WorksheetsREVIEW- Physics Final
Total questions: 85
Worksheet time: 43mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What causes an object to move in the y-direction when it is in projectile motion?
a)
initial velocity
b)
air resistance
c)
gravity
d)
magnetic force
2.
What is the acceleration in the x-direction for a projectile motion?
a)
0 m/s^2
b)
9.8 m/s^2
c)
constant but not zero
d)
depends on the angle of the projection
3.
What shape does the trajectory of a projectile take?
a)
linear
b)
parabolic
c)
circular
d)
elliptical
4.
At the highest point of its trajectory, what is the vertical velocity of a projectile?
a)
unchanged
b)
zero
c)
minimum
d)
maximum
5.
If a ball is thrown horizontally from a cliff, how does its speed in the x-direction change?
a)
varies randomly
b)
remains constant
c)
decreases over time
d)
increases over time
6.
If two objects are dropped from the same height, one thrown horizontally and the other dropped straight down, which hits the ground first?
a)
the thrown object
b)
the dropped object
c)
both at the same time
d)
cannot be determined
7.
What happens to the velocity in the y-direction if a projectile is thrown upwards?
a)
it remains constant
b)
it decreases until the projectile stops ascending
c)
it increases due to gravity
d)
it is zero throughout
8.
What is the effect of gravity on the acceleration of a projectile in the y-direction?
a)
makes it zero
b)
increases it by 9.8 m/s^2
c)
decreases it by 9.8 m/s^2
d)
no effect
9.
How does the horizontal motion of a projectile affect its vertical motion?
a)
it speeds up the vertical motion
b)
it slows down the vertical motion
c)
it has no effect on the vertical motion
d)
it reverses the vertical motion
10.
In projectile motion, what is true about the time of ascent to the highest point compared to the time of descent back to the same level?
a)
depends on the initial velocity
b)
time of ascent is longer
c)
both times are equal
d)
time of descent is longer
11.
What does an angled launch in projectile motion involve?
a)
a launch with initial velocity only in the Y direction
b)
a launch with no initial velocity
c)
a launch directly upwards
d)
a launch with initial velocity in both X and Y directions
12.
At what point in its trajectory is a projectile going the fastest?
a)
immediately after launch
b)
at the lowest point
c)
just before it lands
d)
at the highest point
13.
If a projectile is launched from a height, how does it affect the speed when it hits the ground compared to if it was launched from ground level?
a)
it does not affect the speed
b)
it hits the ground at a faster speed
c)
it hits the ground at the same speed
d)
it hits the ground at a slower speed
14.
What effect does increasing the launch speed of a projectile, while keeping the angle constant, have on the time of flight?
a)
has no effect on the time of flight
b)
increases the time of flight
c)
initially increases then decreases the time of flight
d)
decreases the time of flight
15.
Which projectile will hit a target first if fired simultaneously: one fired horizontally and one fired at an upward angle?
a)
the one fired at an upward angle
b)
the one fired horizontally
c)
it depends on the target distance
d)
both will hit at the same time
16.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a projectile?
a)
a cannonball thrown straight up
b)
a cannonball rolling off a table
c)
a cannon ball rolling down a hill
d)
a cannonball thrown into the air
17.
A constant acceleration experienced by an object thrown or dropped in the presence of Earth’s gravity is called ________.
a)
aerial acceleration
b)
centripetal acceleration
c)
free fall acceleration
d)
tangential acceleration
18.
The addition of two or more vectors is called a __________.
a)
products
b)
resultants
c)
scalars
d)
tapers
19.
The path of a projectile is a curve called a ___________.
a)
hyperbola
b)
magnitude
c)
parabola
d)
vertex
20.
___________ is free fall with an initial horizontal velocity.
a)
Centripetal acceleration
b)
Projectile motion
c)
Relative motion
d)
Rotational motion
21.
To find the resultant vector of a projectile, you can use the _________.
a)
First Law of Thermodynamics
b)
Hund's Rule
c)
Pauli's Exclusion Principle
d)
Pythagorean Theorem
22.
_________ describes a measurement that has magnitude.
a)
divisor
b)
product
c)
quotient
d)
scalars
23.
Objects that are thrown or launched into the air and are subject to gravity are called__________.
a)
missiles
b)
projectiles
c)
rockets
d)
stingers
24.
Any object that is being acted upon only by the force of gravity is said to be in a state of _________.
a)
chaos
b)
equilibrium
c)
free fall
d)
static friction
25.
_________ refers to the rate velocity changes.
a)
Acceleration
b)
Displacement
c)
Speed
d)
Velocity
26.
A ____________ can be represented by italics, bold print, or an arrow drawn on top of it.
a)
magnitude
b)
quotient
c)
scalar
d)
vector
27.
What does force represent in physics?
a)
The mass of an object
b)
The speed of an object
c)
The potential energy of an object
d)
The interaction of an object with its environement
28.
______ is the measure of the gravitational force on an object.
a)
Equilibrium
b)
Inertia
c)
Terminal speed
d)
Weight
29.
______ represents an interaction of an object with its environment.
a)
Field
b)
Force
c)
Inertia
d)
Weight
30.
_____ do not involve physical contact between objects
a)
Contact forces
b)
Field forces
c)
Mass
d)
Normal forces
31.
The region of influence around an object that can be affected by a force is a ____.
a)
Field
b)
Inertia
c)
Mass
d)
Vector
32.
When objects are at rest or moving with a constant velocity, they are said to be in ____.
a)
Balance
b)
Dynamic force
c)
Equilibrium
d)
Theorem
33.
_______ occurs when 2 objects interact with each other, mutually exerting forces on each other.
a)
Action-reaction pairs
b)
Balancing forces
c)
Thermodynamics
d)
Weighted average
34.
The force that object two exerts on object one is called the _______.
a)
Action force
b)
Gravitational force
c)
Normal force
d)
Reaction force
35.
_______ is the constant maximum speed which an object falls downward.
a)
Average speed
b)
Centripetal speed
c)
Tangential speed
d)
Terminal speed
36.
_____ are diagrams that show force vectors as arrows.
a)
Electron configuration
b)
Force diagrams
c)
Momentum diagrams
d)
Orbital configurations
37.
The vector sum of all forces acting on an object is the ____.
a)
External force
b)
Field force
c)
Net external force
d)
Weighted forces
38.
Forces that result from the physical contact between objects are called _____.
a)
Contact forces
b)
Field forces
c)
Gravitational forces
d)
Weighted forces
39.
_____ is the tendency of an object not to accelerate.
a)
Balancing
b)
Inertia
c)
Measure
d)
Scalar
40.
____ is a single force that acts on an object as the result of the interaction between an object and its environment.
a)
External force
b)
Gravitational force
c)
Magnetic force
d)
Net external force
41.
The force that object one exerts on object two exerts is called the ________.
a)
Action force
b)
External force
c)
Gravitational force
d)
Reaction force
42.
The force exerted by one object on another in a direction perpendicular to the surface of contact is the ______.
a)
Action force
b)
Equilibrium force
c)
Normal force
d)
Reaction force
43.
What effect does a force have on an object at rest?
a)
it causes the object to rotate
b)
it causes the object to move
c)
it has no effect on the object
d)
it causes the object to disintegrate
44.
What can a force cause a moving object to do?
a)
increase in mass
b)
change in shape
c)
stop
d)
emit light
45.
What is the SI unit of force?
a)
Joule
b)
Pascal
c)
Newton
d)
Watt
46.
How is 1 Newton defined?
a)
The amount of force that, when acting on 1 kg mass, produces an acceleration of 10 m/s²
b)
The amount of force that, when acting on 1 kg mass, produces an acceleration of 1 m/s²
c)
The amount of force that, when acting on 10 kg mass, produces an acceleration of 1 m/s²
d)
The amount of force that, when acting on 1 kg mass, produces an acceleration of 0.1 m/s²
47.
What does the weight of an object measure?
a)
The volume of the object
b)
The density of the object
c)
The magnitude of the gravitational force exerted on the object
d)
The height of the object
48.
Does the Earth need to be in immediate physical contact with an object to exert force on it?
a)
Yes, it must be in contact
b)
No, it does not need to be in contact
c)
Yes, but only through a medium
d)
No, it uses magnetic fields
49.
What type of force is demonstrated when a rubbed balloon picks up small pieces of paper?
a)
Gravitational force
b)
Magnetic force
c)
Electrical force
d)
Mechanical force
50.
What does the effect of a force on an object depend on?
a)
Only the type of object
b)
Only the environment
c)
Both magnitude and direction of the force
d)
Only the speed of the object
51.
What does a free-body diagram typically show?
a)
The object and all surroundings objects
b)
Only the object and the forces acting upon it
c)
The object and it's velocity vectors
d)
The object, forces, and the background elements
52.
The tendency of an object not to accelerate is called ________ - this is referred to as Newton's First Law of Motion.
a)
Friction
b)
Inertia
c)
Resistance
d)
Terminal velocity
53.
Newton's _______ Law of Motion can be summarized at Force = mass x acceleration.
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
54.
Newton's ______ Law of Motion is commonly referred to as action-reaction.
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Fourth
55.
The product of an object's mass and its velocity is _____.
a)
energy
b)
force
c)
momentum
d)
power
56.
_______ is a collision in which objects collide and move together as one mass.
a)
Elastic collision
b)
Inelastic collision
c)
Perfectly elastic collision
d)
Perfectly inelastic collision
57.
_____ is a collision in which objects collide and return to their original shapes with no change in total kinetic energy.
a)
Elastic collision
b)
Inelastic collision
c)
Perfectly elastic collision
d)
Perfectly inelastic collision
58.
____ is a collision in which the objects collide, bounce, and move separately but experience some change in their original shape - total kinetic energy decreases.
a)
Elastic collision
b)
Inelastic collision
c)
Perfectly elastic collision
d)
Perfectly inelastic collision
59.
What is the formula for momentum as represented in physics?
a)
p = m + v
b)
p = m/v
c)
p = m * v
d)
p = m - v
60.
Wt is the SI unit of momentum
a)
m/s
b)
kg*m/s
c)
kg/m
d)
m*s/kg
61.
Based on the concept of momentum, which of the following statements is true regarding the force required to stop players in football?
a)
A larger playe4r requires less force to stop than a smaller player
b)
A smaller player requires the same force to stop as a larger player
c)
A smaller player requires less forces to stop than a larger player
d)
The force required does not depend on the size of the player.
62.
Why does catching a faster pitched baseball sting more than a slower one?
a)
Higher momentum of the faster ball
b)
Lower momentum of the faster ball
c)
Higher accdeleration of the slower ball
d)
Lower force of impact with the faster ball
63.
How did Newton originally express his second law of motion?
a)
F = ma
b)
F = Δp/Δt
c)
F = m/a
d)
F = Δt/Δp
64.
What does the equation FΔt = Δp represent in physics?
a)
Conservation of energy theorem
b)
Impulse-momentum theorem
c)
Kinetic energy theorem
d)
Force-time theorem
65.
What theorem do highway safety engineers use to determine stopping distances and safe following distances for vehicles?
a)
Conservation of energy theorem
b)
Impulse momentum theorem
c)
Kinetic energy theorem
d)
Newton's first law of motion
66.
What is one application of momentum in designing safety equipment?
a)
To increase the force exerted on the human body during collisons
b)
To reduce the force exerted on the human bod during collisons
c)
To measure the speed of objects in motion
d)
To calculate the weight of safety equipment
67.
______ is the product of the component of force along the direction of displacement and the amount of displacement.
a)
Acceleration
b)
Distance
c)
Energy
d)
Work
68.
_______ is the rate of energy transferred by any method.
a)
Force
b)
Power
c)
Scalar
d)
Work
69.
Energy associated with an object in motion is _______.
a)
elastic potential energy
b)
gravitational potential energy
c)
kinetic energy
d)
mechanical energy
70.
______ is energy present in an object that has the potential to move because of its position relative to some other location.
a)
Elastic potential energy
b)
Gravitational potential energy
c)
Mechanical energy
d)
Potential energy
71.
___________ is energy stored in a stretched or compressed spring.
a)
Chemical energy
b)
Elastic potential energy
c)
Kinetic energy
d)
Mechanical energy
72.
_____ is energy associated with an object due to the object's position relative to a gravitational source.
a)
Gravitational potential energy
b)
Kinetic energy
c)
Mechanical energy
d)
Solar energy
73.
______ is the length of a spring when no external forces are acting on it.
a)
Acceleration
b)
Displacement
c)
Equilibrium length
d)
Relaxed length
74.
_____ is the sum of kinetic energy and all forms of potential energy.
a)
Accumulative energy
b)
Mechanical energy
c)
Nuclear energy
d)
Total motion energy
75.
What is the formula for kinetic energy (KE)?
a)
KE = mv
b)
KE = 1/2 mv^2
c)
KE = mgh
d)
KE = 2mv^2
76.
What type of energy does a balanced boulder primarily possess?
a)
Kinetic energy
b)
Thermal energy
c)
Potential energy
d)
Electrical energy
77.
What is the formula for calculating gravitational potential energy?
a)
PE = mgh
b)
PE = mg
c)
PE = 1/2 mgh
d)
PE = mgh^2
78.
What condition is necessary for the formula for gravitational potential energy (PE = mgh) to be applicable?
a)
The object must be in motion.
b)
The acceleration due to gravity (g) must be constant.
c)
The height (h) must be increasing.
d)
The mass (m) must be constant.
79.
What type of potential energy is primarily used by the spring on a trampoline?
a)
Elastic potential energy
b)
Gravitational potential energy
c)
Chemical potential energy
d)
Nuclear potential energy
80.
What type of potential energy is described as being stored in a stretched or compressed spring?
a)
Gravitational potential energy
b)
Chemical potential energy
c)
Elastic potential energy
d)
Nuclear potential energy
81.
What is the symbol for the spring constant in physics?
a)
F
b)
m
c)
k
d)
s
82.
What does the principle of conservation of energy state about energy?
a)
Energy can be created and destroyed.
b)
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, and its amount remains constant but can change form.
c)
Energy is not conserved quantity and can vary
d)
Energy can be converted into matter only.
83.
What makes analyzing situations involving kinetic, gravitational potential, and elastic potential energy relatively simple in physics?
a)
They do not involve calcuations.
b)
They are unrelated to real-world applicatons.
c)
They relate to motion.
d)
The only involve theoretical concepts.
84.
Which of the following is considered a non-mechanical form of energy?
a)
kinetic energy
b)
nuclear energy
c)
potential energy
d)
mechanical energy
85.
What does mechanical energy (ME) consist of according to the principle of conservation of energy?
a)
Kinetic energy (KE) only
b)
Potential energy (PE) only
c)
Both kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE)
d)
Neither kinetic nor potential energy
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