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FFA Quiz

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 1950 FFA was in all 50 states, plus the Territory of Hawaii and Puerto Rico.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

One way to form committees is by the standards for each division: Leadership, Healthy Lifestyle, Scholarship, Personal Development, Career Success, Environmental, Human Resources, Citizenship, Stakeholder Engagement, Economic Development, Community Support, Chapter Recruitment, Safety, Agricultural Advocacy, and Agricultural Literacy.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

It is possible for State FFA Associations to be administratively organized by district, area, region or federations.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The member awarded with the State Star in Agriscience must be actively involved in the development of the experiment design, collection of data, interpretation of the data and presenting the results, to be considered as a State Star in Agriscience.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The retiring President is the first officer to speak during the Ceremony for Installing Officers.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

During 1952 and 1953 there were two NFA Presidents: Oliver Hunter from Texas and John Johnson from Tennessee.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

In 1925, Virginia Tech agricultural education teacher educators, Edmund C. Magill, Walter S. Newman, Harry W. Sanders, and Henry C. Groseclose organize the Future Farmers of Virginia for boys in agriculture classes.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Any SAE enterprise will qualify for one of the many FFA proficiency award areas available each year.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The 1970s and '80s would bring a host of new programs and changes, designed to keep pace with the evolving membership and the rapidly changing needs of the industry of agriculture.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The National FFA Center houses the National FFA Organization, including its alumni and supporters staff, FFA Board of Directors and the National FFA Foundation.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The 2017-18 National FFA President was from Delaware.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Recipients of the Honorary American Degree are selected based on contributions in areas such as Classroom/laboratory instruction, experiential learning, community partnerships, National FFA Organization, and leadership and professional development.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

There are four commas in the official salute of the FFA organization.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Growing Leaders, Building Communities and Strengthening Agriculture are the Program of Activities divisions and each of the divisions has five quality standards for which Superior chapters conduct activities that relate to each of those standards.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Reports of special (select or ad hoc) committees that were established for a specific project should present their findings in the order the committees were appointed.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

If a committee has not yet taken up the question, and it is the same day as referral or the next calendar day, then it is not appropriate to reconsider the vote on the motion to refer.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Once a committee has been discharged and the assembly wishes to again take up the motion that had been put to the committee, the motion to refer to committee must be presented again since discharging the committee also discharges the item of business that was given to the committee.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

If a member is entitled to the floor, the president recognizes the member by name or position, such as "Mr. / Madam Reporter."

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Brief explanatory remarks may follow the making of a motion, as this is considered part of debate.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

When no discussion occurs or it is evident that discussion is drawing to a close, the president may encourage its termination by asking, "Are you ready for the question?" or "Is there any further debate?"

a)

True

b)

False

21.

When the president requests action by unanimous consent, and there is no objection, approval is granted.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

When a main motion is pending and a subsidiary, incidental or tertiary motion arises, the subsidiary or incidental motion must be disposed of before further consideration is given to the main motion.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Assume an FFA Chapter has monthly meetings. If a motion was laid on the table at the January meeting it may be presented again in the form of a new motion during the March meeting, if the motion was not taken from the table as unfinished business during the February meeting.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

It is necessary when calling the previous question for a member to state, "I move the previous question on all pending business."

a)

True

b)

False

25.

If a special committee has already taken up the question, it is acceptable to discharge the committee.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An appeal may properly be called if a member does not agree with the process the president decides upon to count the votes during a secret ballot.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A division must be called before another motion has been stated and must be requested before another member has the floor.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

To save time during an election it is expedient for a member to move to close nominations and elect by acclamation.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Any member may rise to a point of order if another member presents an amendment to a main motion that is not germane to the main motion.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Previous notice is determined by the organization's rules.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Foundational SAE's includes five required and graded components as part of every course.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

During the Agricultural Sales event members present a project summary.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Identification of plant species and their effects on timber-forage-wildlife relationships are a part of the Forestry Career Development Event at the state level event held at the Stephen F. Austin Experimental Forest.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

During the Senior Prepared Public Speaking event contestants write and deliver a six to eight-minute speech about a current agricultural subject of their choice from one of six subject divisions based on speech content: animal science, plant science, natural resources, agribusiness, agricultural policy and agriculture technology & communications.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

To be eligible to apply for a Texas FFA College Scholarship, an applicant must be present in Official FFA Dress (according to the Official FFA Manual, but according to Texas Standards) at all scholarship interviews (district, area, and state).

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Chapters participating in the National Chapter Awards program are divided into three divisions—single teacher departments, two – three teacher departments, and four or more teacher departments. Applications are divided into gold, silver and bronze rating categories based on scores. Gold-rated applicants are recognized at the state FFA convention.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Private ownership of forests in the United States accounts for 56% of total forest land.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The greenhouse nursery industry is comprised of two major segments: the floricultural product segment and the landscape horticulture product segment.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

3,800 acres of Triticale is planted for seed production with most all be certified for seed resale.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Millet fodder sprouts are highly digestible and nutritious.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

In the United States, fresh fruits rank tenth in agricultural exports valued at $4.7 billion.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Sorghum is one of the forage crops that can effectively be utilized into starch, sugar, and cellulose ethanol production.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

The National Association of Wheat Growers (NAWG) was founded in 1940.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Soybeans is the number one commodity exported from the United States with a $126 billion value.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Upper Midwestern states like Wisconsin, Minnesota, and Michigan and Pacific states like California, Washington, and Oregon grow the most acreage of vegetables for processing, while Florida, California, Arizona, North Carolina, and New York have the most acreage growing vegetables for the fresh market.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Starch itself is a chain of glucose (a simple sugar) molecules joined together. When corn starch is broken down into individual glucose molecules, the end product is corn syrup, which is essentially 100% glucose.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Medium grain rice is used in cereal manufacturing, and typically cooks moist and clingy.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Cashews are tropical nuts produced primarily in southern Florida, Hawaii, and Puerto Rico.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

East Texas and South Texas feed corn is marketed through grain elevators with some used by local livestock and poultry feeders.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Modern tanneries are also required to be transparent about their various production practices and ensuring they follow good environmental procedures in manufacturing.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Vitamin D factors in tissue formation, including bones, and conversion of food into energy.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

According to the 2002 Census, the majority of American farms are small-scale, with just over 1.4 million farms having 1 to 179 acres. In comparison, only 79,790 farms are 2,000 acres or more.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

The president of the American Sugarbeet Growers Association is from Michigan.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The American Recovery and Reinvestment Act authorizes an additional $3.6 billion of new clean renewable energy bonds to be distributed to tribal governments, public power providers, and electric cooperatives to finance facilities that generate electricity from carbon-neutral renewable resources.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Onshore wind energy has a levelized cost of energy ranging from 6 cents to 12 cents per kilowatt.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The Public Utility Commission of Texas first adopted rules for the state's renewable energy mandate in 1999 and amended them in 2005 to require that 5,880 megawatts of the state's electricity generating capacity, come from renewable sources by 2010 and 15,000 megawatts of renewable capacity by 2025, including 500 megawatts from resources other than wind.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The Farm Bill legalized industrial hemp, made hemp producers eligible for the federal crop insurance program and established an interstate data system to track SNAP payments for hemp consumers.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act contains many permanent provisions that help farmers and ranchers including the repeal of the Corporate Alternative Minimum Tax.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The top State FFA Degree recipient with a non-production, _____ agribusiness SAE in each association is recognized by the state association as the State Star in Agribusiness.

a)

farming

b)

entrepreneurial

c)

sales

d)

business

e)

marketing

60.

Which of the following is for a group of elite FFA members and alumni between the ages of 18 and 24?

a)

Next Generation Conference

b)

Career Conference

c)

New Century Farmer

d)

FFA Officer Leadership Continuum

e)

Officer Enrichment Program

61.

_____ FFA members are often good candidates for this type of story because of the variety of their activities.

a)

SAE Highlights

b)

Feature stories

c)

Member spotlight stories

d)

Human interest stories

e)

Member Highlights

62.

Which of the following is symbolic of growth and development in your chosen occupation?

a)

bronze pin

b)

silver emblem

c)

golden charm

d)

Honorary membership

e)

Alumni membership

63.

From which of the following is the national top winner selected from five chapters?

a)

Model of Excellence

b)

Premier Chapter Award

c)

Middle School Model of Excellence

d)

Premier 3-Star Chapter Award

e)

Premier Model of Excellent Chapter Award

64.

_____, where agriculture, technology, science, and engineering come together and students can experience the innovations of tomorrow, connect to the careers of tomorrow, and hear from change-makers in agriculture.

a)

The National FFA Expo

b)

The Agriscience Career Fair

c)

The CDE/LDE Classroom Resource Center

d)

Career Success Tours

e)

The FFA Blue Room

65.

The National FFA President states, "We now come to one of the most important activities of the National FFA Convention." Which activity is he or she addressing?

a)

National Chapter Award Program

b)

Distinguished Service Citation

c)

Star Award Program

d)

American FFA Degree Ceremony

e)

Washington Leadership Conference

66.

For which of the following do you need to conduct a needs assessment, set goals, objectives and budget?

a)

Research-Based SAE

b)

School-Based SAE

c)

Placement/Internship

d)

Service-Learning

e)

Foundational SAE

67.

By 1971, _____ states had chartered state alumni associations, and the National FFA Alumni Association was up and running.

a)

five

b)

seven

c)

nine

d)

eleven

e)

fifteen

68.

Which of the following is the FFA's definition of Career Success?

a)

A combination of achieving a reasonable level of financial stability while doing work you enjoy and then finding that you are also happy and fulfilled with your life and career choices.

b)

The experience of achieving goals that are personally meaningful to the individual, rather than those set by parents, peers, an organization, or society.

c)

Being valued, financial stability allowing desired lifestyle and choices, maintaining good health, begin recognized, flexibility to integrate work and life, have an impact, maintaining authenticity and integrity, being fulfilled and doing what's meaningful.

d)

The development of career focused skills through classroom/laboratory instruction, FFA leadership opportunities and SAE experiences to focus on career choices.

e)

Continuously demonstrating those qualities, attributes and skills necessary to succeed in, or further prepare for, a chosen profession while effectively contributing to society.

69.

Which of the following lists includes an individual that did not represent Texas on the national level?

a)

Adolphus Pinson and Donnell Brown

b)

Dudley DeRouen and Robert Boone

c)

Bobby Tucker and Oliver Hunter

d)

Cecil Strickland and Arthur Lacy

e)

Trent McKnight and Fred McClure

70.

During which two years did Jimmy Carter speak at the National FFA Convention?

a)

1978 and 1975

b)

1976 and 1978

c)

1975 and 1979

d)

1976 and 1977

e)

1974 and 1976

71.

A flag in poor condition should be destroyed as a whole, _______, preferably by burning.

a)
solemnly
b)

openly

c)

ceremoniously

d)

confidentially

e)

privately

72.

Which of the following individuals did not represent the state of Georgia?

a)

Steven McKay

b)

Jimmy Carter

c)

Dudley Hughes

d)

Hoke Smith

e)

Doster Harper

73.

To be eligible to receive the American FFA Degree from the National FFA Organization a member must have satisfactorily completed the equivalent of at least three years (___ hours) of systematic secondary school instruction in an agricultural education program or have completed at least the equivalent of ___ hours of systematic secondary school instruction in agricultural education and one full year of enrollment in a postsecondary agricultural program or have completed the program of agricultural education offer in the secondary school last attended.

a)

a. 360 : 540

b)

b. 300 : 540

c)

c. 180 : 450

d)

d. 540 : 360

e)

e. 450 : 300

74.

During the making of which of the following motions does a member request permission to add a word or words, subtract a word or words or both?

a)

a. Amend

b)

b. Appeal

c)

c. Withdraw / Modify a Motion

d)

d. A, B & C

e)

e. A & C

75.

Which of the following is the last item listed from the eight characteristics a presiding officer should possess?

a)

a. Well-developed voice

b)

b. Neat appearance

c)

c. Skill in leading people

d)

d. Ability of learning parliamentary procedure

e)

e. Calmness and self-confidence

76.

When presenting an item of business. Rising and addressing the president: "Mr. / Madam President." Other ___, depending on the circumstances, are "Madam Chair" or "Mr. Chair" if someone other than the president is presiding. In large groups, members should, after addressing the presiding officer, give their name and the name of their chapter or town.

a)

a. designations

b)

b. appropriate titles

c)

c. acceptable terms

d)

d. suitable options

e)

e. labels

77.

Examples of dilatory motions include, but are not limited to, unfounded appeals, irrelevant points of order, ______ without merit and inappropriate or even ridiculous amendments.

a)

amendments

b)

adjournments

c)

postponements

d)

motions

e)

divisions

78.

Precedence are the rules of rank of the classes of motion and the priority of order which governs the order in which motions are proposed, considered and ______.

a)

enacted

b)

the process of discussion

c)

voted upon

d)

disposed of

e)

the actions to be taken

79.

After the secretary has read the minutes, the president may ask, "Are there corrections or additions to the minutes?" After a pause, "If not, they stand approved as read." How many taps of the gavel follows this announcement?

a)

none

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

e)

a series

80.

Minutes of the previous meeting can be corrected when, without reconsidering the vote of approving them?

a)

Within 10 minutes

b)

Only after the meeting

c)

At any time

d)

Before any other business is handled

e)

At the next calendar meeting

81.

When engaged in a chapter conducting event, those items in the order of business that are not essential to the event format ______.

a)

should be tabled

b)

can be postponed

c)

are ignored

d)

may be omitted

e)

will be removed

82.

Which of the following motions is out of order if a motion to limit the total time allowed on a motion is passed?

a)

Suspend the Rules

b)

Make Nominations

c)

Discharge a Committee

d)

Adjourn

e)

Postpone to a Certain Time (Definitely)

83.

Which of the following are the characteristics of the motion to rescind?

a)

It may not interrupt a speaker. A second is required. It is debatable and amendable. A majority vote is required if previous notice of the proposed action was given; otherwise, a two-thirds vote is required. It can be applied only to action that cannot be reversed. Only a negative vote can be reconsidered.

b)

It may not interrupt a speaker. A second is required. It is debatable. It is unamendable. A majority vote is required if previous notice of the proposed action was given; otherwise, a two-thirds vote is required. It cannot be applied to action that cannot be reversed. Only a negative vote can be reconsidered.

c)

It may not interrupt a speaker. A second is required. It is debatable and amendable. A majority vote is required if previous notice of the proposed action was given; otherwise, a two-thirds vote is required. It cannot be applied to action that cannot be reversed. Only a negative vote can be reconsidered.

d)

It may not interrupt a speaker. A second is required. It is debatable and amendable. A majority vote is required if previous notice of the proposed action was not given; otherwise, a two-thirds vote is required. It cannot be applied to action that cannot be reversed. Only a negative vote can be reconsidered.

84.

Previous notice is a verbal or written notice by a member that he/she intends to try to cancel business that was previously passed by that

a)

society

b)

assembly

c)

association

d)

group

e)

organization

85.

Which of the following motions must be done before another motion has been stated and may be requested even if another member has the floor?

a)

Postpone Definitely

b)

Previous Question

c)

Close Nominations

d)

Discharge a Committee

e)

Division of the Assembly

86.

Which of the following is not one of the rules of speaking?

a)

the right of first refusal of debate for the presenter of the motion.

b)

the process of relating to indecorum

c)

the presenter of a motion offering remarks or debate before presenting the motion

d)

the number of debates per member (2) per debatable motion

e)

the time allotment (10 minutes)

87.

To which of the following motions do the following characteristics refer: It cannot be reconsidered, it is undebatable, recognition is not necessary, it is unamendable, it does not require a second, it may interrupt a speaker?

a)

Appeal from the Decision of the Chair

b)

Suspend the Rules

c)

Rescind

d)

Point of Order

e)

Reconsider

88.

Assume a member has moved to reopen nominations and the motion was seconded. What is the proper terminology given by the president following the second?

a)

"It has been moved and seconded to reopen nominations. Is there any discussion?"

b)

"It has been moved and seconded to reopen nominations. This motion is undebatable, amendable, and requires a majority vote. Is there any discussion?"

c)

It has been moved and seconded to reopen nominations. This motion is undebatable, amendable as to time only, and requires a majority vote. The floor is open for discussion...

d)

"It has been moved and seconded to reopen nominations. This motion is undebatable, amendable to time only, and requires a majority vote. Are there any amendments?"

e)

"It has been moved and seconded to reopen nominations. This motion is undebatable and unamendable except to time only, and requires a majority vote. Is there any discussion?"

89.

How many days after Senate Bill 54 became law did it take to take effect?

a)

it took effect immediately

b)

30 days

c)

60 days

d)

90 days

e)

120 days

90.

A monumental year was made in 2020 when Texas FFA held the 92nd Convention virtually due to the COVID-19 pandemic. Speaking Development Events, Agriscience Fair, and all ___ sessions, including after show segments, were conducted online.

a)
four
b)

five

c)

six

d)

eight

e)

ten

91.

An effective FFA chapter provides a systematic and consistent avenue for significant and public recognition of student achievement. This should include a(n) ___ and a working relationship with local media.

a)

program of activities

b)

order of business

c)

FFA banquet

d)

scholarship program

e)

annual awards program

92.

Which of the following has content that promotes agricultural science education in Texas?

a)

My Texas FFA website

b)

Texas FFA Association's website

c)

Texas FFA Network

d)

Texas ATAT website

e)

Texas FFA News

93.

State and area leadership development programs are geared to strengthen local chapters through which members learn to function as part of an effective team, plan and implement strategies, lead and serve on committees and ___ responsibility.

a)
fiduciary
b)

legal

c)

leadership

d)

management

e)

financial

94.

The Texas FFA Alumni Association operates under the auspices of the Texas FFA Board of Directors in accordance to policies contained in the organization's memorandum of understanding and ___.

a)

Bylaws

b)

Constitution and Bylaws

c)

standards document

d)

procedures

e)

operating policies

95.

Crafting a personal financial management plan is the focus of the Personal Financial Management and Planning component. Students need to understand how personal financial practices like budgeting, saving and appropriate use of ______ leads to financial independence.

a)

credit

b)

banks

c)

checking accounts

d)

savings accounts

e)

money

96.

Which of the following focuses on personal development through self-discovery of talents, strengths, interests and character to develop in members the capacity for individual achievement?

a)

The Officership Series

b)

Executing with Excellence

c)

Leadership Development Continuum

d)

Building Excellence

e)

Made for Excellence

97.

Which of the following is not a title of one of the seven employees of the Texas FFA Association?

a)

Student Recognition and Scholarship Coordinator

b)

Leadership Development Coordinator

c)

Financial Coordinator

d)

SAE/Swine Validation Coordinator

e)

Executive Director

98.

In 2005, the announcement that the Texas FFA Foundation Capital Campaign had met and surpassed its ______ brought the confetti down as convention Texas FFA celebrated this significant milestone in an effort to build a $15 million endowment.

a)

first year goal

b)

two-year goal

c)

three-year goal

d)

five-year goal

e)

six-year goal

99.

The Star Award degree application and ______ must be submitted in accordance to established district and area guidelines and to the state level in compliance to deadlines and standards established in the Texas FFA Association's Policy Handbook, Section 26: Selection Procedures for Degree Candidates, Student and Chapter Awards.

a)

information sheets

b)

AET forms

c)

star battery

d)

criteria documents

e)

applicant papers

100.

How long was the interruption of the events held at Sam Houston State University during World War II.

a)

three years

b)

four years

c)

five years

d)

six years

e)

seven years

101.

Which event may have two or three or four members participating as a team?

a)

Creed Speaking/ Spanish Creed Speaking

b)

Public Relations

c)

Agricultural Advocacy

d)

Agricultural Communications

e)

Cotton

102.

During the Floriculture event, classroom knowledge and skills are applied as students identify and evaluate cut flowers, house plants, flowering plants, floral designs and complete an exam that tests their knowledge of floral design, propagation as well as preparation of floral and _____ products for sale.

a)

plant

b)

container

c)

flower

d)

foliage

e)

support

103.

In the Soil Stewardship Prepared Public Speaking event contestants write and deliver a six to eight-minute speech in accordance with the years theme selected by the Texas State Soil and Water Conservation Board. Prior to competition the speech must be presented to the local chapter and to at least one civic or school group if competing above the district level. _______ and other materials are made available through the Texas FFA Association's website.

a)

Topics

b)

Issues

c)

Rules

d)

Subjects

e)

Themes

104.

What percentage of farms in the United States are owned by women?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

25%

d)

30%

e)

35%

105.

Which of the following is considered a nutritional powerhouse?

a)

Lean beef

b)

Eggs

c)

Milk

d)

Grapes

e)

Soybeans

106.

Which of the following state produces the most pecans?

a)

New Mexico

b)

Colorado

c)

Florida

d)

North Carolina

e)

South Carolina

107.

In Texas, the economic impact of the food and fiber sector totals more than ____ annually.

a)

$100 billion

b)

$200 billion

c)

$350 billion

d)

$450 billion

e)

$600 billion

108.

What percentage of the 1,200 acres of Barley is planted for seed production as certified seed for resale?

a)

60%

b)

55%

c)

50%

d)

45%

e)

40%

109.

Which item of historical note occurred in 1777?

a)

McCormick invented the mechanical reaper

b)

American colonists began planting wheat as a hobby crop

c)

Cotton was first planted in the United States

d)

The first Southdown sheep were imported into the United States

e)

Hernando de Soto introduced America to pigs

110.

Which of the following is now part of the United States Department of Commerce?

a)

United States Department of Agriculture's National Agricultural Statistics Service

b)

Census of Agriculture

c)

Census of Agriculture Farm Topology Report

d)

Untied States Census Bureau

e)

American Farm Bureau Foundation

111.

What percentage of sorghum is consumed for food?

a)

31%

b)

38%

c)

45%

d)

49%

e)

53%

112.

Approximately how many square miles of cotton are grown in Texas?

a)

4000 acres

b)

5000 acres

c)

6000 acres

d)

7000 acres

e)

8000 acres

113.

The FSIS, a public health agency in the United States Department of Agriculture, is responsible for ensuring compliance with slaughter regulations and that the nation's commercial supply of meat, poultry, and egg products is safe, wholesome, and ______ and packaged.

a)

nutritious

b)

packed

c)

wrapped

d)

correctly labeled

e)

healthy

114.

The value of feeds and fodder exported from Texas farms is $172 million, ranking Texas ____ in the nation.

a)

eighth

b)

nineth

c)

tenth

d)

eleventh

e)

twelfth

115.

Low Plains and _____ feed corn is sold to elevators for merchandising or fed locally to livestock.

a)

High Plains

b)

Cross Timbers

c)

Northern High Plains

d)

East Texas

e)

South Texas

116.

Which item of historical note occurred in 1888?

a)

Dorper Sheep were developed in South Africa

b)

Suffolk Sheep were imported into the United States

c)

Boer Goats were imported into Texas

d)

Hampshires were imported into America

e)

The first Meat Inspection Act was passed

117.

Which of the following produces flour that is desirable for baked goods that have a tender, flaky or crisp texture?

a)

Hard Red Winter Wheat

b)

Duram Wheat

c)

Hard Red Spring Wheat

d)

Soft White Wheat

e)

Soft Red Winter Wheat

118.

88% of Untied States farms are considered ______.

a)

Principal Operator Farms

b)

Farmer Cooperatives

c)

Non-Family Farms

d)

Large-scale Family Farms

e)

Small Family Farms

119.

Proposed agency rules are published in the Federal Register and are usually open for public comment from _____. When rules are posted, NSAC and its member groups will provide example comments that grassroots individuals can use in formulating their own responses.

a)

30-60 days

b)

30-90 days

c)

60-90 days

d)

60-120 days

e)

90-120 days

120.

The current estimated on-range wild horses and burro population (as of _____) is 81,951, a 13 percent increase over the 2017 estimate of 72,674 (which doesn't include animals that were removed last year as part of a management action). That means the current West-wide on-range population exceeds AML by more than 55,000.

a)

January 2, 2019

b)

December 21, 2018

c)

August 27, 2018

d)

September 30, 2018

e)

March 1, 2018

121.

Utility-scale wind facilities in Texas with capacities greater than______ accounted for one-sixth of the state's total nameplate generating capacity and produced about one-seventh of the state's net generation in 2017.

a)

1 - megawatt

b)

5-megawatts

c)

110 megawatts

d)

2,500 megawatts

e)

5,500 megawatts

122.

_____ of Texas first adopted rules for the state's renewable energy mandate in 1999 and amended them in 2005.

a)

The Railroad Commission

b)

The Energy Information Administration

c)

The Public Utility Commission

d)

The Department of Energy

e)

The Wind Energy Association