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Life Science FSSA Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the first step in all food chains?

a)

producer

b)

consumer

c)

decomposer

d)

energy from the Sun

2.

Suppose you find a fossil that includes a jaw with all flat teeth. What could you conclude?

a)

The animal was a herbivore.

b)

The animal was a carnivore.

c)

The animal was an omnivore.

d)

The animal was a decomposer.

3.

Which is true about the sun?

a)

The sun is the largest star in the Milky Way galaxy.

b)

The sun is the closest star to Earth in all galaxies.

c)

The sun has the highest surface temperature of all stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

d)

The sun has the highest absolute brightness of all stars in the Milky Way galaxy.

4.

Dark areas that form on the surface of the sun

a)

Solar flares

b)

Sunspots

c)

Prominences

5.

Huge loops of cool gas that extend outward from the photosphere.

a)

Solar flares

b)

Sunspots

c)

Prominences

6.

An explosive release of energy on the sun.

a)

Sunspot

b)

Solar flare

c)

Solar prominence

7.

The sun does not rotate in the same way the Earth does. The sun has different periods of rotation at different latitudes called differential rotation. The figure shows the rotation of the sun.


Which letter indicates the latitude at which the sun rotates the fastest?

a)

R

b)

S

c)

T

d)

W

8.

Model of the solar system proposing that the Earth is the center of our solar system.

a)

Heliocentric

b)

Geocentric

9.

Model of the solar system proposing that the sun is the center of our solar system.

a)

Heliocentric

b)

Geocentric

10.

As the distance from the sun increases, the orbital period for a planet ...

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

11.

Which orders the orbital period from least to greatest?

a)

Earth, Mercury, Mars, Uranus

b)

Mercury, Earth, Mars, Uranus

c)

Mars, Mercury, Earth, Uranus

d)

Uranus, Mars, Earth, Mercury

12.

Maria lives in Austin, Texas, where the weather is very warm most of the year. Her grandparents live in Russia where they have very cold winters. Which best explains why the seasons are so different between Maria's house and her grandparents?

a)

Parts of Earth closer to the equator do not experience as many seasonal changes.

b)

Parts of Earth farther away from the equator do not experience many seasonal changes.

c)

Parts of Earth closer to the equator receive indirect rays from the sun all year long.

d)

Parts of Earth farther away from the equator receive indirect rays from the sun all year long.

13.

During a solar eclipse . . .

a)

The Earth casts a shadow on the sun.

b)

The Earth casts a shadow on the sun.

c)

The Earth casts a shadow on the moon.

d)

The moon casts a shadow on the Earth.

14.

What force is responsible for holding planets, stars, and the sun together?

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

c)

Gravity

d)

Heat

15.

An ________ is a rocky body that revolves around the sun, in between Mars and Jupiter.

a)

Meteor

b)

Comet

c)

Asteroid

16.
What kind of tectonic plate movement will produce trenches and volcanoes?
a)
convergent (oceanic/oceanic)
b)
convergent (continental/continental)
c)
Divergent (oceanic/oceanic)
d)
Transform
17.
A convergent plate boundary of two continental plates will make what kind of landform?
a)
ridge
b)
mountain
c)
volcano
d)
trench
18.
The movement of sediment and rock particles is called
a)
weathering
b)
cementation
c)
deposition
d)
erosion
19.
The process of sediment being dropped off in a new location is called
a)
deposition
b)
weathering
c)
rocks
d)
erosion
20.
What are the three main types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Classic, Hard, Alternative
c)
Iguana, Meteorite, Solitary
d)
Crust, Lava, Magma
21.
How are rocks broken down?
a)
by weathering
b)
by heat and pressure
c)
by deposition
d)
by erosion
22.
How is sedimentary rock formed?
a)
magma being cooled down
b)
intense heat and pressure
c)
compacted and cemented sediment
d)
weathering and erosion
23.
How is igneous rock formed?
a)
intense heat and pressure
b)
cooled magma/lava
c)
weathering and erosion
d)
sediments being compacted together
24.
How is metamorphic rock formed?
a)
magma being cooled
b)
intense heat and pressure
c)
compacted sediments
d)
weathering and erosion
25.

Which is not explained by plate tectonics?

a)

earthquakes

b)

floods

c)

mountain building

d)

volcanoes

26.
Which layer extends from below the mantle to the center of Earth?
a)
core
b)
continental crust
c)
lithosphere
d)
oceanic core
27.
Which is not one of Earth's layers?
a)
crust
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
ocean
28.
Which is not a way that humans can impact Earth's surface?
a)
Humans cut down trees and cause deforestation.
b)
Humans affect air and water quality.
c)
Humans change the flow of water with dams.
d)
Humans change the flow of water through desertification.
29.
Look at the image below. How does the river change the land?
a)
The river builds up the mountains by depositing sand.
b)
The river erodes the mountains by washing away sediment.
c)
The river forces magma to Earth's surface.
d)
The river changes rock with heat and pressure.
30.
When does erosion take place?
a)
after water, ice, and wind make rock from soil and sediment
b)
as tectonic plates collide and one plate sinks below the other
c)
when heat and pressure inside Earth change a rock's structure
d)
as water, ice, wind, and/or gravity move soil and sediment from one place to another
31.

What happens when light is refracted?

a)

It changes direction

b)

It becomes invisible

c)

It releases heat

d)

It moves faster

32.
A student opens the top window and the bottom window in a hot room. What statement best describes the heat transfer occurring in the room?
a)
conduction
b)
radiation
c)
convection
d)
evaporation
33.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
34.
Which force produces a change in motion?
a)
unbalanced force
b)
balanced force
c)
gravitational force
d)
frictional force
35.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
36.
Calculate the Net Force. 
a)
60N, Left 
b)
40N, Right 
c)
0N
d)
60N, Right
37.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
38.

The net force is...

a)

-20 N

b)

0 N

c)

80 N

d)

20 N

39.
Balanced or unbalanced?
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
40.
Light is a form of 
a)
energy
b)
radiation
c)
reflection
41.
The type of wave that can travel through either matter or empty space:
a)
Mechanical Waves
b)
Electromagnetic Waves
42.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
43.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
44.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
45.

the center region of an atom where protons and neutrons are located (also, the cell structure that contains the cell's genetic material)

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

weight

d)

nucleus

46.

a term used to describe a material that can be clearly seen through because it allows light waves to pass through in straight lines

a)

pressure

b)

transluscent

c)

transparent

d)

weight

47.

the amount of space an object takes up

a)

translucent

b)

reflect

c)

weight

d)

volume

48.

a substance that is being dissolved by another substance

a)

solvent

b)

solute

c)

weight

d)

volume

49.

the time-rate at which a body changes position

a)

pressure

b)

weight

c)

wavelength

d)

velocity

50.

the measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution based on a scale from zero to fourteen

a)

proton

b)

pitch

c)

pH

d)

pressure

51.

solvent

a)

a substance that dissolves another substance

b)

the distance between crests of a wave

c)

a substance the is dissolved by another substance

d)

a physical property of a solid used to describe its surface

52.

a subatomic particle having a positive charge and which is found in the nucleus of an atom

a)

solute

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

proton

53.

a term used to describe a material that absorbs and/or reflects light and does not allow light to pass through

a)

pressure

b)

volume

c)

opaque

d)

weight

54.

speed

a)

a physical property of a solid used to describe its surface

b)

the distance traveled by an object in a given amount of time

c)

the amount of space an object or substance occupies

d)

a measure of the force of gravity on an object

55.

to force away or apart

a)

repel

b)

pitch

c)

pH

d)

neutron

56.

the lowest point on a wave

a)

weight

b)

trough

c)

volume

d)

wavelength

57.

a particle, object, or system that lacks a net charge

a)

pressure

b)

negative

c)

positive

d)

neutral

58.
What does the strength of gravity between two objects depend upon?
a)
Mass & distance
b)
Mass & weight
c)
Gravity & inertia
d)
Inertia & mass
59.
What force ultimately slows the roller coaster to a stop?
a)
Applied
b)
Normal
c)
Friction
d)
Magnetic
60.
A north pole and a south pole will attract.
a)
True
b)
False
61.

Which is a true statement about the scientific theory of evolution?

a)

it was accepted by all scientists without question

b)

it proved what most scientists believed at that time

c)

it had no significant impact on scientific thought and society

d)

it was developed using large amounts of empirical evidence

62.

Which is a true statement about scientific laws?

a)

they are the same thing as facts

b)

they can explain a wide range of events

c)

they can change in light of new evidence

d)

they are the foundation of scientific theories

63.

What happens to frequency as wavelength decreases across the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

frequency increases

b)

frequency decreases

c)

frequency stays the same

d)

frequency and wavelength are not related

64.

What type of energy transformation occurs, when a hawk eats a mouse and then uses the energy from the mouse to fly?

a)

mechanical energy to chemical energy

b)

thermal energy to mechanical energy

c)

chemical energy to mechanical energy

d)

mechanical energy to thermal energy

65.

Which object shows an energy transformation from electrical to mechanical?

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

When a car burns gasoline it creates hot air to move the pistons in the engine, which causes the car to move. What energy transformation occur from the fuel to the movement of a car?

a)

thermal energy to mechanical energy

b)

thermal energy to chemical energy to mechanical energy

c)

chemical energy to thermal energy to mechanical energy

d)

chemical energy to electrical energy

67.
Electrical Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Thermal
b)
Solar
c)
Electrical
d)
None
68.

Select all of the following that are true.

a)

Energy can be transferred and transformed.

b)

There are three types of energy.

c)

Energy just disappears sometimes.

d)

Electrical energy can be transformed into mechanical energy.

69.

What sort of energy transformation is this?

a)

Chemical to Thermal

b)

Thermal to chemical

c)

Kinetic to potential

d)

Open to closed

70.

When you drop a basketball it does not bounce back all the way. This is because some of the mechanical energy is 'lost' when it transforms into which of the following ?

a)

Sound

b)

Chemical

c)

Radiant

d)

Hamster

71.

What is the energy transformation that occurs in an electric pencil sharpener?

a)

mechanical energy to electrical energy

b)

electrical energy to mechanical energy

c)

radiant energy to sound energy

d)

chemical energy to mechanical energy

72.

What is the first step in the scientific method?

a)

Ask a question

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Conclusion

d)

Analyze data

73.

A student wants to perform a science experiment about plants. He wants to know if a certain type of soil will make plants grow taller. Each pot will receive a different type of soil, but will get the same type of seed, water amount, and sunlight amount.What is the Independent Variable in this story?

a)

Amount of sunlight

b)

How tall the plant will grow

c)

Amount of water

d)

Type of material the plant is growing in

74.

What do you measure for results (outcome)?

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Experimental Group

d)

Constants

75.

If an animal shelter wants to see if a certain dog food causes a dog to gain weight, which of the following would NOT be a constant?

a)

Type of dog food given

b)

Amount of dog good given

c)

Time of day food is given

d)

Amount of exercise dog is given

76.

Why is it important to have constants in an experiment?

a)

To make sure the experiment is fair

b)

Constants are not needed for experiments.

c)

To measure the dependent variables all at once

d)

To test many variables at a time

77.

Anna is in charge of studying how the amount of plant food (fertilizer) affects the height of a plant at a local garden. Which testable statement does she investigate?

a)

There is no way to test this hypothesis.

b)

If a plant receives two cups of food per day, then the height of the plant will increase

c)

If a plant gets different amounts of water and two cups of food per day, the height of the plant will increase

d)

If a plant receives more sunlight, the height of the plant will decrease

78.

Why do many experiments include several trials instead of a single trial?

a)

Repetition of trials increases the accuracy of the results

b)

Repetition of trials decreases the sample size of the experiment.

c)

Repetition of trials makes data easier to analyze.

d)

It is not necessary to repeat trials

79.

1. Aside from repeating a scientific experiment, what else must a scientist do to increase the accuracy of the results?

a)

Change the hypothesis

b)

Share data with other scientists for them to repeat or replicate

c)

Analyze the data faster

d)

Keep the data for themselves

80.

How is a hypothesis different from a theory?

a)

A theory has evidence to back it up and a hypothesis is an educated guess as to what is going to happen.

b)

They are both the same. They both are guesses as to what happens in the natural world.

c)

A theory is an opinion about how something works but a hypothesis has scientific evidence to support it.

d)

A hypothesis is used in science and a theory is used in society.

81.
Eduardo is a conservation biologist. He needs to develop a plan to preserve wetlands. He begins his project by studying the data in the following chart. How is Eduardo using scientific methods in developing a plan?
a)
He is analyzing data about causes and effects.
b)
He is analyzing a hypothesis about causes and effects.
c)
He is proposing an experiment about causes and effects.
d)
He is using intuition to determine causes and effects.
82.
Sarah is participating in a walkathon to raise money for local literacy programs. The amount of money Sarah will raise depends on the distance she walks.
m = the amount of money Sarah will raise
d = the distance Sarah walks
Which of the variables is dependent?
a)
m
b)
d
83.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
84.
In the graph shown, how many species of lizards seem to have beneficial adaptations?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
85.
What do we call similar physical structures that indicate a link to a common ancestor?
a)
absolute dating
b)
adaptations
c)
gradualism
d)
homologous structures
86.
The preserved remains or physical evidence of an organism that lived in the past are called...
a)
evolutionary features
b)
fossils
c)
mutations
d)
variations
87.
What most likely caused the finches on the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that were differnt from the finches living on the South American mainland?
a)
They were different types of food available on the island.
b)
The finches on the islands had to drink salt water.
c)
There were different types of predators living on the island.
d)
The finches on the mainland built different types of nests.
88.
Which beneficial variation would be most helpful in a desert environment?
a)
white fur
b)
claws for burrowing
c)
grean and black camouflage
d)
flippers
89.
Which would NOT be considered a fossil?
a)
bones buried deep in the earth
b)
footprints harened in  mud or rocks
c)
imprints left in rocks
d)
stories passed down from generation to generation
90.
What is it called when an organism is best adapted to its environment, it will survive and reproduce more successfully than other organisms less adapted?
a)
cloning
b)
evolution of all species
c)
natural selection
d)
selective breeding
91.

Select all that are products of Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

92.

What three things do plants need?

a)

Water, air, and sunlight.

b)

Water, soil, and sunlight.

c)

Water, soil, and air.

d)

Love, family, and Cheetos.

93.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. This relationship neither harms nor benefits the whales. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
94.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs in the flowers where the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
95.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from a spruce tree. The spruce tree is harmed. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
96.
 The stork uses it saw-like bill to cut up the dead animals it eats. As a result, the dead animal carcass is accessible to some bees for food and egg laying. The relationship neither harms nor benefits the stork.
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
97.

Which of the following shows the symbiotic relationship between the Rodent and the Bird?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Competition

98.

Hermit Crabs live in shells made and then abandoned by snails.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Competition

99.
Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.  
a)
Competition
b)
Mutualsim
c)
Predation
d)
Commensalism
100.

An organism that eats grass and insects is

a)

an herbivore

b)

a producer

c)

prey

d)

an omnivore

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