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Quarter 4 Exam Practice Questions

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 8hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Take out your Unit 9B Packet before starting!

What unit is used to measure energy in the International System of Units (SI)?

a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Watt

d)

Ampere

2.

"Mechanical energy" refers to the total of all ____ within the system.

a)

Kinetic Energy and Thermal Energy

b)

Potential Energy and Chemical Energy

c)

Kinetic Energy and Potential Energy

d)

Thermal Energy and Chemical Energy

3.

When you rub your hands together on a cold day, you use friction to convert

a)

Mechanical energy into thermal energy

b)

Thermal energy into nuclear energy

c)

Nuclear energy into electrical energy.

d)

Electrical energy into radiant energy

4.

What happens to mechanical energy when friction is involved?

a)

It increases

b)

It stays the same

c)

It decreases because it turns into thermal energy

5.

If a cannonball fired straight upward from a cannon has 5292 joules of potential energy at its maximum height, how much kinetic energy did the cannonball have when it was first fired? Assume there is no friction of any kind for this problem.

a)

0 J

b)

2646 J

c)

5292 J

d)

10,584 J

6.

If a ball is thrown straight up to a height of 2 meters and its potential energy at the top of its path is 400 joules, what was the ball’s speed when it left the person’s hand? Assume there is no friction of any kind for this problem.

a)

3.2 m/s

b)

6.3 m/s

c)

20 m/s

d)

39 m/s

7.

A steel ball with a mass of 1.5 kilograms is thrown straight up with a speed of 12.0 m/s. How high will it travel? Assume there is no friction of any kind for this problem.

a)

7.3 m

b)

72 m

c)

110 m

d)

15 m

8.

A 60-kg astronaut jumps 0.75 meters straight up at a speed of 4.40 m/s. What is the gravitational field strength of the planet they jumped from? Assume there is no friction of any kind for this problem.

a)

9.7 N/kg

b)

13 N/kg

c)

390 N/kg

d)

770 N/kg

9.

When a pendulum swings, at what point is the kinetic energy of the object on the end of the pendulum the greatest?

a)

at the highest point of its path to the left

b)

at the highest point of its path to the right

c)

at the lowest point in the middle of its path

d)

halfway up each side of its path

10.

As a ball is thrown into the air, as the ball gets higher, its potential energy:

a)

stays the same.

b)

increases.

c)

decreases.

d)

is zero.

11.

A roller coaster car travels from the top of one hill down to a valley and back up to the top of another hill. Which of the following is NOT one of the energy transformations?

a)

gravitational potential energy to thermal energy

b)

gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy

c)

kinetic energy to thermal energy

d)

thermal energy to chemical energy

12.

When gasoline is used as fuel in a car engine, several energy transformations take place. Three of the following statements are true about these transformations, but which statement is false?

a)

When gasoline is burned, its energy is destroyed.

b)

The energy from gasoline can be transformed into light.

c)

As the energy in the form of gasoline decreases, the energy of another form increases.

d)

Once the energy in the gasoline is released, it can never be destroyed.

13.

Friction within a system often causes useful forms of energy to transform into less useful forms. Which type of energy is often produced by friction?

a)

potential energy

b)

sound energy

c)

magnetic energy

d)

electrical energy

14.

For a pendulum system WITHOUT friction, the total mechanical energy will ___ and the total thermal energy will ___.

a)

stay the same; increase

b)

decrease; stay the same

c)

stay the same; stay the same

d)

decrease; increase

15.

For a pendulum system WITH friction, the total mechanical energy will ____ and the total thermal energy will ____.

a)

increase; increase

b)

stay the same; decrease

c)

stay the same; stay the same

d)

decrease; increase

16.

Which type of light bulb transforms electrical energy into thermal energy at a wasteful rate?

a)

LEDs

b)

incandescent bulbs

c)

CFL bulbs

d)

fluorescent bulbs

17.

Take out your Unit 10 packets before continuing!

Which of the following items would be the best electrical insulator?

a)

a. a metal frying pan

b)

b. an aluminum can

c)

c. a Styrofoam packing peanut

d)

d. a silver spoon

18.

Which of the following materials would be the best electrical conductor?

a)

a. Plastic

b)

b. Metal

c)

c. Gas

d)

d. Wood

19.

Which of the following elements is a semiconductor?

a)

a. Silver

b)

b. Oxygen

c)

c. Carbon

d)

d. Copper

20.

Which of the following is the symbol used to represent a battery in a circuit diagram?

a)

Symbol a

b)

Symbol b

c)

Symbol c

d)

Symbol d

21.

What type of circuit is shown?

a)

Linear

b)

Complex

c)

Series

d)

Parallel

22.

Which of the circuits below is a series circuit?

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

23.

Which light bulb(s) will light in the circuit below?

a)

A only

b)

B only

c)

A and B

d)

neither

24.

For the circuits we built in class, what was the source of the electrical potential energy?

a)

the chemical reaction occurring in the batteries

b)

the resistors that were added to the circuits

c)

the light energy given off by the lamps

d)

the flow of electrons through the wires

25.

Where do free and mobile electrons collect within a battery?

a)

in the cathode chemical

b)

in the anode chemical

c)

on the brass pin

d)

on the outer casing

26.

When does a battery stop working?

a)

When the chemical reaction in the battery is complete.

b)

When the chemical reaction in the battery begins.

c)

When the chemical reaction in the battery is halfway complete.

d)

When the chemical reaction in the battery reverses.

27.

What direction do electrons flow when a battery is connected to a circuit?

a)

from positive terminal to positive terminal

b)

from negative terminal to negative terminal

c)

from positive terminal to negative terminal

d)

from negative terminal to positive terminal

28.

Which part of a circuit does the voltage describe?

a)

the wires

b)

the devices

c)

the power source

d)

the switch

29.

One volt is equivalent to ____ per 1 coulomb of electric charge.

a)

1 joule

b)

1 newton

c)

1 ohm

d)

1 watt

30.

What happens to the total circuit voltage if the number of devices (such as lamps) is increased?

a)

The total circuit voltage increases slightly.

b)

The total circuit voltage decreases slightly.

c)

The total circuit voltage stays the same.

d)

The total circuit voltage decreases to zero.

31.

The batteries below are wired in series, what is the total circuit voltage?

a)

1.5 V

b)

3.0 V

c)

4.5 V

d)

6.0 V

32.

The batteries below are wired in parallel, what is the total circuit voltage?

a)

1.5 V

b)

3.0 V

c)

4.5 V

d)

6.0 V

33.

When measuring voltage, where should you touch the multimeter probes on the circuit?

a)

red on the positive side; black on the negative side

b)

red on the negative side; black on the positive side

c)

red and black on the positive side

d)

red and black on the negative side

34.

What value will the multimeter read if you touch both probes to the same terminal of a battery?

a)

approximately the voltage of the battery

b)

approximately double the voltage of the battery

c)

approximately half the voltage of the battery

d)

approximately zero voltage

35.

What would be a reasonable total circuit voltage measurement for the following circuit if it uses 1.5-volt batteries?

a)

1.55 V

b)

1.46 V

c)

2.89 V

d)

3.18 V

36.

What would be a reasonable total circuit voltage measurement for the following circuit if it uses 1.5-volt batteries?

a)

1.55 V

b)

1.46 V

c)

2.89 V

d)

3.18 V

37.

A, B, and C represent identical resistors. The voltage drop across resistor A is __.

a)

-9 V

b)

-6 V

c)

-3 V

d)

0 V

38.

If A, B, and C above are identical lamps, how does their brightness compare?

a)

A is brightest and C is dimmest.

b)

C is brightest and A is dimmest.

c)

They are all equally dim.

d)

A is on, but B and C are off.

39.

A, B, and C represent identical resistors. The voltage drop across resistor A is

a)
  • -6 V

b)

-3 V

c)

-2 V

d)

0 V

40.

If A, B, and C above are identical lamps, how does their brightness compare?

a)

A is brightest and C is dimmest.

b)

C is brightest and A is dimmest.

c)

They are all equally bright.

d)

A is on, but B and C are off.

41.

If A, B, C, and D are identical lamps, how do their brightnesses compare?

a)

They are all equally bright.

b)

A and B are brighter than C and D.

c)

C and D are brighter than A and B.

d)

A, C, and D are brighter than B.

42.

Which of the following is commonly used to make resistors?

a)

Conductors

b)

Semiconductors

c)

Insulators

d)

Wires

43.

What is the term for a circuit or circuit branch that contains no resistors?

a)

long circuit

b)

soft circuit

c)

short circuit

d)

light circuit

44.

Which statement is true when using a multimeter to test resistance?

a)

The resistor must be connected to a battery

b)

The resistor should be at room temperature

c)

The red lead should be touching the positive end of the resistor

d)

The red lead should be touching the negative end of the resistor

45.

What is the total circuit resistance for the circuit?

a)

9 Ω

b)

6 Ω

c)

3 Ω

d)

0 Ω

46.

Electrical current is often compared to

a)

the number of water molecules in a hose

b)

the rate of flow of water molecules in a hose

c)

the diameter of a water hose

d)

the bucket collecting water at the end of a hose

47.

Which of the following is NOT a unit of measurement for current?

a)

coulombs per second

b)

amperes

c)

amps

d)

coulombs

48.

What happens to the current in a circuit with fixed voltage if you increase the resistance of the circuit?

a)

The current increases

b)

The current decreases

c)

The current stays the same

d)

The current drops to zero

49.

A student connects six 3.0-ohm lamps in series to a 9.0-volt battery. What is the total circuit current?

a)

0.5 amperes

b)

2.0 amperes

c)

4.5 amperes

d)

1.8 amperes

50.

What is the total circuit current for the circuit below?

a)

0.6 amperes

b)

0.2 amperes

c)

1.8 amperes

d)

5 amperes

51.

Two of the three current measurements are shown on the circuit below. What is the missing current measurement?

a)

1.0 amperes

b)

2.0 amperes

c)

3.0 amperes

d)

5.0 amperes

52.

What happens to the total current in a parallel circuit if an extra branch with resistors is added?

a)

a. The total current will increase

b)

b. The total current will decrease

c)

c. The total current will stay the same

d)

d. It will become a short circuit

53.

What happens to the total current in a parallel circuit if an extra branch with no resistors is added?

a)

The total current will increase slightly.

b)

The total current will decrease.

c)

The total current will stay the same.

d)

It will become a short circuit.

54.

Take out your Unit 11 packets before continuing!

How many wavelengths are shown?

a)

1

b)

1.5

c)

2

d)

2.5

55.

What is the amplitude of the wave?

a)

-5 cm

b)

0 cm

c)

5 cm

d)

10 cm

56.

What is the frequency of wave B?

a)

3 Hz

b)

6 Hz

c)

12 Hz

d)

24 Hz

57.

As the frequency of a sound wave increases, the

a)

pitch of the sound decreases.

b)

pitch of the sound increases.

c)

intensity of the sound decreases.

d)

intensity of the sound increases.

58.

The loudness of a sound is related to the sound wave’s

a)

frequency.

b)

amplitude.

c)

speed.

d)

frequency and amplitude.

59.

Which of the following do sound and light waves have in common?

a)

They both travel at the same speed.

b)

They can both travel through vacuums.

c)

They can both travel through media.

d)

They both involve the oscillation of atoms.

60.

The color of a light source is related to its

a)

speed.

b)

crest.

c)

amplitude.

d)

frequency.

61.

The electromagnetic waves with the most energy are:

a)

microwaves

b)

gamma rays

c)

radio waves

d)

visible light waves

62.

Red visible light has the ________ of all visible light.

a)

lowest frequency and longest wavelengths

b)

highest frequency and shortest wavelengths

c)

lowest frequency and shortest wavelengths

d)

highest frequency and longest wavelengths

63.

Due to the Doppler effect, the pitch of the siren of a fire truck driving away from you will:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

decrease, then increase

d)

remain the same

64.

Due to the Doppler effect, if a distant galaxy were moving away from Earth, the galaxy would appear ______ normal starlight.

a)

slightly more red than

b)

slightly more blue than

c)

about the same white/yellow color as

d)

slightly more green than

65.

Which of the following properties does a Doppler shift NOT affect from the perspective of the observer?

a)

frequency

b)

wavelength

c)

energy

d)

amplitude

66.

Which of the following statements best describes the effects of the superpositioning of waves?

a)

It occurs temporarily before the waves meet.

b)

It occurs temporarily when/while the waves meet.

c)

It occurs temporarily after the waves meet.

d)

It occurs when waves meet and permanently affects the waves.

67.

What is being shown in the image?

a)

constructive interference

b)

destructive interference

c)

both constructive and destructive interference

d)

neither constructive nor destructive interference

68.

Which of the following pictures best illustrates how a sound could suddenly become more intense?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

69.

Which type of reflection is shown in Diagram B?

a)

specular

b)

diffuse

c)

diffracted

d)

rough

70.

Which wave behavior is shown?

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

transmission

71.

Which of the following is an example of diffracted sound?

a)

An echo

b)

A mirror image

c)

Hearing voices through a doorway

d)

Seeing rainbows through diffraction glasses

72.

Which of the following best describes the difference between reflection and diffraction?

a)

Reflection amplifies waves, whereas diffraction absorbs waves.

b)

Reflection absorbs waves, whereas diffraction amplifies waves.

c)

Reflection bends waves, whereas diffraction bounces waves.

d)

Reflection bounces waves, whereas diffraction bends waves.

73.

Which of the following is the most opaque?

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Paper

d)

Wood

74.

Which of the following materials is the most transparent?

a)

Clear glass

b)

Stained glass

c)

Frosted glass

d)

Tinted glass

75.

Why do many plants appear green?

a)

Plants absorb red and blue light and reflect green light

b)

Plants absorb green light and reflect red and blue light

c)

Plants absorb green light and reflect blue and yellow light

d)

Plants absorb red light and reflect yellow and blue light

76.

When radiant energy is absorbed by matter, into which form of energy does it transform?

a)

Light energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Mechanical energy

d)

Thermal energy

77.

Which diagram correctly illustrates light rays as they pass through a convex lens?

a)

Diagram a

b)

Diagram b

c)

Diagram c

d)

Diagram d

78.

The diagram to the right shows an example of

a)

Reflection

b)

Absorption

c)

Diffraction

d)

Refraction

79.

Refraction is the _____ of a wave as it ______.

a)

bending; enters a new medium

b)

bending; goes through a narrow opening

c)

bouncing; goes around a corner

d)

diminishing; loses energy

80.

Which wavelength(s) of visible light bend(s) the most when they are refracted?

a)

Red and orange

b)

Yellow and green

c)

Blue and indigo

d)

Violet

81.

Take out your Unit 12 packets before continuing!

Which reaction converts mass into energy in the Sun?

a)

An exothermic chemical reaction

b)

An endothermic chemical reaction

c)

A nuclear fusion reaction

d)

A nuclear fission reaction

82.

Which element is used up during the reaction occurring in the Sun?

a)

Hydrogen (H)

b)

Helium (He)

c)

Lithium (Li)

d)

Carbon (C)

83.

Where is energy generated in the Sun?

a)

the core

b)

the radiative zone

c)

the convection zone

d)

the photosphere

84.

Once the energy is generated in the core of the Sun, how long does it take that energy to reach Earth?

a)

about 8 minutes

b)

about a month

c)

about 1 year

d)

about 100,000 years

85.

Which statement best describes the age of each telescope?

a)

James Webb and Hubble are both only a few years old.

b)

James Webb is only a few years old, whereas Hubble is over 30 years old.

c)

James Webb is over 30 years old, whereas Hubble is only a few years old.

d)

James Webb and Hubble are both over 30 years old.

86.

Which statement best describes the specialty of each telescope?

a)

James Webb and Hubble both collect radiation from the full EMR spectrum.

b)

James Webb specializes in infrared light, whereas Hubble specializes in ultraviolet light.

c)

James Webb specializes in ultraviolet light, whereas Hubble specializes in infrared light.

d)

James Webb and Hubble both specialize in collecting visible light only.

87.

Which statement best describes the location of each telescope?

a)

James Webb and Hubble are both in Earth's orbit about 570 kilometers away

b)

James Webb and Hubble are in the Sun's orbit about 1.5 million kilometers from Earth

c)

James Webb is in Earth's orbit about 570 kilometers away, whereas Hubble is in the Sun's orbit about 1.5 million kilometers away

d)

James Webb is in the Sun's orbit about 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, whereas Hubble is in Earth's orbit about 570 kilometers away

88.

An emission spectrum is used to identify:

a)

which star light is coming from.

b)

how old a star is.

c)

how far away a star is from Earth.

d)

which elements a star contains.

89.

The Sun is made up of:

a)

mostly hydrogen, some helium, and very small amounts of other elements.

b)

mostly helium, some hydrogen, and very small amounts of other elements.

c)

mostly other elements, but a significant amount of hydrogen and some helium.

d)

mostly other elements, but a significant amount of helium and some hydrogen.

90.

Are any of these the same elements?

a)

They are all the same element.

b)

A and B are the same element.

c)

B and D are the same element.

d)

They are all different elements.

91.

The coolest temperature stars (approximately -200 degrees Celsius) tend to appear _____ in color.

a)

red

b)

yellow

c)

blue

d)

white

92.

Three stars are equally luminous, but one is 1 light year from Earth, the second is 2 light years from Earth, and the third is 3 light years from Earth. Which star will appear brightest to an Earthling?

a)

The star that is 1 light year away.

b)

The star that is 2 light years away.

c)

The star that is 3 light years away.

d)

They will all be equally bright to an Earthling.

93.

According to the H-R diagram, how would the category of stars known as “white dwarfs” be best described?

a)

hot but dim

b)

hot and bright

c)

cool and dim

d)

cool but bright

94.

According to the H-R diagram, which category of stars can have the greatest range in luminosity?

a)

white dwarfs

b)

main sequence stars

c)

red giants

d)

supergiants

95.

Which letter represents a nova event?

a)

K

b)

I

c)

H

d)

E

96.

Which of the following is NOT evidence supporting the Big Bang model?

a)

the presence of CMBR in the universe today

b)

the abundance of hydrogen in the universe today

c)

the abundance of helium in the universe today

d)

the abundance of people in the universe today

97.

Hubble’s law states that galaxies that are farther away from Earth have ___ redshift, so they are moving ____ away from Earth than other galaxies.

a)

greater; faster

b)

greater; slower

c)

lesser; faster

d)

lesser; slower

98.

Immediately after the big bang, the portion of the universe that we see today was closest to a ____ in diameter (across) and could be held in your hand.

a)

meter

b)

kilometer (1000 meters)

c)

centimeter (a hundredth of a meter)

99.

After the “big bang” the universe quickly

a)

expanded and cooled.

b)

expanded and warmed.

c)

compressed and cooled.

d)

compressed and warmed.

100.

What is the most likely classification for the galaxy shown?

a)

irregular

b)

regular spiral

c)

barred spiral

d)

elliptical

101.

What is the most likely classification for the galaxy shown?

a)

lenticular

b)

regular spiral

c)

barred spiral

d)

elliptical

102.

The Milky Way is categorized as which type of galaxy?

a)

lenticular

b)

regular spiral

c)

barred spiral

d)

elliptical

103.

Where is the Sun located in the Milky Way?

a)

at the center

b)

in the halo

c)

on an arm

d)

the Sun is not in the Milky Way