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7th grade final exam review 🗣🔥

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Research question: does the distance a person kicks a soccer ball effect how well they will do on their math test.  What is the dependent variable?
a)
How far they kick the soccer ball
b)
who the person is
c)
how well they do on the math test
d)
Type of soccer ball.
2.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Compound
3.
Which variable depends on what is done at the beginning of an experiment?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Following
4.
What would the INDEPENDENT variable be in an experiment testing which types of paper airplane goes furthest?
a)
the paper used
b)
the type of paper airplane
c)
the distance of each plane's flight
d)
how hard the plane is thrown
5.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
6.
An experiment is being done to determine how light affects the growth of small zinnia plants. One plant is placed in full sunlight, the second in a shaded area, the third in an unlit closet. What is the independent variable in the experiment?
a)
the amount of light
b)
the type of plants
c)
the type of soil
d)
the length of the experiment
7.
An experiment is being done to determine how light affects the growth of small zinnia plants. One plant is placed in full sunlight, the second in a shaded area, the third in an unlit closet. The hypothesis of this experiment could be:
a)
Plants grow differently under different conditions.
b)
Zinnia plants in direct sunlight grow taller than zinnia plants in little or no sunlight.
c)
Many things, including sunlight, affect the growth of a plant.
8.
True or False - Experiments should have many independent variables.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
9.
An experiment is being done to determine how light affects the growth of small zinnia plants. One plant is placed in full sunlight, the second in a shaded area, the third in an unlit closet. What is the independent variable in the zinnia experiment?
a)
The plant growth
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The length of time needed to conduct the experiment
d)
The amount of water given daily
10.
What is it called when a scientist repeats an experiment several times in the exact same way?
a)
Hypothesis testing
b)
Repeated trials
c)
Sloppy work
11.

An environmental group contacts Nancy to get her experimental procedures so that they can check her results.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

12.

Dr. Allen has been reading about another scientist’s research in a physics journal. She plans to do these experiments herself and see if she gets the same result.

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

13.

A scientist does THEIR OWN experiment over 3 times to check their results.

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

14.

Joshua goes to Silver River each week for 4 weeks and collects 5 samples of water to test the pH.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

15.

Alyssa has taught her pet rat to run a maze. She thinks that the rat will go faster if she puts its favorite treat at the end. She has the rat run the maze ten times with the favorite treat and ten times with a regular food pellet. She uses a stopwatch to measure how long it takes for the rat to get to the reward.

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

16.

Keanna was mixing a batch of glue and borax solution to make silly putty and discovered a new substance that glows in the dark. She gave Ryan her specific amounts of ingredients and the steps of her procedure. She asked Ryan to try the experiment to see if he gets the same results.

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

17.

Keanna was mixing a batch of glue and borax solution to make silly putty and discovered a new substance that glows in the dark. She gave Ryan her specific amounts of ingredients and the steps of her procedure. She asked Ryan to try the experiment to see if he gets the same results.

a)

Repetition

b)

Replication

18.

Jermaine was given a set of 5 metal cubes. He calculated the densities of each to determine the type of metal in each. The densities were really close to each other, so he asked his friend Dustin to do the same experiment and see if he gets the same results.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

19.

Walter is testing golf balls. He drops three different brands of balls from 40 cm and measures how high they bounce. He drops each ball 10 times.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

20.

Jerry baked chocolate chip cookies that wound up looking like muffins. He asked DeeDee to use the same directions and see if her cookies also look like muffins.

a)

Replication

b)

Repetition

21.

Which of these can change when new evidence is presented?

a)

theory

b)

law

22.

Which of these explain how a natural phenomenon works or happens?

a)

theory

b)

law

23.

Which of these describes a natural phenomenon or relationship that always occurs under specific conditions

a)

theory

b)

law

24.

Which of these can be represented mathematically and provide no explanation why a phenomenon occurs?

a)

theory

b)

law

25.
Scientific theories can be tested.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
What is a theory?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
27.
What is a law?
a)
Describes what happens
b)
Explains a process
28.
Scientific theories are based on
a)
general assumptions of how systems work.
b)
mathematical principles that can be proven true.
c)
large amounts of data collected over time.
d)
observations from within only one scientific discipline.
29.
Scientific theories do not change once they have been written down.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
A scientific ____________ is a statement that describes what always happens under certain conditions in nature.
a)
law
b)
theory
c)
method
d)
variable
31.
Heat is a form of _______________.  
a)
movement
b)
energy
c)
melting
32.
The Gulf Stream is a current that brings warm ocean water from the south to the north.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
33.
Walking on the warm sand sand with your bare feet.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
34.
The man goes to take the hot pot off the stove with his bare hands.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
35.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
36.
The baby chickens are kept warm from the heat lamps.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
37.
In some cultures, walking on fire is the ultimate sign of strength.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
38.
In some cultures, walking on fire is the ultimate sign of strength.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
39.
In this experiment, the WARM red dye and the COLD blue dye was placed in the water at the same time. The warm red dye rose to the top while the cold blue dye sank to the bottom.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
40.
The candle will slowly heat the metal and transfer the heat directly to the mans hand.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
41.

See the picture. There is electrical energy coming from the outlet in the wall. When the energy goes into the lamp what energy does it transform into?

a)

Mechanical Energy

b)

Thermal Energy

c)

Sound Energy

d)

Light Energy

42.

When wood burn it changes from chemical energy to what 2 other forms of energy? Click the 2 other forms.

a)

Radiant (Light)

b)

Nuclear

c)

Heat

d)

Mechanical

43.

A gasoline-powered generator is used to provide lighting for a house.

Choose the best 3 energy forms found in this transformation example?

a)

Chemical

b)

Mechanical

c)

Light

d)

Nuclear

44.

Skateboarder #1 is showing potential energy as he waits at the top of the half pipe.


Skateboarder #2 has dropped into the half pipe, to what type of energy has he converted his potential energy?

a)

Potential

b)

Thermal

c)

Kinetic

d)

Chemical

45.

What are the energy conversion for a hair dryer?

4 lines
46.

What are the energy conversions for a radio?

4 lines
47.

When a car burns gasoline it creates hot air to move the pistons in the engine, which causes the car to move. What energy transformation occur from the fuel to the movement of a car?

a)

thermal energy to mechanical energy

b)

thermal energy to chemical energy to mechanical energy

c)

chemical energy to thermal energy to mechanical energy

d)

chemical energy to electrical energy

48.

Which object shows an energy transformation from electrical to mechanical?

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.
Which of the following energy transformations occur when a lamp that is plugged into a wall socket is functioning correctly?
a)
Chemical to light
b)
Electrical to chemical
c)
Electrical to light
d)
Chemical to electrical
50.

The roller coaster cart has the most kinetic energy at position-

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

51.

Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from low to high energy

a)

Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

b)

Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio

c)

Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio

d)

Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

52.

Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the LOWEST frequency/energy

a)

Gamma Rays

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Visible Light

d)

Infrared rays

53.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest frequency?

a)

gamma ray

b)

infrared wave

c)

visible light wave

d)

microwave

54.
Which wave has the largest wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same wavelength)
55.

Which letter indicates X-rays?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

56.

Which letter indicates infrared rays?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

57.

Which list places the electromagnetic energies in order from most energy to least energy?

a)

X-ray, Radio, Visible

b)

Ultraviolet, Inferred, Radio

c)

Radio, Visible, Gamma

d)

Visible, Ultraviolet, X-Ray

58.

Which of the following statements can be concluded from the table?

a)

X-Ray waves have a lower frequency than infrared waves.

b)

Microwaves have a smaller wavelength than visible light.

c)

The speed of all electromagnetic waves are equal.

d)

The frequency and wavelengths are equal for each type of radiation.

59.

A gamma ray photon and a microwave photon are traveling in a vacuum. Compared to the wavelength and energy of the gamma ray photon, the microwave photon has a -----?

a)

shorter wavelength and less energy

b)

shorter wavelength and more energy

c)

longer wavelength and less energy

d)

longer wavelength and more energy

60.

Earth’s atmosphere blocks short wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum. Which telescopes must be placed in orbit around Earth in order to observe short-wavelength radiation?

a)

Gamma-ray telescopes

b)

Visible-light telescopes

c)

Infrared telescopes

d)

Radio telescopes

61.
Hearing your brother's music playing from down the hall is an example of what type of wave interaction?
a)
reflection
b)
interference
c)
refraction
d)
diffraction
62.
You and your father inspect an empty house with the hopes of buying it. You walk through the rooms talking to one another, and you notice that your voices and footsteps are echoing in the big, empty house. What causes the echo?
a)
sound waves reflecting off smooth, flat surfaces throughout the house
b)
sound waves moving around the large rooms
c)
sound waves moving slowly through air
d)
sound waves refracting around corners in the empty rooms
63.
If the distance represented by the letter A were increased, how would it change the way the sound was heard?
a)
The sound would be higher. 
b)
The sound would be lower. 
c)
The sound would be softer. 
d)
The sound would be louder. 
64.
______ is how high or low a sound is; depends on the frequency.
a)
pitch
b)
frequency
c)
sound
d)
medium
65.
A wave in which the particles vibrate in the same direction as that in which the wave is traveling; sound waves
a)
longitudinal wave
b)
ocean wave
c)
transverse wave
d)
mechanical wave
66.
A soft, low pitch sound would have which of the following....
a)
low frequency 
high amplitude 
b)
high frequency 
high amplitude 
c)
low frequency 
low wavelength  
d)
low frequency
low amplitude 
67.
When comparing the two waves that are shown, how would Wave A (green wave) differ than Wave B (black wave)?
a)
Wave A and B have the same amplitude, but wave B (black) has a lower pitch.
b)
Wave A and B have the same amplitude, but Wave A has a lower pitch. 
c)
Wave A and B have the same pitch, but Wave A is a softer sound. 
d)
Wave A and B have the same pitch, but Wave B is a softer sound. 
68.
A reflected sound wave is know as a/an ___________.
a)
frequency
b)
pitch
c)
echo
d)
rarefaction
69.
After the train passed, the pitch of the train whistle became lower. This change in sound would be represented by what change in the diagram above? 
a)
The distance represented by C would increase. 
b)
The distance represented by C would decrease. 
c)
The distance represented by D would increase. 
d)
The distance represented by D would decrease. 
70.
A wave that requires a medium through which to travel
a)
mechanical wave
b)
chemical wave
c)
electromagnetic wave
d)
pitch
71.

Darwin studied....

Select all that apply

a)

finch beaks

b)

variations in species

c)

fossils on the Galapagos Islands

d)

all of the above

72.

Vocab check:

The theory that organisms have slowly changed over time...

a)

fossil record

b)

relative dating

c)

evolution

d)

adaptation

73.

Vocab Check:

Relative dating means...

a)

dating a relative

b)

comparing two fossils and determining which is older

c)

Using carbon to identify the exact age of a fossil

d)

none of the above

74.

True or False? In Natural selection an animal chooses to adapt in a single generation, and survives.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

The following evidence supports the theory of evolution: Check all that apply.

a)

similar body structures in organisms

b)

Similar DNA in organisms

c)

population trends

d)

ancient fossils revealing adaptations of organisms

e)

natural selection

76.
The term that best describes why the moth population changed color over time
a)
adaptation
b)
natural selection
c)
mutation
d)
predator-prey
77.
Why did the population of moths change
a)
Predators were able to easily see their prey.
b)
People hunted lighter colored moths
c)
White moths were killed by the smoke from the factories
d)
Moths mood changed to sad, causing them to become dark
78.

What caused the soot to cover the trees in Great Britain from 1780 to 1830?

a)

burning coal

b)

setting fires

c)

black wind

d)

dead moths

79.
Why did the population of peppered moths in England change from light to dark after the Industrial Revolution?
a)
Light moths were easy to see against sooty trees and were eaten
b)
Light moths were killed by soot
c)
The birds that ate the dark moths were killed by soot
d)
Dark moths were produced by industrial processes
80.
The term that best describes  "the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring".
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
81.

What is an effect of deforestation?

a)

decrease in biodiversity

b)

decrease in rainwater runoff

c)

decrease in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

d)

decrease in the amount of water on earth

82.

How are surface mining and peat harvesting similar in the way they affect an ecosystem?

a)

both increase air pollution, causing acid rain

b)

both flood the area with water, decreasing soil erosion

c)

both release carbon dioxide, decreasing global temperatures

d)

both remove vegetation in the area, destroying habitats

83.

What is an ecosystem?

a)

All of the living things in area

b)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area and their interactions

c)

All of the non-living things in an area

d)

Only one specific type of organism in an area

84.

Which of the following is not a living thing that can be found in an ecosystem?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Air

d)

People

85.

Which of the following is not an ecosystem?

a)

Savanna

b)

Rain Forest

c)

Land

d)

Polar

86.

Based on the picture in the previous slide, what do you think the definition of population is?

a)

The organisms of the same species that live in the same place

b)

All of the different populations of organisms that live in the same place at the same time together

c)

The organisms of the same species that live in different places

87.

Based on the picture, what do you think the definition of community is?

a)

The organisms of the same species that live in the same place

b)

All of the different populations of organisms that live in the same place at the same time together

c)

The organisms of the same species that live in different places

d)

All of the different populations of organisms that live in the different places

88.

Identify the ecosystem on the previous slide

a)

Desert

b)

Coral reef

c)

Aquatic

d)

Rain Forest

89.

Identify the ecosystem on the previous slide

a)

Desert

b)

Coral reef

c)

Aquatic

d)

Rain Forest

90.

What is a non-living thing that was pictured in the ecosystem on the previous slide?

a)

Giraffe

b)

Water

c)

Zebra

d)

Tree

91.

What does DNA determine?

a)

traits of living things

b)

traits of nonliving things

c)

organization of living things

d)

Did Not Attempt

92.

How many parts make up a nucleotide?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

93.

What are the parts of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar

b)

nucleotide

c)

nitrogenous base

d)

phosphate group

94.

What are the names of the nitrogenous bases?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

thymine

d)

guanine

95.

Adenine always pairs with...

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

adenine

96.

Cytosine always pairs with...

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

adenine

97.

Thymine always pairs with...

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

adenine

98.

Guanine always pairs with...

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

adenine

99.

What is the shape of DNA?

a)

double helix

b)

single helix

c)

squiggle

d)

twisty step looking thing

100.

DNA is the code for (a)   life.

101.

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a)

2̵̡̡̢̘͔̭̻̲̔̆̉͂͋̎̋0̴̛̩̀̀̍̓̍0̶̡̗̪͖͙͇̼̑̆́6̴͚̭̳̣͗̄̿̐̽̔͘N̸̛͔͍͚͎͓̤̥̜͋͐I̸̮͖̹͕̼͓̞͇̣̐̑͒̄́͝S̸͈̟̹̜̹̞̫̆͆̕S̶̯̞͙͂̀A̵̯̗̮͓͕̾̏̽̀́̾͋͘͠Ņ̵͔͕̺̏̅M̶̨̞̫̠̺̭̩͖͕̆̓̊̿͛U̷̻͚̓̎͜R̵̨̻̝͈̳̱̍̄͌̊A̸͓̤̦̎̀̄̉̎͘̕͜Ņ̵̖͚͚̺̈́͑͐̒͒̚͝ͅO̷̫̥̰̪͖̠̎̑̌́̈́͆͐͝ͅ

b)

K̶̡̝͚͉̬̫̰̣̳͑͛̓̐̽́Ř̵̖̜͎̰̲̑U̷͙͔̻̟͗̈͊͂͝N̷͖̭͚͓̩̆͘Ĉ̸̨̘̠̼̬͖H̵̗̲̲̦͇́̆͐̓̈́B̷̡̹̦͚̮̜̖͍͂̆̄Ą̸̨̩͇̺̬͐̏̄̏R̸̨̛̙͍̝̔̓̒͒͆̍͝S̶̻̰̪͉͐͗̃͐̉̈́͆͗͗S̴̯͓̹͙̋͛̋S̶̡͍͖̘̗̱͈̹̟̰̀͝͝S̸̡̠͚̟̰͔̦̪̟̤̈̔̿͗͌̈̽͆̏̕

c)

ɒHiɒʜIAHAʜiHAIHɒiHɒiUAHU'ɒuʜuꞁAUH

H̴̢̲͉͙͈̳̙͂̍̌̚͜ͅŰ̵̙̯̆̆̎̓̓̾͂͘͠A̶̡̡̙͔̟͚̬̝͎͑̌j̷̡͓̮͖̗̯͍̒̀̃̇͑̀̒̐͝ǔ̷̮̋͒̾͑ḫ̷̢̢̤̰̞̲̮̠̙͠ȗ̶̡̨̱͕̜̹͇̹̜̉̋̾a̵̢̯̻̬͙̣̮͑̀̋̋͆'̶̻̇̊͋̄͠U̷͚̻͛̿̓͊͆ͅH̸̝̫̖͚̘̯̓͊̎̄̾̕͝͝ͅȀ̵̙̅̍͋̅͜Ų̸̦͚͂͛̽̊̈́̕i̴̟̰͖͉͓̗̻͐͒͒̂̇̆̆͜͜a̶̢͓̪̩̭͕͙̘̿̾̅͌̕̚H̶̲̼̯̦̲͚̒͂͂î̴̡͙̱̜͖̞̺̔̌̈́̌̋͘̚̕a̸̞̦̳̯͇͑̑͗̈̍͑Ḩ̷̟̘̳̰̺͚͘I̶̡̫̩̳̖̗͈̼̓̉̏̌͛͒̅̈́͠͝À̶̻̞͕̟̜͈̒̓̒̔̂̏́̂H̸̰̬̻̘̟̗̲̹͗͛̉̔͐̇̈́̀͘͜i̸̢̞͖̥͛̀̈̊h̵̡̥͕̺̱̲͙͙̓̀̐͆́̈́̏͆͆Ä̷̢̟͊͘͝ͅH̷̢̛̼͖͚̖͖̣͈͈̠͆́͌͊̃̂́̑̑Ȁ̸̘̻̰̳̞͔̼̻͛͗̓̈́̋̎͗̑͜͝I̶̧̬̘̜͉̪̣̹̦͑͛̌̇̓̆̈́̑̚͝h̸̦̉̈́̈̄͑̀̿̚̚͠ą̶̧̡͍͈͍̣̜̂̏͐̀̐̇͠i̴̢̛̲̳̰̭H̸̝̤̗͉̜́̈́͜͝͝͝͝ͅa̷̖̱̟̗̳̬͖̐

d)

🦐

102.
In the Punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
103.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the Punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
104.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
(Click the picture to see it without the text)
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
105.
What is the dominant trait?
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
106.
What genotype would go in box 3?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
107.
What genotype would go in box 1?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
108.

The blending of two traits is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

109.

A condition in which both alleles for a gene are expressed so that both traits are visible is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

110.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

111.

The end result of mitosis is

a)

4 Identical Cells are produced

b)

4 genetically different cells are produced

c)

2 identical cells are produced

d)

2 genetically different cells are produced

112.

The end result of meiosis is...

a)

4 identical cells

b)

4 genetically different cells

c)

2 identical cells

d)

2 genetically different cells

113.

How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in mitosis?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

2

d)

4

114.

How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in meiosis?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

2

d)

4

115.

If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will most likely be...

a)

genetically identical to the parent

b)

genetically different from each other

c)

produced from specialized cells known as gametes

d)

A mutant

116.

What is the correct order for the phases of mitosis?

a)

Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase

b)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Metaphase

c)

Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase

d)

Prophase,

Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

117.

Timmy fell off his skateboard and scraped his knee. Which cell process is going to be used to heal the wound?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

The wound would not heal

d)

Cell diffusion

118.

Which phase does the cell grow and develop?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Metaphase

119.

How many divisions are in meiosis?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

4

120.

Which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

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