)
water
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
4.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
5.
Which of the following molecules is not needed for the Calvin Cycle?
a)
CO2
b)
ATP
c)
NADPH
d)
H2O
6.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
7.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
8.
Where is glucose synthesized
a)
Photosystem II
b)
Photosystem I
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
9.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
10.
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
a)
reducing NADP+
b)
splitting water molecules
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
electron transfer in photosystem II and I
11.
What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
a)
regenerate ATP for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
b)
produce carbon dioxide for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
c)
produce oxygen by oxidizing water
d)
produce simple sugars from carbon dioxide
12.
How many sugar molecules are produced from every six molecules of carbon dioxide that enter the Calvin cycle?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
13.
The H+ concentration gradient is used to 
a)
make NADPH
b)
split a water molecule
c)
generate ATP
d)
form water
14.

What is the correct order of the steps shown in the diagram?

a)

transduction, reception, response

b)

reception, transduction, response

c)

response, reception, transduction

d)

reception, response, transduction

15.

Based on this graph, what is the independent variable?

a)

Time

b)

% seed germination

c)

KAR & TMB chemicals

d)

Lactuca plants

16.

The diagram shows electrons being stripped from NADH in order to created a proton (H+) gradient. How was the NADH produced?

a)

Light-dependent reactions

b)

Calvin Cycle

c)

Fermentation

d)

Krebs Cycle

17.

The primary transcript is 15 kb long but the mature RNA is only 7 kb long. What explains the difference?

a)

Mutations in the DNA

b)

Removal of introns

c)

Post-translational modifications

d)

Removal of exons

18.

Based on the graph, what metabolic process is causing the change in oxygen between time I and II?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

fermentation

c)

anaerobic respiration

d)

photosynthesis

19.

Based on the control group, approximately how long does it take for 70% of the seeds to germinate?

a)

12 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

36 hours

d)

48 hours

20.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
21.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
22.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
23.
Before entering Krebs Cycle, pyruvate is:
a)
Oxidized
b)
Reduced
c)
Isomerized to Acetyl-CoA
d)
Phosphorylated
24.
The number of ATP molecules produced out of Krebs Cycle is:
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
0
25.
After the Krebs Cycle only a small portion of the energy of glucose has been converted to ATP. At this point the majority of usable energy is contained in
a)
NADH and FADH2
b)
Carbon Dioxide 
c)
Acetyl-CoA
d)
Citrate
26.

What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?

a)

Covalent bonding involves only the outer electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next inner electron shell.

b)

In a covalent bond, the partners have identical electronegativity; in an ionic bond, one of them is more electronegative.

c)

Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same element; ionic bonds, between atoms of different elements.

d)

In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond, one partner captures an electron from the other.

e)

In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells; in ionic bonding, one partner does and the other does not.

27.

The electron-dot structure of carbon has how many dots?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

28.

Which of the following is the strongest bond?

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Van der Waals

e)

Hydrophobic interactions

29.

What type of bond would form between two nitrogen atoms (7 protons)?

a)

ionic

b)

hydrogen

c)

single covalent

d)

double covalent

e)

triple covalent

30.
The term used to describe DNA Replication is:
a)
Semi-Conservative
b)
Conservative
c)
AntiParallel
d)
Dispersive
31.
The enzyme that removes RNA Primers and fills in the gaps with DNA Nucleotides is
a)
DNA Polymerase III
b)
DNA Polymerase I
c)
DNA Polymerase II
d)
Primase
32.

Phase involving sister chromatids aligning on plate in middle of cell.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

33.

Phase involving sister chromatids aligning on plate in middle of cell.

a)

anaphase

b)

metaphase

c)

prophase

d)

telophase

34.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all DNA has been replicated and "no" errors exist?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

35.
Because water has a positively charged end and a negatively charged end, it can be described as
a)
amphipathic
b)
hydrophobic
c)
polar
d)
nonpolar
36.
Water molecules require a lot of energy to break the hydrogen bonds.  This gives water a high
a)
density
b)
polarity
c)
solvency
d)
specific heat
37.
Which of the following properties of water enables molecules to cling together as they move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water moderates temperature.
38.
What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent that it is often called the "universal solvent?"
a)
Purity
b)
Polarity and cohesion
c)
High heat capacity
d)
Expansion upon freezing
39.
Some insects can stand on the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, but they do not break the surface. Why?
a)
The insects are light enough so they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water’s surface and they only skim it with their feet.
c)
The insect’s feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water’s surface.
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
40.
Why does water move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water is pushed by solutes.
b)
Capillary action pulls the water molecules like a chain.
c)
Water is pulled by gravity.
d)
Water’s cohesion causes it to “pull” towards the leaves.
41.
What property of water helps to moderate earth's temperature?
a)
adhesion
b)
chohesion
c)
Specific heat capacity
d)
Latent heat of vaporization
42.

Pure water has a pH of

a)

6

b)

15

c)

3

d)

7

43.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
44.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
45.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
46.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
47.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
48.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
49.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
50.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
51.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
52.

What is the correct description of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

many linear pieces of DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

many linear pieces of DNA in the nucleus

c)

one circular piece of DNA in the cytoplasm

d)

many circular pieces of DNA in the nucleus

53.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
54.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
55.
What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?
a)
it must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER
b)
its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi
c)
Its signal sequence must be cleaved off
d)
Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane
56.

Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity?

a)

a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids

b)

a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids

c)

a lower temperature

d)

a relatively high protein content in the membrane

57.

Which of the following would likely diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?

a)

sucrose.

b)

an amino acid.

c)

O2.

d)

Na+.

58.

Which of the following statements describes a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?

a)

It exhibits specificity for a particular type of molecule

b)

It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function.

c)

It works against diffusion.

d)

It has not hydrophobic regions.

59.

Which of the following statements about diffusion is true?

a)

It is very rapid of long distances.

b)

It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.

c)

It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

d)

It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

60.

Which cell is in a hypertonic environment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

None of them are hypertonic

61.

Assuming that the purple molecules are too large to pass through the membrane, what would happen to the water level as a result of osmosis?

a)

The water level would rise on the A side

b)

The water level would rise on the B side

c)

The water level would remain constant

d)

The water level would drop on the A side.

62.

White blood cells engulf bacteria using _______________.

a)

phagocytosis

b)

pinocytosis

c)

osmosis

d)

receptor-mediated exocytosis

63.

Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from ATP?

a)

Facilitated diffusion of chloride ions through a chloride channel.

b)

Movement of Na+ ions from lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid.

c)

Movement of glucose molecules into a bacteria cell from a medium containing a higher concentration of glucose than inside the cell.

d)

Movement of carbon dioxide out of a paramecium.

64.
The process of using electrons to pump H+ to create an electrochemical gradient that must flow through a protein is called:
a)
Chemiosmosis
b)
Fantasia
c)
Induced Fit
d)
Electrolysis
65.

Chemiosmosis occurs as H+ ions move through ____ in the cristae, making ATP.

a)

foldings

b)

ATP synthase

c)

protein channels

66.

H+ move down their concentration gradient by ___________ back into the matrix.

a)

osmosis

b)

facilitated diffussion

c)

simple diffusion

d)

active transport

67.

As electrons travel down the electron transport chain, they release

a)

ADP

b)

Energy

c)

ATP

d)

Hydrogen ion

68.

Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion?

a)

cytosol

b)

electron transport chain

c)

outer mitochondria membrane

d)

inner mitochondria membrane

69.

Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Mitochondrial Outer Membrane

c)

Mitochondrial Inner Membrane

d)

Mitochondrial Intermembrane Space

70.
In the ETC, what is the last electron acceptor?
a)
water
b)
oxygen
c)
NAD
d)
FAD
71.
The ETC makes water.  To make this water, where do the hydrogen atoms come from?
a)
glucose
b)
pyruvate
c)
NADH and FADH2
d)
oxygen
72.
If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 
a)
ADP is forming into ATP
b)
ADP is becoming AMP
c)
ADP is being used to power other reactions
d)
ADP is being created by the reaction
73.

What are the final products of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

NADH

b)

ATP

c)

CO2

d)

H2O

74.

Which of the following is necessary for oxidative phosporylation to occur?

a)

ATP

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

actic acid

75.

This process uses NADH and FADH2 to produce ATP

a)

fermentation

b)

glycolysis

c)

krebs cycle

d)

oxidative phosphorylation

76.

What functional group is shown in red?

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

77.

What functional group is shown in red?

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

78.

Which functional group is shown in red?

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

79.

Which functional group is shown?

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

80.

Which functional group is shown in red?

a)

amino group

b)

phosphate group

c)

carbonyl group

d)

sulfhydryl group

81.

What functional group is shown in yellow?

a)

amino group

b)

phosphate group

c)

carbonyl group

d)

sulfhydryl group

82.

Which functional group contains ketones and aldehydes?

a)

amino group

b)

phosphate group

c)

carbonyl group

d)

sulfhydryl group

83.

Alcohols have this functional group:

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

84.

Proteins contain this functional group:

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl group

c)

amino group

d)

phosphate group

85.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. Which organelle synthesized the protein?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

86.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. After being synthesized, where does it go to be modified, packaged, and sorted?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

87.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of cells. How can you determine these are eukaryotic cells?

a)

They have ribosomes

b)

They have membrane bound organelles

c)

They have DNA

d)

They have a plasma membrane

88.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of Cell X.

a)

Detoxification

b)

Secretion of Proteins

c)

Motility

d)

Storage

89.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of Cell Y.

a)

Detoxification

b)

Secretion of Proteins

c)

Motility

d)

Storage

90.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of Cell Z.

a)

Detoxification

b)

Secretion of Proteins

c)

Motility

d)

Storage

91.

How does the location of the ribosome affect the type of protein product?

a)

Free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins, while bound ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins

b)

Free ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins, while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins

c)

Free ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria, while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins

d)

Free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins, while bound ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria

92.

Where is the mRNA (used for synthesis of proteins) made?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Rough ER

d)

Smooth ER

93.

What organelle is responsible for storing calcium?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Rough ER

d)

Golgi Bodies

94.

Tay Sachs results from a build-up of fats due to an error in which organelle that is responsible for digesting macromolecules?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi Bodies

95.
Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as _____ is to _____.
a)
exergonic; endergonic
b)
free energy; entropy
c)
work; energy
d)
entropy; enthalpy
96.
If the delta G of a reaction is negative, which response shows the best conclusion for that reaction? 
a)
The reaction will release more energy than was needed to form the reaction.
b)
Energy from the reaction can be used to do work. 
c)
Energy is absorbed by the reaction which then can be used to power other reactions. 
d)
Energy is absorbed within the reaction and distributed unevenly throughout the molecule. 
97.
Assume that the reaction has a ΔG of –5.6 kcal/mol. Which of the following would be true?
a)
The reaction could be coupled to power an exergonic reaction with a ΔG of +8.8 kcal/mol.
b)
The reaction could be coupled to power an endergonic reaction with a ΔG of +6.2 kcal/mol.
c)
The reaction would result in a decrease in entropy ( S) and an increase in the total energy content (H) of the system.
d)
The reaction would result in an increase in entropy ( S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the system.
98.
Metabolism is best described as______
a)
synthesis of macromolecules
b)
breakdown of macromolecules
c)
control of enzyme activity
d)
control of enzyme activity in the synthesis and breakdown of macromolecules
99.
What is the ultimate fate of inorganic phophate produced in the cytosol?
a)
secreted as waste
b)
phosphorylated
c)
combined with ADP to regenerate ATP
d)
hydrolyzed to release additional energy
100.
Which of the following terms best describes the reaction?
a)
endergonic
b)
exergonic
c)
spontaneous
d)
allosteric
101.
Entropy is
a)
Randomness
b)
Energy
c)
Work
102.
The process of breaking down large molecules
a)
Anabolism
b)
Catabolism
c)
Dehydration
d)
Synthesis
103.
What does an exergonic reaction do with energy?
a)
Releases Energy
b)
Stores Energy
104.
What are the parts of the ATP molecule?
a)
adenine, thylakoids, stroma
b)
stroma, grana, chlorophyll
c)
adenine, ribose, phosphate groups
d)
NADH, NAHPH, FADH
105.

Free energy is released from ATP when

a)

a phosphate group is added

b)

adenine bonds to ribose

c)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

d)

a phosphate group is removed

106.
How is a molecule oxidized?
a)
Electrons are added to the molecule
b)
Electrons are taken from the molecule
c)
Electrons are shared with the molecule
d)
Protons are added to the molecule
107.
How is a molecule reduced?
a)
electrons are given to the molecule
b)
electrons are taken from the molecule
c)
money is taken from the molecule
d)
protons are given to the molecule
108.
Which of the following is correctly defined as the attraction of the hydrogen from one molecule to the oxygen of a different molecule?
a)
amphipathic
b)
hydrophobic
c)
hydrogen bonding
d)
adhesion
109.
 Many fish and aquatic plants can survive a cold winter because the layer of ice that forms at the top of the lake insulates the water below and prevents the lake from freezing solid. What unique property of water contributes to this effect? 
a)
Water absorbs heat when it evaporates and forms a gas 
b)
 Water expands and becomes less dense when it freezes.
c)
Water molecules completely separate into ions in solutions.
d)
 Water forms hydrogen bonds with ions and other polar substances. 
110.

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

a)

nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.

b)

nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules

c)

polar substances that repel water molecules

d)

ar substances that have an affinity for water.

e)

charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

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