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Biology Quarter Test Review

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which people were involved in discovering the structure of DNA?

a)
Albert Einstein and Marie Curie
b)
Isaac Newton and Galileo Galilei
c)
James Watson and Francis Crick
d)
Charles Darwin and Gregor Mendel
2.

What are the 4 nitrogen bases?

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

guanine

d)

cytosine

e)

plastosine

3.

Which of the following is not in a single nucleotide?

a)

sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose)

b)

phosphate group

c)

nitrogen containing base

d)

double chromosome

4.

What does RNA stand for?

a)
Ribonucleic Acid Nucleotide
b)
Rapid Nucleic Acid
c)
Ribonucleic Acid
d)
Random Nucleotide Assembly
5.

What sugar is different in RNA than DNA?

a)
deoxyribose
b)
glucose
c)
fructose
d)
ribose
6.

What are the 3 different type of RNA?

a)

sRNA, pRNA, gRNA

b)

dRNA, fRNA, zRNA

c)
mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
d)

pRNA, qRNA, hRNA

7.

What happens during RNA translation?

a)
tRNA is converted into DNA
b)
rRNA is synthesized from mRNA
c)
mRNA is transcribed into protein directly
d)

the cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins

8.

When is the protein being assembled in RNA?

a)
During transcription
b)
During replication
c)
During splicing
d)
During translation
9.

What is made during RNA transcription?

a)

RNA molecules

b)
Carbohydrates
c)

DNA molecules

d)
Protein
10.

What is a mutation?

a)
A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence of an organism.
b)
A mutation is a weather phenomenon
c)
A mutation is a type of plant
d)
A mutation is a form of transportation
11.

What is a mutation called that has one or a few nucleotides?

a)
Base mutation
b)
Nucleotide mutation
c)
Point mutation
d)
Single mutation
12.

What is chromosomal mutation?

a)
A change in the function of chromosomes.
b)
A change in the size of chromosomes.
c)
A change in the structure or number of chromosomes.
d)
A change in the color of chromosomes.
13.

How many chromosomes are in a human karyotype?

a)
46
b)
50
c)
48
d)
23
14.

A males sex chromosomes are what?

a)
XX
b)
YY
c)
ZZ
d)
XY
15.

A females sex chromosomes are what?

a)
XY
b)
YY
c)
ZZ
d)
XX
16.

What is non-disjunction?

a)
Failure of chromosomes to separate properly during cell division
b)
Proper separation of chromosomes during cell division
c)
Enhanced replication of genetic material
d)
Increased genetic diversity due to chromosomal errors
17.

The human genome project attempted to do what?

a)
Explore the depths of the ocean
b)

sequence the DNA of every human gene

c)
Study the behavior of ants
d)
Create a new language
18.

What is a pedigree?

a)
A pedigree is a diagram showing the genetic history of a family over several generations.
b)
A pedigree is a type of family tree
c)
A pedigree is a type of medical test
d)
A pedigree is a type of dog breed
19.

What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of Hutton and Lyell?

a)
Darwin learned nothing from their work
b)

If the Earth has changed over time, the living things will need to change with it.

c)

Hutton and Lyell hypothesized that the earth is new, so living things are new

d)
The Earth is flat
20.

What did Thomas Malthus say about the population?

a)
Population grows arithmetically while resources grow exponentially.
b)
Population grows linearly while resources grow exponentially.
c)

Population grows exponentially while resources cannot match its growth.

d)
Population grows exponentially while resources grow linearly.
21.

What is artificial selection?

a)
The process by which humans breed plants or animals randomly
b)
The process by which humans intentionally breed plants or animals for specific traits.
c)
The process by which plants grow without human intervention
d)
The process by which animals breed naturally in the wild
22.

What are the conditions necessary for natural selection?

a)
Variation in color, heritability, and differential survival
b)

Variation, Overproduction, Adaptation, Descent and Modification

c)
Uniformity in traits, adaptability, and differential reproduction
d)
Random mutations, adaptability, and uniformity in traits
23.

What is "the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce"?

a)
Fitness
b)
Adaptation
c)
Survival
d)
Reproduction
24.

How did fossils help Darwin's theory of evolution?

a)
Fossils proved that species never change over time, contradicting the concept of evolution.
b)
Fossils were irrelevant to Darwin's theory of evolution.
c)
Fossils provided evidence that all species were created separately and did not evolve.
d)
Fossils showed the existence of extinct species and transitional forms, supporting the concept of evolution.
25.

What is a homologous structure?

a)
Homologous structures are similar structures found in different species that share a common ancestor.
b)
Homologous structures are structures that are only found in plants.
c)
Homologous structures are structures that have no evolutionary significance.
d)
Homologous structures are structures that evolved independently in different species.
26.

what is an analogous structure?

a)
An analogous structure is a structure that is identical in origin and function.
b)
An analogous structure is a structure that is unique to a specific species.
c)
An analogous structure is a structure that is similar in function but not in origin or structure, often due to convergent evolution.
d)
An analogous structure is a structure that is only similar in origin but not in function.
27.

What is a vestigial structure?

a)
A vestigial structure is a body part that has lost its original function through evolution.
b)
A vestigial structure is a body part that is present in all species.
c)
A vestigial structure is a body part that is essential for survival.
d)
A vestigial structure is a body part that has gained a new function through evolution.
28.

What body part of the finch did Darwin study?

a)
eyes
b)
wings
c)
feathers
d)
beaks
29.

Which answer below is not a source of genetic variation?

a)
Genetic recombination
b)
Natural selection
c)

Lateral Gene Transfer

d)
Mutations
30.

What is a single gene trait?

a)

A single gene trait is a characteristic that is determined by the presence of only one gene and two alleles.

b)
A single gene trait is a characteristic determined by a combination of genes and environment.
c)
A single gene trait is a characteristic determined by environmental factors.
d)
A single gene trait is a characteristic determined by multiple genes.
31.

What is a polygenic gene trait?

a)
A polygenic trait is a trait that is controlled by multiple genes.
b)
A polygenic trait is a trait controlled by a single gene.
c)
A polygenic trait is a trait that is not influenced by genetics.
d)
A polygenic trait is a trait that is only affected by environmental factors.
32.

What kind of curve does the polygenic curve produce?

a)
Normal distribution curve
b)
Logarithmic distribution curve
c)
Exponential distribution curve
d)
Linear distribution curve
33.

What is directional selection?

a)
Directional selection results in a balanced distribution of traits in a population
b)
Directional selection leads to a decrease in fitness of extreme traits
c)
Directional selection is a type of natural selection where individuals at one extreme of a trait have a higher fitness, leading to a shift in the population towards that extreme.
d)
Directional selection is a type of artificial selection
34.

What is stabilizing selection?

a)
Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection that favors the average individuals in a population.
b)
Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection that favors the weakest individuals in a population.
c)
Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection that favors the strongest individuals in a population.
d)
Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection that favors the oldest individuals in a population.
35.

What is disruptive selection curve?

a)
A type of natural selection where individuals with average traits are favored
b)
A type of natural selection where individuals with extreme traits are not favored
c)
A type of natural selection where individuals at both extremes of a trait are favored over the intermediate forms.
d)
A type of natural selection where all individuals are equally favored
36.

What are the factors that must be met in order to keep a population in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

High Mutation, gene flow, random mating, genetic drift and natural selection

b)

No mutation, limited gene flow, specific mating, no genetic drift and natural selection

c)

High mutation rate, no gene flow, specific mating and natural selection

d)
No mutation, no gene flow, random mating, no genetic drift, no natural selection
37.

What are three types of reproductive isolation?

a)

Geographic isolation, prezygotic isolation, psychological isolation

b)

Temporal isolation, prezygotic isolation, land isolation

c)

Behavioral isolation, geographic isolation, temporal isolation

d)
Prezygotic isolation, Postzygotic isolation, Behavioral isolation
38.

Why are common names not used to describe an organism?

a)
Scientific names are used to provide a standardized way to identify organisms.
b)
Common names are more accurate than scientific names
c)
Scientific names are too difficult to remember
d)
Common names are not unique
39.

What is binomial nomenclature?

a)
A method of classifying plants based on their color
b)
A technique for measuring the age of fossils
c)
A system for categorizing animals by their habitat
d)
A system used in biology to give each species a scientific name consisting of two parts: the genus name and the species name.
40.

What two taxa, in order, do scientists use to classify any organism?

a)
Family, Genus
b)
Order, Phylum
c)
Class, Kingdom
d)
Genus, Species
41.

What is the order of classification from largest to smallest taxa?

a)
Phylum, Kingdom, Domain, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
b)
Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Domain, Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
42.

What is ecology?

a)
Ecology is the study of cooking recipes
b)
Ecology is the study of outer space
c)
Ecology is the study of rocks
d)
Ecology is the study of the relationships between living organisms and their environment.
43.

Name the three methods ecologists use to study the living world?

a)
surveying, analysis, prediction
b)
fieldwork, data collection, statistical analysis
c)
observation, experimentation, modeling
d)
hypothesizing, testing, concluding
44.

What are the levels of organization from smallest to largest in ecology?

a)
individual, population, ecosystem, biome, biosphere, community
b)
community, individual, population, ecosystem, biome, biosphere
c)
biome, individual, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere
d)
individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, biosphere
45.

What is a producer in ecology?

a)
An organism that only consumes other organisms for energy.
b)
An organism that lives in a symbiotic relationship with another organism.
c)
An organism that is at the top of the food chain.
d)
An organism that can make its own energy through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
46.

What is a photosynthetic producer?

a)
Organism that can produce its own food using sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide through photosynthesis.
b)
Organism that can produce its own food using heat, water, and oxygen through photosynthesis.
c)
Organism that can produce its own food using sunlight, air, and nitrogen through photosynthesis.
d)
Organism that can produce its own food using moonlight, water, and carbon dioxide through photosynthesis.
47.

What is a chemosynthetic producer?

a)
Organism that lives in extreme heat environments
b)
Organism that creates its own food using inorganic molecules as a source of energy
c)
Organism that feeds on other organisms for energy
d)
Organism that relies on photosynthesis for energy production
48.

What is a consumer in ecology?

a)
An organism that produces its own food through photosynthesis
b)
An organism that breaks down dead organic matter
c)
An organism that feeds on other organisms or organic matter to obtain energy.
d)
An organism that lives in a symbiotic relationship with another organism
49.

Which of the following below is NOT a consumer in ecology?

a)

herbavores

b)

carnivores

c)

runivores

d)

omnivores

50.

What is an abiotic factor?

a)
A factor that is not influenced by weather conditions
b)
A factor that is only present in aquatic ecosystems
c)
A non-living physical or chemical component in the environment.
d)
A living organism that affects the environment
51.

What is a biotic factor?

a)
A biotic factor is any non-living component that affects another organism.
b)
A biotic factor is a factor that only affects plants.
c)
A biotic factor is a factor that has no impact on the environment.
d)
A biotic factor is any living component that affects another organism.
52.

herbivores eat what?

a)
plants
b)
meat
c)
water
d)
rocks
53.

omnivores eat what?

a)
rocks and water
b)
sunlight and air
c)
books and toys
d)
plants and animals
54.

carnivores eat what?

a)
rocks
b)
meat
c)
water
d)
plants
55.

What is extra energy that organisms consume released as?

a)
Sound
b)
Light
c)
Heat
d)
Motion
56.

What is weather?

a)
Weather is the study of rocks and minerals.
b)
Weather is the process of photosynthesis in plants.
c)
Weather is the atmospheric conditions in a specific place at a specific time.
d)
Weather is the measurement of time.
57.

What is climate?

a)
Climate is the study of rocks and minerals.
b)
Climate is the daily weather conditions in a specific location.
c)
Climate is the long-term patterns of temperature, humidity, wind, and precipitation in a particular area.
d)
Climate is the process of photosynthesis in plants.
58.

Which one below is NOT a climate zone?

a)
temperate
b)
polar
c)
tropical
d)
arctic
59.

What causes the three different climate zones?

a)
Volcanic eruptions
b)
Earth's tilt on its axis
c)
Ocean currents
d)
Solar flares
60.

What are the 3 types of symbiosis?

a)
mutualism, commensalism, parasitism
b)

cooperation, indication, acceptance

c)

predation, parasitism, cooperation

d)

competition, commensalism, predation

61.

What term is used when organisms move into an area?

a)
migration
b)
translocation
c)
emigration
d)

immigration

62.

what term describes when organisms leave an area?

a)
Emigration
b)
Migration
c)
Infiltration
d)
Immigration
63.

What is population?

a)

Total number of species living in a specific area.

b)
The number of buildings in a specific area.
c)
The amount of money in circulation in a specific area.
d)

The amount of money each individual has in a specific area

64.

What is the difference between an exponential curve and a logistic curve?

a)
An exponential curve grows continuously without bound, while a logistic curve grows exponentially at first, then levels off to a maximum value.
b)
An exponential curve decreases over time, while a logistic curve increases continuously.
c)
An exponential curve has a fixed upper limit, while a logistic curve grows without bound.
d)
An exponential curve grows linearly, while a logistic curve grows exponentially.
65.

What helps to control the growth of a population?

a)

The limiting factor

b)

dependent variable

c)

carrying capacity

d)

population crash

66.

What is an example of density dependent limiting factors?

a)
Weather conditions
b)
Geographic barriers
c)
Human activities
d)
Competition for resources, predation, parasitism, and disease
67.

What is an example of density independent limiting factors?

a)
Increased competition for resources
b)
Predation
c)
Natural disasters like hurricanes, wildfires, and extreme temperatures
d)
Migration

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