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AP Bio: Units 1-4 Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Carbohydrate molecules:

a)

Serve as structural components of human cell walls

b)

form the regulatory compounds known as enzymes

c)

are a source of energy

d)

carbon to carbon bonds are strong

2.

The process illustrated in the figure is called:

a)

condensation

b)

protein synthesis

c)

hydrolysis

d)

dehydration synthesis

3.

The products of the process in the figure shown are:

a)

monosaccharides

b)

molecules of glycerol

c)

representative of a glycoside linkage

d)

enzymes

4.

In which of the following reactions must the equivalent of a water molecule be added in order to break a bond?

a)

fatty acids + glycerol --------> fat

b)

glucose + fructose ----------> sucrose

c)

glycogen ------------> glucose

d)

alanine + glycine ----------> dipeptide

5.

A molecule of saturated triacylglycerol (aka triglyceride) contains:

a)

the maximum number of double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chains

b)

the maximum number of triple bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chain

c)

the maximum number of hydrogen atoms in the fatty acid chain

d)

alternating single and double bonds between carbons in the fatty acid chain

6.

Which of the following is responsible for the alpha-helical structure of proteins?

a)

hydrophobic interactions

b)

nonpolar covalent bonds

c)

ionic interactions

d)

hydrogen bonds

7.

At which level of protein structure are peptide bonds most important?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

quaternary

d)

globular

8.

If the differently shaded portions of this molecule represent different polypeptide chains, then this figure is representative of:

a)

an amino acid

b)

the primary structure of a protein

c)

the secondary structure of a protein

d)

the quaternary structure of a protein

9.

Analysis of a certain complex compound shows that it contains phosphate groups, ribose groups, and pyrimidines. Based on this information, which of the following is the best description of this compound?

a)

It is most likely ribonucleic acid

b)

It is DNA

c)

It is an inorganic compound

d)

It contains thymine

10.

Which monomer is incorrectly matched with the corresponding polymer?

a)

Monosaccharides are used to build polysaccharides

b)

Amino acids are used to build proteins

c)

Fatty acids are used to build nucleic acids

d)

Glucose molecules are used to build starches

11.

Which characteristic of water molecules directly contributes to the remarkable "water walking" success of the aquatic insects pictured?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

capillary action

c)

nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

ionic bonds

12.

A stalk of celery is placed in a solution of blue colored dye. After one hour, the leaves have blue fluid in their veins. Which property of water is being demonstrated?

a)

adhesion and cohesion

b)

evaporation and cooling

c)

lower density as a solid than as a liquid

d)

high specific heat

13.

Which of the following is responsible for the cohesive property of water?

a)

Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atoms of two adjacent water molecules

b)

Covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms of two adjacent water molecules

c)

Hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atom of one water molecule and a hydrogen atom of another water molecule

d)

Covalent bonds between the oxygen atom of one water molecule and a hydrogen atom of another water molecule

14.

Choose the letter(s) that correspond to the picture that matches to a functional protein

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

15.

Choose the letter(s) that correspond to the picture that matches to a nucleotide

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

16.

Choose the letter(s) that correspond to the picture that matches to a polysaccharide

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

17.

Choose the letter(s) that correspond to the picture that matches to a monosaccharide

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

18.

Air that is dry changes temperature quickly, while air that is moist retains its temperature. What property allows for this regulation of temperature?

a)

The heat of fusion of the nitrogen in the air, due to free electrons

b)

The high electric potential of the air, which results from the static charges of the molecules in dry conditions

c)

the greenhouse effect, due to the increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

the high specific heat of water, which results from the polarity and hydrogen bonding

19.

Which of the following is an example of a hydrogen bond?

a)

The peptide bond between amino acids in a protein

b)

The bond between an oxygen atom and a hydrogen in the carboxyl group of a fatty acid

c)

The attraction between a hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

d)

The bond between carbon and hydrogen in methane

20.

The major component of the fluid bilayer of a plasma membrane

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Protein

21.

Steroid affecting the fluidity of the plasma membrane

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Protein

22.

Which of the following best characterizes the reaction represented below

A + B + energy AB

a)

hydrolysis

b)

catabolism

c)

oxidation-reduction

d)

exergonic reaction

e)

endergonic reaction

23.

Which of the following can be used to determine the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions

a)

rate of disappearance of the enzyme

b)

rate of disappearance of the substrate

c)

rate of disappearance of the product

d)

change in the volume of the solution

24.

What is the role of ribosomes?

a)

To store genetic information.

b)

To produce glycolipids.

c)

To synthesize proteins.

d)

To hydrolyze waste materials.

25.

Which of the following is not found in all forms of life, and therefore is not evidence of the common ancestry of life?

a)

Nuclei

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Plasma Membranes

d)

Cytosol

26.

Which of the following is a difference between smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?

a)

Smooth ER exists in a part of the cell near the cell membrane, while rough ER exists in a part of the cell near the nucleus.

b)

Smooth ER is not studded by ribosomes, while rough ER is studded by ribosomes.

c)

Smooth ER is meant to compartmentalize the cell, while rough ER detoxifies and synthesizes lipids.

d)

Smooth ER is made without the additional help of proteins, whereas rough ER is made with the help of special proteins called reticuloproteins.

27.

Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a)

Detoxification of the cell and lipid synthesis.

b)

Protein and rRNA synthesis.

c)

Synthesis of chemical energy (adenosine triphosphate).

d)

Chemical modification of newly synthesized proteins before they are packaged for trafficking to other parts of the cell or outside of the cell.

28.

In plants, what is the primary function of vacuoles?

a)

To maintain water pressure inside of the cell.

b)

To remove waste from inside of the cell.

c)

To store nutrients inside of the cell.

d)

To synthesize new membranes for the cell.

29.

Which of the following membrane-bound organelles is responsible for hydrolysis (using enzymes to break down macromolecules)?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Peroxisomes

30.

Which of the following is a reason that cells are so small?

a)

Cells are small because they want to maximize their surface area-to-volume ratio.

b)

Cells are small because they want to maximize their volume-to-surface area ratio.

c)

Cells are small because they need to produce extremely small macromolecules.

d)

Cells are small because they prefer to work together in clusters of many thousands that wouldn't otherwise fit anywhere.

31.

Which of the following is one way that cells increase their surface area without increasing their size?

a)

Cells will often include perfectly spherical membranes.

b)

Cells will often include folds in their membranes.

c)

Cells will often include holes in their membranes.

d)

Cells will maximize their volume.

32.

Which is a not reason why cells want to increase their surface area without increasing their size?

a)

An increased surface area is associated with a greater ability to transfer heat to maintain homeostasis.

b)

An increased surface area is associated with a greater ability to exchange gases from inside the cell to the outside of the cell.

c)

An increased surface area is associated with a greater ability to reproduce.

d)

An increased surface area is associated with a greater ability to complete chemical reactions.

33.

What happens to cells as they increase in volume?

a)

Their radius decreases.

b)

Their surface area increases.

c)

Their surface area decreases.

d)

Their circumference decreases.

34.

Which of the following correctly describes hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions of the cellular membrane?

a)

The hydrophobic region is made of phosphates, and the hydrophilic region is made of lipids.

b)

The hydrophobic region is 'water-loving', and the hydrophilic region is 'water-fearing'.

c)

The hydrophobic region is polar, and the hydrophilic region is non-polar.

d)

The hydrophobic region faces inward in the interior of the membrane, the hydrophilic region faces outwards towards the aqueous environment.

35.

Which of the following would need assistance moving through the plasma membrane?

a)

Nitrogen gas (N2)

b)

Oxygen gas (O2)

c)

Carbon Dioxide gas (CO2)

d)

Water

36.

What is the primary role of aquaporins?

a)

To transport water across the membrane.

b)

To change the state of water from gas to liquid.

c)

To pump water into the mitochondria for cellular respiration.

d)

To use water for hydrolytic purposes.

37.

Which of the following describes a solution that has a higher concentration than the internal environment of the cell?

a)

Hypotonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Transtonic

38.

If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, what is likely to happen to it over time?

a)

The cell will swell, as water flows into the cell.

b)

The cell will not change, as it will be at dynamic equilibrium.

c)

The cell will lyse, as water bursts the cell.

d)

The cell will shrink, as water flows out of the cell.

39.

Which of the following describes the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

A prokaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller prokaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell eukaryotic.

b)

A eukaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller prokaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell prokaryotic.

c)

A prokaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller eukaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell eukaryotic.

d)

A eukaryotic cell engulfed several other types of smaller eukaryotic cells, and eventually its compartmentalization made the cell prokaryotic.

40.

Which of the following membrane-bound organelles evolved from free-living prokaryotic cells?

a)

Nuclei and plasmids.

b)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts.

c)

Vacuoles and lysosomes.

d)

Centrioles and microtubules.

41.

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

42.

Which structure is unaffected by denaturation?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

43.

Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?

a)

slight increase in temperature

b)

extreme increase in temperature

c)

decrease in temperature

d)

extreme increase in temperature and pH changes

44.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

45.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

46.

Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

47.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

48.

What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?

a)

establish electrochemical gradient of protons

b)

to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle

c)

transport electrons to oxygen to make water

d)

to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase

49.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

cristae

c)

stroma

d)

matrix

50.

Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

NADPH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADH & FADH2

51.

Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

52.

What is oxidation?

a)

loss of electrons

b)

loss of water

c)

gain of electrons

d)

gain of water

53.

Which process does NOT require oxygen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Aerobic respiration

54.

What evidence is there that cell communication is a process that has evolved over billions of years?

a)

Only cells with a nucleus are able to communicate effectively

b)

The processes are very similar in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

c)

Eukaryotic cells have much more advanced signaling pathways

d)

Prokaryotic cells are much more efficient at communicating.

55.

Which of these is a common type of final response in a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Activation of a G-protein receptor

b)

Transcription of a desired mRNA sequence

c)

Formation of cAMP

d)

Phosphorylation cascade

56.

A mutation in a cell membrane receptor would most likely have what effect on a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Reduce the response of the pathway

b)

An alternative response will be expressed

c)

Increase ligand binding

d)

Increase ligand release from the effector cell

57.

A person with an insulin deficiency would have trouble regulating what condition in their body?

a)

Blood calcium

b)

Blood pH

c)

Blood sugar

d)

Blood temperature

58.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

59.

This diagram shows transduction of a signal. How is the signal being transduced to its target location in the cell?

a)

A hormone is binding to an intracellular protein receptor

b)

Transport vesicles are passing neurotransmitters to neighboring cells

c)

Enzymes are passing phosphate groups down a series of proteins

d)

cAMP is formed activating a desired response

60.

What is a catabolic reaction?

a)

A reaction that requires an input of energy

b)

A reaction that forms complex molecules from simple building blocks

c)

A reaction that releases energy

d)

A reaction that breaks down complex molecules into their components

61.

Why do hormones not affect every cell in the body when they are released?

a)

All cells are affected by a hormone when it is released

b)

A cell needs a specific receptor for the hormone to be affected

c)

A cell must have the proper ATP levels to activate a cellular response

d)

Cells need compatible DNA for the hormone to activate transcription of a gene

62.

Secondary messengers that can activate or deactivate enzymes in a cell are typically part of which step of cell signaling?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

63.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

64.

When we are dehydrated, ADH is released which causes more water to be absorbed into our bloodstream. What type of feedback does this represent?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

65.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

b)

Immune cells releasing inflammatory cytokines

c)

Breathing faster to release excess CO2

d)

Shivering to increase blood temperature

66.

How is negative feedback different from positive feedback?

a)

Negative feedback harms the body

b)

Negative feedback works to reverse a change in a system

c)

Negative feedback is rarer than positive

d)

Negative feedback is slower than positive feedback

67.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

68.

After metaphase what phase occurs next in mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

69.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

70.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

71.

What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

a)

Evenly divide the cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Creating an exact copy of a cell's genetic material

c)

Protect an organism from mutations

d)

Ensure genetic material is properly transferred to daughter cells

72.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

73.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the greatest amount of time in?

a)

S phase

b)

Interphase

c)

M-phase

d)

Cytokinesis

74.

How are cancerous cell different from healthy cells?

a)

The have a much shorter cell cycle

b)

They do not need nutrients to survive

c)

They are reliant upon density dependent inhibition

d)

They have twice as much genetic material

75.

How are cyclins and CDKs involved with the cell cycle?

a)

Cyclins stop the cell cycle from proceeding

b)

Cyclins and CDKs make up a protein ring used to perform cytokinesis

c)

Cyclins activate CDKs, which perform the work of cell division

d)

CDKs are secreted from cells to trigger division in neighboring cells