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Worksheets

BFM COMPRE 2 FINALS

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Green banking reduces personnel and printing costs for the bank.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Banks are regulated by international, federal, state, and local agencies.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Money center banks are not vulnerable to global market conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Central banks oversee a country’s banking system.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

A consumer may view his or her account balances from an ATM.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Banks can reveal their customers’ personal information to other individuals and

businesses.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

One reason consumers have bank accounts is to keep their money secure.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The FDIC insures securities sold by a bank

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The Federal Reserve Bank is the largest automated clearinghouse in the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Financial transactions are essential for economic growth

a)

True

b)

False

11.

As mandated by law, the Central Bank via the Monetary Board, occupies a very peculiar position of giving advice to government, its political subdivision, and instrumentalities.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

An example of bank capital build-up is the upgrading of interest on deposits.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Monetary Board has the unique right to offer advice, and to press such advice even to the point of nagging; but always of course subject to the supreme authority of the government.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Central Bank is organized or created for the purpose of profit-making or profit-seeking venture.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Monetary Authority was "to ensure a strong monetary foundation and adequate resource inputs to the development process.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Monetary Board is vested with monetary and credit authority.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The abandonment of the Fiat and Commodity Money gave way to a new era of monetary system.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Bank consolidation or merger is being discouraged by the Central Bank.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Monetary Board has the power to authorize such expenditures of the Central Bank in the interest of its effective administration and operations.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The members of the Monetary board are the governor of the Central Bank as the chairman, a cabinet member and 5 members from the public sector.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

A controller is the head of accountant of the company

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A decline function is one that is directly involved in the core operations of the company

a)

True

b)

False

23.

He serves as the protector of a company’s value and finances from financial risk that arises from business activities. He manages the company’s cash flows and ensure that the company meets the financial goals expressed in the budget.

a)

Treasurer

b)

Accountant

c)

Controller

d)

VP for Finance

24.

A treasurer has the following responsibilities except:

a)

Keep the bankers of the company updated to the company’s financial condition and projections as well as its possible needing of borrowed funds

b)

Manage cash flow of the business

c)

Obtain loans and other forms of credit from outside sources

d)

Analyze investment prospects to minimize use of company’s unused cash and assets

25.

Which is a role of a controller?

a)

Improving reporting to add value to the company

b)

Audit the reports done by the accountants

26.

Which is not a role of a controller?

a)

Optimizing business processes

b)

Recruiting & nurturing the finance team

c)

Ensuring accuracy in all basic job functions

d)

Audit the work of the accountant

27.

Financial controllers must ensure their reporting of Non-financial Key Performance Indicators.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Staff function provides support to the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

It is the function of business management that combines accounting, operating controls, auditing, taxes and other related areas. deals with records, systems, and processes to attain the objectives of and good managing

a)

Treasurership/treasurer

b)

Controllership/controller

30.

Knows the source of money and exercises prudence in using the money of an organization. It is commonly responsible for handling financial activities.

a)

Treasurership/treasurer

b)

Controllership/controller

31.

Fluctuation of interest rates is an example of company-specific matters that affect the value of an equity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding bonds?

a)

If the par value is lower than the market price, then the yield-to-maturity must be lower than the coupon rate.

b)

If the market price is lower than the par value, then the coupon rate must be lower than the yield-to-maturity.

c)

Both A and B are false.

d)

None of the above are false.

33.

What is a coupon?

a)

something you use in a supermarket to decrease your cost

b)

an asset bought in the stock market

c)

used in the stock market to lessen the initial cost of stocks

d)

the interest rate on a bond at the time it is issued

34.

A bond which has a yield to maturity greater than its coupon rate will sell for a price

a)

below par

b)

at par

c)

above par

d)

equal to face value of bond plus the interest payments

35.

The rate of interest on a bond is called the ________ .

a)

bond rate

b)

coupon rate

c)

discount rate

d)

interest rate

36.

A bond issued by a corporation is called a ________ .

a)

corporate bond

b)

market share

c)

stock option

d)

share of stock

37.

When the price of bond is calculated below its par value, it is classified as...

a)

classified bond

b)

discount bond

c)

compound bond

d)

consideration earnings

38.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding bonds?

a)

If the par value is lower than the market price, then the yield-to-maturity must be lower than the coupon rate.

b)

If the market price is lower than the par value, then the coupon rate must be lower than the yield-to-maturity.

c)

Both A and B are false.

d)

None of the above are false.

39.

Long-term bonds are ... than short-term bonds.

a)

more liquid

b)

less risky

c)

less sensitive to interest rate changes

d)

subject to more uncertainty

40.

A corporation sells its stock or debt directly to investors without going through a financial institution.

a)

Direct Transfer

b)

Indirect Transfer

c)

Multi-Transfer

d)

Interbank Transfer

41.

What is the main purpose of insurance in risk management?

a)

To eliminate all risks

b)

To transfer risks to another party

c)

To avoid all risks

d)

To increase the likelihood of risks

42.

Which risk management technique involves the installation of fire alarms and sprinkler systems?

a)

Risk transfer

b)

Risk evasion

c)

Risk reduction

d)

Risk retention

43.

What is the primary purpose of liability insurance?

a)

To cover damage to property

b)

To protect against financial loss from lawsuits

c)

To provide medical coverage

d)

To insure against natural disasters

44.

What is an example of assuming risk?

a)

Insurance deductible amount

b)

Business insurance

c)

Health insurance

d)

Life insurance

45.

What is the term for the state of being responsible for something, especially by law?

a)

Accountability

b)

Obligation

c)

Responsibility

d)

Liability

46.

How can you ensure a steady income during your retirement years?

a)

Investing in stocks and bonds

b)

Government pension plans and 401(k)

c)

Monthly annuity payments

d)

All of the above

47.

What is the term for anything that has an adverse effect on your financial goals?

a)

Anticipated

b)

Unanticipated

c)

Anticipated or unanticipated

48.

What are some examples of risks that can be identified in a business environment?

a)

market risks

b)

cybersecurity risks

c)

human resources risks

d)

financial risks, operational risks, strategic risks, compliance risks, and reputational risks

49.

What are the limitations of risk identification?

a)

Overemphasis on certain risks, failure to consider external factors, lack of risk management framework

b)

Ineffective communication, resistance to change, lack of stakeholder involvement

c)

Limited knowledge or experience, biases and assumptions, lack of data or information, time constraints, and difficulty in predicting future events.

d)

Lack of resources, conflicting priorities, inadequate tools or techniques

50.

How can risk identification help in decision-making?

a)

By ignoring potential risks and blindly choosing a course of action.

b)

By wasting time and resources on unnecessary analysis.

c)

By increasing the likelihood of making the wrong decision.

d)

By identifying potential risks and uncertainties associated with different options or courses of action.

51.

BANK OVERDRAFT IS A FORM OF

a)

SHORT TERM FUNDS

b)

LONG TERM FUNDS

c)

BOTH

d)

NONE OF THE ABOVE

52.

CAPITAL STRUCTURE DENOTES THE COMPOSITION OF

a)

SHARE CAPITAL

b)

LONG TERM AND SHORT TERM DEBTS

c)

DEBT AND EQUITY

d)

RESERVES AND SURPLUS

53.

External sources of funds are

a)

(A) Funds from long term loans

b)

(B) Sale of fixed assets

c)

(C) Both (A) and (B)

d)

(D) None of the above

54.

Break-even point is that level of sales revenue at which there is ________

a)

(A) Profit

b)

(B) Loss

c)

(C) No profit no loss

d)

(D) None of the above

55.

Operating leverage =

a)

(A) Contribution x Earnings before interest and tax

b)

B) Contribution / Earnings before interest and tax

c)

(C) Earnings before interest and tax / Contribution

d)

(D) Earnings before interest and tax + Contribution

56.

EBIT stands for

a)

Earnings before Interest and Tax

b)

Earnings before Interest and Tariff

c)

Earn before Interest and Tax

d)

Earnings before Investment and Tax

57.

Cash flow management:

a)

Ensures adequate liquidity to meet short-term obligations

b)

Manages working capital

c)

Invests surplus funds effectively

d)

All of the above

58.

Risk management:

a)

Helps identify and mitigate financial risks

b)

Protects a company's assets

c)

Reduces the company's exposure to risk

d)

All of the above

59.

Capital budgeting:

a)

Involves evaluating investment opportunities to determine which projects will generate the highest return on investment

b)

Helps businesses make informed financial decisions

c)

Both of the above

d)

Neither of the above

60.

Financial planning and budgeting:

a)

Helps businesses set financial goals, allocate resources, and create budgets to guide their operations

b)

Ensures that a company has the resources it needs to achieve its goals

c)

Both of the above

d)

Neither of the above

61.

What are the key components of a balanced scorecard?

a)

Financial, customer, internal processes, learning and growth

b)

Marketing, sales, operations, human resources

c)

Profit, revenue, market share, employee satisfaction

d)

Product, price, place, promotion

62.

How can balance scorecard assessments contribute to business success?

a)

By improving financial performance

b)

By enhancing customer satisfaction

c)

By optimizing internal business processes

d)

By fostering learning and growth

63.

What is the purpose of balance scorecard assessments?

a)

To measure the financial performance of a company

b)

To evaluate the customer satisfaction of a company

c)

To assess the internal business processes of a company

d)

To analyze the learning and growth of a company

64.

How can supply chain assessment contribute to decision-making?

a)

By providing insights into supply chain performance

b)

By focusing on short-term goals

c)

By ignoring potential risks

d)

By relying on intuition

65.

What is the role of supply chain assessment in business?

a)

To identify bottlenecks in the supply chain

b)

To reduce operational costs

c)

To increase employee satisfaction

d)

To expand into new markets

66.

What is the role of competitor analysis in business strategy?

a)

Identifying new target markets

b)

Reducing operational costs

c)

Increasing employee satisfaction

d)

Expanding into new markets

67.

What are the benefits of conducting competitor analysis?

a)

Improved competitive advantage

b)

Increased customer satisfaction

c)

Enhanced financial performance

d)

Expanded market share

68.

What is the purpose of industry analysis in business?

a)

To identify new opportunities

b)

To reduce operational costs

c)

To increase employee satisfaction

d)

To expand into new markets

69.

How does industry analysis contribute to decision-making?

a)

By providing insights into market trends

b)

By focusing on short-term goals

c)

By ignoring potential risks

d)

By relying on intuition

70.

What are some strategies for performance improvement?

a)

Setting clear goals and objectives

b)

Providing regular feedback and coaching

c)

Implementing performance incentives

d)

Offering training and development opportunities

71.

The word which means "writing off certain expenses by dividing them into fixed payments over a period of time" is ...

a)

amortization

b)

debentures

c)

occupancy

d)

premises

72.
Which of the following is not a type of loan?
a)
Overdraft
b)
Long term loan
c)
Trade credit
d)
Mortgage
73.
Mortgages are seen as what?
a)
Short term
b)
Long term
74.
Overdrafts are seen as what?
a)
Short term
b)
Long term
75.

Which of these are methods that could be used to improve cash flow.

a)

Reducing costs by buying from a different supplier.

b)

Increasing its revenue by slightly raising its prices.

c)

Selling off some fixed assets.

d)

Paying back all of the refunds it owes customers

e)

Expanding into a new range of products.

76.

Buying too many fixed assets drains cash, a possible solution is

a)

Never renting

b)

Increasing production

c)

Reducing production

d)

Leasing and renting

77.

Cash flow forecasts can show two of the following...

a)

Whether a business will make a profit

b)

Whether a business has sufficient cash to meet their debt obligations

c)

Whether a business will be able to repay a loan

d)

Whether a business has enough shareholders

78.

How do you calculate net cash flow?

a)

Balance brought forward + Cash Inflows

b)

Inflows - Outflows

c)

Total cash available - cash outflows

d)

None of the above

79.

Comparative advantage is the accomplishment of a high level of productivity that is characterized by efficiency in the context of lean and quantifiable management.

a)

YES

b)

NO

80.

What is the initial measurement of the financial asset

a)

Fair Value

b)

Face Value

c)

At Cost

d)

Amortized Cost

81.

Which one of the following types of securities has no priority in a bankruptcy proceeding?

a)

Convertible bond



b)

Senior debt

c)

Common stock

d)

Preferred stock

e)

Straight bond

82.

Capital market is efficient, if the prices of securities which are traded in the market react to the changes of situation immediately, fully and credibly reflect all the important information about the security’s future income and risk-related with generating this income.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Market efficiency means that the price which investor is paying for financial asset (stock, bond, other security) partially reflects fair or true information about the intrinsic value of this specific asset or fairly describes the value of the company, the issuer of this security.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The income objectives differ from stability of principal in that; there is no specific prescription against declines in principal values.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Under the strong form of efficiency stock prices are assumed to reflect any information that may be contained in the past history of the stock prices.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

A concept of investment that means addition to the capital stock of the society or the goods used in producing other goods

a)

Economic Investment

b)

Financial Investment

c)

Economic Management

d)

Economic Concept

87.

This means an investment can easily be market

a)

Marketability

b)

Safety

c)

Liquidity

d)

Risk

88.

This implies the certainty of return of capital without any loss of money or time

a)

Safety

b)

Return

c)

Liquidity

d)

Risk

89.

This is the uncertain circumstances in the future

a)

Safety

b)

Return

c)

Liquidity

d)

Risk

90.

The goal of this phase is to generate a portfolio that provide the highest returns at a given level of risk

a)

Portfolio Selection

b)

Portfolio Analysis

c)

Portfolio Evaluation

d)

Portfolio Revision

91.

What is an opportunity cost?

a)

The think you choose when you make a decison.

b)

The cost of going to a movie.

c)

The thing you give up when you make a choice

d)

An opportunity to spend money.

92.

Having a(n) __________ means the amount of your liabilities is larger than the value of your assets.

a)

Personal Finance

b)

Asset

c)

Negative Net Worth

d)

Interest

93.

_________ means having the knowledge and skills to manage your personal finances.

a)

Interest

b)

Financial Literacy

c)

Paycheck to Paycheck

d)

Interest Rate

94.

Which of the following is the MOST financially responsible decision?

a)

Kate sold her old bike helmet for $10 to a friend. She gave the $10 to her favorite charity.

b)

Jared gets $50 for his birthday from his grandma. He spends $75 on XBox games.

c)

Sue was paid $25 for helping her neighbor in the yard. She spent $20 on a t-shirt and $5 on ice cream at the mall.

d)

Jerry earns $100 lifeguarding. He spent $5 on lunch and put the other $95 in the bank.

95.

What elements should be included on a budget? Check all that apply.

a)

A list of chores you complete.

b)

How much money you earned on chores.

c)

A list of all the things you want to buy.

d)

How much money you plan to spend to buy different items.

96.

James wants to be the richest person in the world. Which of the following should he include in his personal budget now to make this happen?

a)

How he plans to save money over a long period of time.

b)

How many Pokemon cards he will trade with friends.

c)

How he plans to increase his expenditures this coming year.

d)

How he plans to spend money on himself and others.

97.

A balanced budget is when income is equal to or greater than expenses.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

A budget helps people make responsible economic decisions.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Which of the following is a benefit of having a personal savings plan?

a)

Personal savings plans let people spend more time doing activities they enjoy.

b)

People who save money are able to spend more money in the future and pay for unexpected expenses.

c)

People who save money are able to spend a lot of money right now.

d)

Personal savings plans help people have an unbalanced budget.

100.

The __________ contains information on the inflows and outflows of the business.

a)

Cash budget

b)

Financial Budget

101.

Commercial, real state, and agricultural loans have to be covered sufficiently by collateral.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

In cooperatives, the loan portfolio is limited by the type of loan.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

You can borrow up to P2,500 per month, but you are only required to make a minimum payment (paying off the loan in full is not required).

a)

REVOLVING CREDIT

b)

INSTALLMENT

c)

OPEN CREDIT

104.

You are able to borrow up to P5,000 per month but must pay for all the funds borrowed each month.

a)

REVOLVING CREDIT

b)

INSTALLMENT

c)

OPEN CREDIT

105.

Each month, you are required to pay P500 until the loan is paid off in full.

a)

REVOLVING CREDIT

b)

INSTALLMENT

c)

OPEN CREDIT

106.

Credit still refers to an agreement to purchase a product or service with the express promise to pay for it later. This is known as buying on credit.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

107.

The debtor promises to repay the lender, often with interest, or risk financial or legal penalties.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

108.

Credit is essentially a social relation that forms between a creditor (debtor) and a borrower (lender).

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.

To an accountant, credit often refers to a bookkeeping entry that either increases assets or decreases liabilities and equity on a company's balance sheet.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

110.

Credit is generally defined as a contract agreement in which a borrower receives a sum of money or something of value and repays the lender at a later date, generally without interest.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.
Which one of these is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a)
risk taker
b)
idea person
c)
generalist
d)
specialist
112.
Entrepreneurs look for business ideas and new and better ways to solve problems.
a)
True
b)
False
113.
Starting and owning a person's own business
a)
corporation
b)
entrepreneurship
c)
sole proprietorship
d)
partnership
114.

What is a disadvantage of being an entrepreneur?

a)

You have more control over your work

b)

You have a more flexible schedule

c)

You do not always receive a regular paycheck

d)

Your work schedule is always predictable

115.
Entrepreneurs want to be their own bosses, set their own working hours, and make their own decisions.
a)
True
b)
False
116.
Business entity that is usually owned by multiple stockholders and operates as a separate legal entity.
a)
proprietorship
b)
partnership
c)
limited liability company
d)
corporation
117.

Full form of MSME is

a)

a. Mini, small and Micro Enterprises

b)

b. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

c)

c. micro, Small and Macro enterprises

d)

d. Micro, small and Mini Enterprises

118.
The process of starting & operating one's own business.
a)
Entrepreneurship
b)
Entrepreneur
c)
Venture
119.

Which of the following is not a common reason for the failure of small businesses?

a)

A lack of sufficient start-up money

b)

Shortage of skilled workers

c)

lack of management experience

d)

failure to manage credit offered to customers

120.

A(n) ____ is an invention or creation that is brand new.

a)

Development

b)

Improvement

c)

Innovation

d)

Advancement