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AP Human Geography Semester 2 Practice Final Exam

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 4hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
State that has freedom over its own affairs has 
a)
centrifugal forces
b)
nationalism
c)
sovereignty
d)
pluralism
2.
An area organized into a independent political unit is a 
a)
colony
b)
territory
c)
satellite
d)
State
3.

Poland is an example of a ____ state.

a)

elongated

b)

fragmented

c)

compact

d)

prorupted

4.
Japan would be an example of a ______.
a)
Compact State
b)
Nation-State
c)
Multinational State
d)
Perforated States
5.
A group of people who share a common culture and identity as a cohesive group is a called a ___.
a)
Nation State
b)
Nation
c)
Country
d)
Sovereign State
6.
South Africa is an example of an ___.
a)
perforated state
b)
enclave
c)
exclave
d)
prorupted
7.
Which of these is a fragmented state?
a)
Indonesia
b)
United States
c)
Russia
d)
Austrailia
8.

Boundaries established by rivers, oceans, deserts, mountains, etc.

a)

Political boundaries

b)

Physical boundaries

c)

Cultural boundaries

d)

Linguistic boundaries

9.

A state is a synonym for a

a)

territory

b)

country

c)

unit

d)

member

10.

Which shape most easily fosters the establishment of effective internal communication of a smaller state?

a)

compact

b)

elongated

c)

fragmented

d)

prorupted

11.

When a state has __________________, it means it had control over its internal affairs without interference from other states. It is independent.

a)

self-determination

b)

sovereignty

c)

immunity

d)

diplomacy

12.

What is this country an example of?

a)

Perforated

b)

Compact

c)

Elongated

d)

Fragmented

13.

Which of the following is NOT a necessary criterion for a state? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Sovereignty
Defined boundary
Common culture and identity
Recognition by other states
Permanent Population
14.

Countries highlighted in the darker shade in the map represent most or all of the members which for which of the following organizations?

a)

North Atlantic Treaty Organization

b)

Warsaw Pact

c)

United Nations

d)

League of Nations

e)

European Union

15.

Based on the information in the chart, Myanmar is a

a)

Nation

b)

Nation-State

c)

Multinational State

d)

Stateless Nation

e)

Multistate Nation

16.

Based on the information in the chart, the lands of the Kachin can be considered

a)

a multistate nation

b)

an autonomous region

c)

a nation-state

d)

a stateless nation

e)

a newly independent state

17.

Which of the following would describe a positive development for a state that became independent through decolonization?

a)

Establishing territoriality by claiming sovereignty over its lands

b)

Maintaining economic neocolonial ties with its former mother country

c)

Engaging in ethnic cleansing of a minority group within its boders

d)

Existing along a shatterbelt between two powerful states

e)

Experiencing centrifugal forces due to multiple ethnicities

18.

Which type of boundary is most clearly shown in the image above?

a)

Defined

b)

Delimited

c)

Natural

d)

Open

e)

Demarcated

19.

When Germany invaded Poland in 1939, it said it wanted to reunited the German minority living in Poland with Germany. This is an example of

a)

nationalism

b)

irredentism

c)

supranationalism

d)

an allocational dispute

e)

an operational dispute

20.

The 49th parallel between the United States and Canada is

a)

a relic boundary

b)

a superimposed boundary

c)

an antecedent boundary

d)

a subsequent and ethnographic boundary

e)

an open boundary

21.

Which gerrymandering strategies do Districts 1 and 2 best show?

a)

Stacking

b)

Packing

c)

Hijacking

d)

Kidnapping

e)

Scaling

22.

Uruguay's national government sets policies that are administered by local governments. This system of government is best described as

a)

federal

b)

unitary

c)

reapportioned

d)

communist

e)

compact

23.

The formation of India and Pakistan in 1947 led to a new boundary between the two states. This boundary is best described as

a)

an antecedent boundary because the two countries fought over scarce water resources

b)

a controlled boundary because the border was placed by a foreign power without negotiation

c)

an open boundary because it was unguarded and could easily be traversed

d)

a consequent boundary because the border was made along already-existing cultural division

e)

a relic boundary because it no longer exists but was still visible on the landscape

24.

The Syrian Civil War erupted in 2011 and forced millions of refugees to flee into Turkey. The Turkish government was sympathetic to the refugees but became concerned about how many Syrians were crossing Turkey's border. Which type of border dispute describes this scenario?

a)

Definitional

b)

Locational

c)

Allocational

d)

Operational

e)

Territorial

25.

Notice how the crosses in the flags of Scotland, England, and Ireland are combined in the flage of the United Kingdom. Which process does this represent?

a)

The balkanization of the United Kingdom

b)

The formation of autonomous regions within a state

c)

The process of irredentism in uniting people with the same culture

d)

The creation of a single state out of separate nations

e)

The centrifugal forces pulling a country apart

26.

The presence of centrifugal forces within a country has led many central governments to transfer power to regional or local governments. This process is called

a)

Devolution

b)

Acculturation

c)

Autocratic rule

d)

Imperialism

e)

Capitalism

27.

Which of the following terms best applies to what a country experiences when its unity is threatened by inequality or economic problems?

a)

Centrifugal forces

b)

Centripetal forces

c)

Colonialism

d)

Federalism

e)

Supranationalism

28.

Which provides the strongest support for the conclusion that Japan has few cetrifugal forces?

a)

Japan is an island located off the east coast of China

b)

Japan is part of the United Nations

c)

Japan has never colonized another country

d)

Japan has a high degree of ethnic and linguistic homogeneity

e)

Japan has one of the largest economies in the world.

29.

Which is NOT an example of a centripetal force?

a)

About nine-tenths fo Swedes speak Swedish as their first language

b)

About 95 percent fo Iranians belong to the Shia Muslim faith

c)

The Mindanao region of the Philippines has poor infrastructure and inadequate basic services

d)

Since the end of World War II. Europe has worked to remove trade and political barriers between countries

e)

About 96 out of every 100 people in Thailand identify as part of the Thai ethnic group

30.

Which groups have been gaining more local power around the world as a result of devolution?

a)

Indigenous people

b)

French-speaking people

c)

Spanish-speaking people

d)

Recent immigrants from East Asia

e)

Recent immigrants from Syria

31.

Which of the following best describes the effect of globalization related to state sovereignty?

a)

States' sovereignty has clearly increased as a result of globalization

b)

State sovereignty has increased because of the need to defend borders from imperialistic states

c)

Globalization has not had an effect on state sovereignty

d)

States have given up some sovereignty in order to join supranationistc organizations

e)

The number of sovereign states in the world has declined during the era of globalization

32.

Based on the data in the chart, Greece is best described as

a)

a nation but not a state

b)

a member state of the European Union

c)

a nation-state

d)

a multinational state

e)

a federal democratic state

33.

In the 1990s, the southeast European country of Yugoslavia became

a)

a united country through the centripetal force of opposition to Soviet control

b)

an independent country and member of NATO

c)

two independent countries through the Velvet Divorce

d)

several autonomous, self-governing regions within one region

e)

shattered into several independent countries as a result of centrifugal forces

34.

Farming based on principles of ecology that integrate plant and animal production practices is called

a)

subsistence agriculture

b)

sustainable agriculture

c)

commercial agricaulture

d)

folk agriculture

35.

Railroads and highways have increased the ________ and the _______ levels of commercial farming in MDCs. CHOOSE TWO ANSWERS!

a)

diffusion

b)

production

c)

localization

d)

physiologic density

e)

costs

36.

Which of these outcomes is NOT a result of the Green Revolution?

a)

Research into GMOs

b)

Increased crop yields

c)

reduced costs for many foods

d)

less dependence on fertilizers and pesticides

37.
Despite its location far from world markets, New Zealand is a major _____producer.
a)
dairy
b)
cattle
c)
wheat
d)
rice
38.

According to von Thunen's model of land use, farmers must balance _____ costs.

a)

land and transportation

b)

seed and land costs

c)

transportation and fertilizer costs

d)

advertising and land costs

39.
Which type of agriculture is described in this chart?
a)
Shifting Agriculture
b)
Plantation Agriculture
c)
Mediterranean Agriculture
d)
Farm to Market Agriculture
40.

What Words BEST COMPLETE the title of this map?

a)

Agriculture Trends

b)

Food Security

c)

Physiologic Density

d)

Agricultural Density

41.
Scientists believe that fishing, aquaculture, and aquafarming can be used to
a)
expand the world's food supply
b)
increase trade between countries
c)
help people live longer
d)
develop GM seafood species for people to eat
42.
The area of dairy production that surrounds an urban area is called 
a)
a milkshed
b)
a delivery route
c)
milk farming
d)
mooshed
43.
Tomatoes, apples, asparagus, strawberries, and mushrooms are most associated with
a)
plantation farming
b)
truck farming/commercial gardening
c)
mixed use agriculture
d)
wetlands agriculture
44.
GM foods...
a)
Have both positive and negative outcomes
b)
Are eaten in both LDCs and MDCs
c)
All these are true concerning GM foods
d)
Have been an agricultural practice for over a century.
45.
Which pair of words does NOT match?
a)
Ranching... Pastoral Nomadism
b)
Intensive Wet Rice... East Asia
c)
Shifting Agriculture... Tropics
d)
Mixed Crop and Livestock... LDCs
46.

In China, flour is turned into pasta dough, then rolled into wide strips and nicknamed "belt" noodles. This food preference most likely comes from which Asian agricultural region?

a)

Intensive subsistence- not rice dominant

b)

Intensive subsistence- wet rice

c)

Subsistence farming

d)

shifting agriculture

47.

High production of corn, soybeans, and a mixture of spring and winter wheat have earned the ______ agricultural region the nickname "World's Breadbasket."

a)

Farming Plains

b)

Great Plains

c)

Grains Plains

d)

Arable Plains

48.
Today, most plantation farming takes place in each of these areas EXCEPT
a)
Region A
b)
Region B
c)
Region C
d)
Region D
49.

Agricultural practices in LDCs include all but

a)

Pastoral Nomads

b)

Shifting Cultivation

c)

Intensive Subsistence/Rice and Dry Crops

d)

Plantation

e)

Mixed Crop and Livestock

50.

Challenges facing pastoral nomads include:

a)

Lack of support from governments

b)

Living in an ever-modernized/globalized world

c)

Being a minority of an overall population

d)

Pastoral nomads face all these challenges

51.

The system of integrating farming with the food-production industry is called

a)

agribusiness

b)

agriculture

c)

commercial agriculture

d)

subsistence agriculture

52.

Commercial farmers often produce more yield than can be sold. What basic economic principle affects prices when crops are overproduced?

a)

supply and demand

b)

von Thunen's location theory

c)

costs and profits

d)

buy low, sell high

53.

Eating Local is a movement that is relates to what agricultural issues? CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

a)

sustainable agriculture

b)

health and wellness for both people and the planet

c)

food security

d)

globalization

e)

Green Revolution

54.
This graphic describes modern-day 
a)
farmers
b)
hunters and gatherers
c)
Amazon Basin cultures
d)
pop cultures
55.
Subsistence farming is still common in each of these regions EXCEPT
a)
Region A
b)
Region B
c)
Region C
d)
Region D
56.
A hearth is a 
a)
point of origin
b)
result of diffusion
57.
Most historians believe that _____ factors were primarily responsible for the 1st Agricultural Revolution. 
a)
Cultural
b)
Environmental
c)
both these factors were important to the development of agriculture
d)
neither of these factors led to the development of agriculture.
58.
Which of the following "Dietary Energy By Source" and "Protein by Source" pairs is NOT a correct match? HINT! Read your textbook!
a)
Much of Western Europe... cereal grains
b)
Russia... wheat
c)
Mexico... maize/corn
d)
Central Asia... Rice
59.
For thousands of years, farmers have produced different crops in different regions. Which is NOT a factor for agricultural diversity?
a)
indigenous plants already in the region
b)
climate and environmental conditions
c)
political leadership
d)
cultural preferences
60.
Which of the following does NOT describe 21st Century farms/farming practices in the USA?
a)
high use of machinery and technology
b)
part of the agribusiness supply chain
c)
produce 3/4 of all food
d)
there is more land available for them to purchase
61.
MDCs typically have a lower ______ than LDCs because of access to technology and the use of commercial farming methods.
a)
agricultural density
b)
physiological density
c)
arithmetic density
62.
The "most typical" human on earth is a ________ living in ______.
a)
subsistence farmer... Asia
b)
subsistence farmer... Africa
c)
commercial farmer... Northe America
d)
Commercial Farmer... Latin America
63.
People in _____ consume more total calories and a higher percentage of those calories come from animal products.
a)
MDCs
b)
LDCs
64.
There is consensus among historians that the ______  and the Neolithic Revolution were linked.
a)
domestication of animals
b)
Industrial Revolution
c)
 use of written language
d)
development of stone hunting tools
65.
Which of the 5 Themes of Geography do geographers MOST closely study when looking at farming practices around the world?
a)
Location and Region
b)
Region and Place
c)
Movement and Location
d)
Human-Environment Interaction and Place
66.
After analyzing the "Crop Hearths" graphic, a geographer could infer that 
a)
all domesticated crops developed at about the same time in history.
b)
domesticated crops developed at different times in different parts of the world.
67.
What region domesticated the most agriculturally important/useful farm animals?
a)
Southwest Asia
b)
Canada and the USA
c)
Latin America
d)
East Asia
68.
What is the BEST title for this chart?
a)
Commercial Agriculture/Subsistence Agriculture
b)
Modern Agriculture/Traditional Agriculture
c)
Subsistence Agriculture/Commercial Agriculture
d)
Life in LDCs/Life in MDCs
69.
Economic and social inequities that can result in food insecurity issues affect
a)
LDCs only
b)
MDCs only
c)
Both LDCs and MDCs
d)
No region- farmers grow enough food to feed 9 billion people.
70.
Physiological density is calculated using what data?
a)
agricultural density and arithmetic density
b)
numbers of farmers and available arable land
c)
arable land and arithmetic density
d)
arithmetic density and number of farmers
71.
Agriculturists have determined that global population patterns affect farming practices. These specialized geographers specifically identify _____ as important.
a)
push and pull migration factors
b)
CBRs and CDRs statistics
c)
demographic momentum and dependency rates
d)
The Demographic Transition Model and the J Curve
72.
The number one crop grown in the world is
a)
maize/corn
b)
wheat
c)
oats
d)
potatoes
73.
By doing a great job on the Agricultural Scavenger Hunt you will:
a)
become more aware of your food and nutritional choices
b)
earn up to a 110 as a test grade
c)
have fun with classmates
d)
ALL OF THESE!
74.

The Industrial Revolution began with economics- but impacted ______ factors as well. CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY.

a)

social

b)

political

c)

environmental

d)

none of these were impacted by the Industrial Revolution

75.

CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY!

Industrial areas in North America were originally located in

a)

northeastern USA

b)

southeastern Canada

c)

northeaster Canada

d)

southwestern USA

76.

____ produces using industrialization and low-cost labor AND is the world's largest consumer market.

a)

China

b)

Japan

c)

USA

d)

Russia

77.

Improvements in ______ meant factories could attract workers from greater distances, import bulk raw materials more easily, and ship finished goods to a larger number of consumers.

a)

transportation systems

b)

government systems

c)

education of workers

d)

environmental safeguards

78.

Which of the following regions is NOT an established industrial global region?

a)

South Asia

b)

East Asia

c)

North America

d)

Europe

79.
Which natural resource was most important to the Industrial Revolution?
a)
Coal
b)
Natural Gas
c)
Water
d)
Arable Soil
80.
What is the BEST title for this image?
a)
Site Factors
b)
Situation Factors
81.
All of the following are considered site factors EXCEPT
a)
land costs
b)
labor costs
c)
capital/start-up costs
d)
transportation costs
82.

According to Least Cost Theory, the location of bulk-gaining soda bottling plant should be located closer to _____ to maximize profits.

a)

The consumers in Thirsty Town

b)

The farmers who grow sugar and corn.

83.
What is the best title for this chart?
a)
Integrated Mills vs Minimills
b)
Minimills vs Integrated Mills
c)
Global Steel Mills vs US Steel Mills
d)
US Steel Mills vs Global Steel Mills
84.

The production of potato chips is a ________ industry, since potatoes and salt are heavier in their raw state than the finished bag of potato chips.

a)

bulk-reducing

b)

bulk-gaining

85.

Companies that operate in countries other than the one in which they are headquartered are called ___

a)

transnational companies

b)

global companies

c)

trading bloc companies

d)

EU companies

86.

The shipment of parts and materials to the factory exactly when they are needed... reduces waste and increases manufacturing profits.

a)

just-in-time manufacturing/delivery

b)

right now manufacturing/delivery

c)

on-demand manufacturing/delivery

d)

gotta have it NOW manufacturing/delivery

87.
Many companies use multiple types of transportation to ship products to consumer markets. The location of the transfer area is called a
a)
break-of-bulk point
b)
a port to RR point
c)
a warehouse point
d)
input point
88.

The history of ______ is a development that can be pinpointed to the mid-20th century. This idea was pioneered by an US businessman Malcolm Mclean, in order to simplify the processes involved in shipping cargo through sea routes.

a)

containerization

b)

globalization

c)

transportation

d)

railroadization

89.
Toyota Tundras are manufactured right here in San Antonio- part of auto alley. What is NOT a description of this manufacturing region?
a)
located in the interior of the USA
b)
It's location is chosen to be close to the customers
c)
Extends into Ontario, Canada
d)
Only domestic companies operate in auto ally
90.

Use the graphic to answer the following statement:

By educating citizens, San Antonio is working to reduce ____ and increase environmental awareness.

a)

water pollution

b)

air pollution

c)

landfill waste

d)

groundwater waste

91.
Area "A" of this image depicts ___ pollution.
a)
point
b)
non-point
92.

The new international division of labor encourages the development of high-tech jobs in ______.

a)

LDCs

b)

MDCs

93.

As a result of USMCA, hundreds of thousands of Mexicans work in the ____ just south of the U.S. border, transforming raw materials into finished goods.

a)

maquiladora district

b)

trade district

c)

colonia district

d)

industrialized district

94.

According to central place theory, the threshold is defined as the:

a)

economic base of a central place

b)

 distance away from a central place

c)

gross value of the product minus the costs of production

d)

minimum number of people needed to support a service

e)

point at which consumer movement is at a minimum

95.

Which of the following best explains why New York City has more specialized stores than do smaller urban places in the United States?

a)

Its status as a primate city

b)

The rank-size rule

c)

Central place theory

d)

The gravity model

e)

The Burgess concentric zone model

96.

Which of the following defines Chicago’s position in relation to the infrastructure of the United States?

a)

Situation

b)

Absolute location

c)

Site

d)

Vernacular region

e)

Transition zone

97.

Compare the largest urbanized-area populations for each country, and then select the following statement that correctly draws a conclusion regarding the pattern in the data.

a)

China has a primate city, and the United States follows the rank-size rule.

b)

The United States is closer to following rank-size rule.

c)

Neither country follows the rank-size rule.

d)

Both countries have a primate city.

e)

The United States has a primate city, and China follows the rank-size rule.

98.

As old central business districts and industrial zones in more developed countries lost businesses and employment in the mid- to late twentieth century, suburban development expanded. Which of the following types of cities resulted from rapid suburban growth and the expansion of retail areas, office developments, business centers, and corporate headquarters to provide jobs and services in suburban areas?

a)

Megalopolises

b)

Edge cities

c)

State capitals

d)

Financial districts

e)

Manufacturing zones

99.

Which of the following was a consequence of blockbusting in North American cities?

a)

European immigrants moved into housing vacated by upwardly mobile Americans.

b)

Poor residents were unable to acquire mortgages.

c)

Real estate agents lost sellers.

d)

Neighborhoods were razed for commercial establishments.

e)

The ethnic composition of neighborhoods changed

100.

Which of the following best explains what the central business district data indicate?

a)

Business owners want to have fast Internet available for their consumers in order to improve online ratings for local services and generate return customers.

b)

Consumers demand that the fastest Internet service available before they will consider visiting a city or selecting a hotel for work or business trips.

c)

Politicians and activists have made Internet connectivity a basic right of urban residents and feel that governments should provide services to increase the connectivity of citizens.

d)

Government policy makers and business partners have focused infrastructure efforts on creating a downtown work environment that is positive for economic development.

e)

Communications companies expect that increasing Internet speeds will lead to increased number of subscribers to their networks.

101.

As migrants from rural areas continue to move to cities for jobs, cities face a variety of economic and social challenges. Which of the following economic or social challenges is best illustrated by the photograph shown of Mumbai, India?

a)

The city's infrastructure cannot support the high population density in the central business district.

b)

A large number of unemployed people live in the city.

c)

There is a significant income gap between residents on the periphery of the city and residents in the city center.

d)

The city's economic status in the global market is declining.

e)

There is a high level of homelessness in the city's central business district.

102.

According to the sector model of North American city structure, members of low-income groups tend to live in which of the following places?

a)

The inner city only

b)

Peripheral temporary settlements

c)

Linear residential areas radiating from the center city outward

d)

Evenly dispersed throughout the urban area

e)

The suburbs and rural areas only

103.

Which of the following statements explains the cost and distance relationship illustrated in the model in relation to the urban area’s residential patterns?

a)

The lower cost of land farther from the CBD makes it affordable to build single-family homes in zones 4 and 5 for middle-income and high-income residents who desire to move into less crowded areas.

b)

Since land is more expensive in the suburbs, wealthier families build larger single-family homes in zone 5 in areas that provide amenities such as private schools for their children.

c)

Land is cheaper near the central business district (CBD), resulting in the construction of low-income apartments and giving low-income residents access to the amenities of the CBD.

d)

People do not live in the CBD because of the traffic congestion, high cost of land, and lack of amenities such as museums and restaurants.

e)

Population density increases with the distance from the CBD as land prices decrease, allowing residents of all income levels to move farther away from zone 2.

104.
Human geographers use ____  as a more precise term for "downtown."
a)
Central Business District (CBD)
b)
Urban Business District
c)
Service Business District
d)
City Business District
105.
Which is NOT a characteristic of retail services that are located in CBDs?
a)
They are consumer businesses with a high threshold
b)
They are consumer businesses with a high range
c)
They are consumer businesses who serve CBD workers
d)
They are consumer businesses that sell only expensive merchandise
106.

At what scale of analysis is this census tract map?

a)

national

b)

regional

c)

state

d)

local

107.
Outside of North America, _____ people live in CBDs, resulting in a wider array of consumer services for the residents.
a)
more
b)
less
108.
Between 175 million and 1 billion people live in ________, areas that have few consumer services, because neither the city nor the residents can afford them.
a)
squatter settlements
b)
urban zones
c)
public housing
d)
disamenity zones
109.

A legally incorporated, autonomous, and self-governing urban settlement is called a ______.

a)

census tract

b)

city

c)

CBD

d)

suburb

110.

It is s often difficult to solve regional problems/issues because _______.

a)

local government entities are often fragmented

b)

lack of voter turn-out

c)

mayors are not knowledgeable about the issues

d)

city and county services may be consolidated

111.
This image best illustrates the _____ concept.
a)
density gradient
b)
urbanization
c)
public housing
d)
blockbusting
112.
What ONE vocab term does this RLE describe?
a)
annexation
b)
blockbusting
c)
urban sprawl
d)
counterurbanization
113.
This map shows the amount of land that has been converted from farmland to residential use. This unchecked spread of residential areas beyond city limits is called
a)
urban sprawl
b)
urban growth
c)
urban expansion
d)
urban footprint
114.
Consequences of suburbanization include... 
a)
segregation of social classes
b)
segregation of ethnic groups
c)
segregation of land uses
d)
all of these are results of suburbanization
115.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning automobiles in the USA?

a)

Car ownership increased the rate of suburbanization.

b)

Cars are the most common form of transportation in America.

c)

Automobiles affect both land use and the cultural landsape of the USA.

d)

The availability of cars has decreased the amount of consumer goods in suburbs.

116.
This RLE from 2015, shows one negative effect of what geographic term?
a)
gentrification
b)
urbanization
c)
unequal GDP
d)
zoning
117.

The (now illegal) practice called "redlining" most often affected

a)

inner-city neighborhoods

b)

suburban neighborhoods

118.

All cities must balance ___ and ___ in order to prioritize infrastructure spending and meet for the needs of all residents.

a)

services and tax revenues

b)

filtering and redlining

c)

rich and poor neihborhoods

d)

urbanization and suburbanization

119.
The growth of cities is called _____. 
a)
distribution
b)
urbanization
c)
intraregional migration
d)
gentrification 
120.
Central Place Theory uses this shape to designate market areas...
a)
circles
b)
lines
c)
hexagons
d)
squares
121.

From largest to smallest the urban hierarchy of the following would go...

a)

Hamlet, Village, Town, City

b)

Mega-City, City, Suburb, Neighborhood

c)

City, Town, Village, Hamlet

d)

Town, City, Hamlet, Village

122.

Central Place Theory states that the size of the market is based on both _______ and the ___________

a)

hinterland/hexagonal position

b)

range/threshold

c)

hexagonal position/range

d)

threshold/transportation costs

123.
When establishing the relationship of larger cities to smaller ones, the pull of available services from the larger city is an example of the _____.
a)
Gravity Model
b)
Concentric Zone Model
c)
Central Place Theory
d)
Losch Model of Profitibility
124.

USA follows this pattern!

If the 2nd largest city in a nation is approximately 1/2 the size of the largest city, the distribution of settlements is following the

a)

Primate City Rule

b)

Rank Size Rule

c)

World City Rule

d)

Gravity Rule

125.

Paris and London are RLEs!

A large city that is several times larger than the 2nd largest city, and serves as the economic, political, and cultural center of a country is known as a

a)

primate city

b)

megacity

c)

cultural nodal point

d)

central place

126.

What year did the world's population become more urban than rural?

a)

1988(ish)

b)

1998(ish)

c)

2008(ish)

d)

has not happened yet!

127.

Tokyo, London and New York are _____; each has a combination of economic, informational, and social/cultural factors that result in world-wide impacts.

a)

Alpha ++ global (world) cities

b)

Alpha + cities

c)

Beta cities

d)

Gamma cities

128.

Inner-city residents who face an unending cycle of social and economic issues are called a permanent

a)

poor class.

b)

underclass.

c)

poverty class.

d)

homeless class.

129.

Offshore financial center provide what two important functions in the global circulation of capital?

a)

taxes and privacy

b)

privacy and low wage workers

c)

English speaking workers and inexpensive land

d)

collection of tax revenues and public record-keeping

130.

What is NOT true about business-process outsourcing?

a)

It is also called back office functions

b)

Often located in countries with a high number of English-speaking workers

c)

Wages are higher than average for their country, but lower than in MDCs

d)

It is the same thing as offshoring and outsourcing.

131.

San Antonio and New Braunfels with a population of over 2.5 million is classified as a ______________ , while Fredericksburg is classified as a ______________ with a population of 30,000.

a)

metropolitan/micropolitan

b)

micropolitan/metropolitan

132.

This press release from (then) President-elect Biden is all about

a)

Urban sustainability

b)

Pushing people to move to the suburbs

c)

creating jobs

d)

fixing America's bridges

133.

Which of the following is an example of a smart growth policy for urban development?

a)

Increasing the capacity of roads/highways

b)

Decreasing the number or size of parks/greenspace

c)

Increasing mixed-use land policies to combat sprawl

d)

No longer permitting industrial zoning within city limits

134.

Which sector is characterized by activities involving the extraction of natural resources?

a)

Primary sector

b)

Secondary sector

c)

Tertiary sector

d)

Quaternary sector

135.

What term is used to describe the shift from manual labor and cottage industries to a more mechanized form of manufacturing?

a)

Deindustrialize

b)

Industrial Revolution

c)

Rust belt

d)

Industrial belt

136.

Which index is used to measure the extent of each country's gender inequality?

a)

Gini coefficient

b)

Gender gap

c)

Gender Inequality Index (GII)

d)

Human Development Index (HDI)

137.

What is the term for industries that are not tied to any specific location or resource and can relocate anywhere?

a)

Labor-oriented industry

b)

Footloose

c)

Bulk-gaining industry

d)

Bulk-reducing industry

138.

Which of the following is a measure of the total economic output of a country?

a)

Gross national product (GNP)

b)

Gross national income (GNI)

c)

Gross domestic product (GDP)

d)

Purchasing power parity (PPP)

139.

What term is used to describe the model that divides the world into core, semi-periphery, and periphery countries?

a)

Dependency model

b)

World Systems Theory

c)

Stages of Economic Growth model

d)

Comparative advantage

140.

Which of the following is a term for areas where goods are manufactured without the involvement of customs authorities?

a)

Export processing zones (EPZs)

b)

Free-trade zones (FTZs)

c)

Special economic zones (SEZs)

d)

Multinational corporations (MNCs)

141.

What is the term for the economic principle that suggests countries should produce and export goods they can produce efficiently and import goods that they cannot produce efficiently?

a)

Barter

b)

Free trade

c)

Comparative advantage

d)

Complementarity

142.

Which organization is known for its role in overseeing international trade agreements and resolving disputes between its member countries?

a)

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

b)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

c)

Mercosur

d)

Neoliberalism

143.

What term refers to the transfer of some types of jobs, especially those requiring low-paid, less skilled workers, from more developed to less developed countries?

a)

Outsourcing

b)

Offshoring

c)

Reshoring

d)

Fordism

144.

What term is used to describe the impact of human activities measured in terms of the area of biologically productive land and water required to produce the goods consumed and to assimilate the wastes generated?

a)

Sustainable development

b)

Ecotourism

c)

Ecological footprint

d)

Corporate parks

145.

Which of the following refers to a form of tourism involving visiting fragile, pristine, and relatively undisturbed natural areas, intended as a low-impact and often small scale alternative to standard commercial tourism?

a)

Sustainable Development Goals

b)

Ecological footprint

c)

Corporate parks

d)

Ecotourism

146.

What are the international objectives that were set to address the global challenges related to poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice?

a)

Sustainable development

b)

Ecological footprint

c)

Corporate parks

d)

Sustainable Development Goals

147.
The total value of goods and services that a country produces in a year is called
a)
A. consumption.
b)
B. development.
c)
 C. gross domestic product.
d)
 D. per capita GDP.
148.
A country that is mostly rural and engages in mainly primary level of economic activity is probably a
a)
developed nation
b)
developing nation
c)
industrialized nation
d)
primary nation 
149.

Trade Deficit

a)

policy that promotes elimination of trade barriers, such as tariffs and quotas

b)

when imports exceed exports

c)

non-economic negative effects from trade

d)

when exports exceed imports

150.

Which of the following best describes the economic policy of protecting domestic industries by imposing tariffs on imported goods?

a)

Free trade

b)

Protectionism

c)

Globalization

d)

Liberalization

151.

What term is used to describe the process by which companies move industrial jobs to other regions with cheaper labor, leaving the newly deindustrialized region to switch to a service economy and to work through a period of high unemployment?

a)

Global shift

b)

Offshoring

c)

Deindustrialization

d)

Reshoring

152.

Which of the following is a key indicator of a country's economic health by measuring the average income earned per person in a given area in a specific year?

a)

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

b)

Gross National Product (GNP)

c)

Human Development Index (HDI)

d)

Per Capita Income

153.

Maquiladoras

a)

People who travel from place to place to do seasonal work

b)

factories that assemble products almost exclusively for consumers in the United States

c)

ancient Mexican Civilization

154.
The industrial revolution began in 
a)
England
b)
China
c)
Singapore
d)
The USA
155.

Which industry was the first to be impacted by the industrial revolution?

a)

soap

b)

weapons

c)

steel

d)

textiles