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Staar Practice

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 2hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How many pairs of chromosomes exist in each of your cells?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
23
d)
46
2.
when you have two different genes
a)
heterozygous
b)
dominant
c)
homozygous
3.
when you have two of the same genes
a)
heterozygous
b)
recessive
c)
homozygous
4.
the physical look of a trait
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
c)
recessive
5.
the following letters are an example of _______  dd
a)
recessive
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
homozygous dominant
d)
dominant
6.
Dd letters are an example of....
a)
heterozygous genes
b)
homozygous genes
c)
dominant genes
d)
recessive genes
7.
DD is an example of
a)
homozygous recessive
b)
dominant
c)
Homozygous dominant
d)
recessive
8.
What process occurs when WATER diffuses across a membrane?
a)
endocytosis
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
nuclear fission 
9.
When particles move from areas of high concentration to areas less concentrated, this has taken place.
a)
diffusion
b)
mitosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
photosynthesis
10.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
11.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
12.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
13.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
14.
Molecules diffusing with the concentration gradient through a protein channel is...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
15.
This cell organelle helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
16.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
17.
What type of transport is this?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
18.
Active transport requires ______, moves materials from __________________, and goes _______ the concentration gradient.
a)
No energy, low to high, against
b)
ATP, high to low, with
c)
ATP, low to high, with
d)
ATP, low to high, against
19.

What base pairs with adenine?

a)

phosphate

b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

thymine

20.

What base pairs with thymine?

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

limousine

21.

What base pairs with cytosine?

a)

guanine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

magazine

22.

What is DNA

a)

donuts need algea

b)

did no algebra

c)

do not answer

d)

deoxyribonucleic acid

23.

What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?

a)

a phosphate group

b)

a base

c)

a wave caused by a large bomb

d)

a 5 carbon sugar

24.

Why is DNA important?

a)

It teleports cookies to my locker.

b)

It carries the instructions for our cells.

c)

It allows me to be invisible.

d)

It gave us a snow day in August.

25.

If a DNA sequence it GAATGCCT, what are the matching base pairs?

a)

ACGTACCTG

b)

AEIOU and sometimes Y

c)

CTTACGGA

d)

GCCTATGC

26.

If a DNA sequence is CATCAT, what are the matching base pairs?

a)

ACGTAC

b)

MEOW

c)

GTAGTA

d)

GCCTAT

27.

What does the structure of DNA resemble?

a)

an airplane propeller

b)

a twisted ladder

c)

a twisted Christmas tree

d)

a hippo in a tutu

28.

Bacteria

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

29.

True nucleus

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

30.

Ribosome

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukarytoic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

31.

Cell Membrane

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

32.

Plant cell

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

33.

Contains organelles

a)

Prokarytoic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

34.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
Mixed
35.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
36.
Eukaryotes include animal cells and plant cells? True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
37.
______ make protein for the cell.  
a)
Nuclei
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Endoplasmic reticulum
d)
Vacuoles 
38.
Which type of cell is bigger?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic 
39.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

40.
Which of the following would be found in both eukaryotic AND prokaryotic cells?
a)
chloroplast
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
41.
How is this organism best classified?
a)
unicellular & eukaryotic
b)
multicellular & eukaryotic
c)
unicellular & prokaryotic
d)
multicellular & prokaryotic
42.
All living things are made from cells.  
a)
True
b)
False
43.
How does a virus cause a person to develop the common cold?
a)
invades the host cell to reproduce
b)
removes energy from the host cell
c)
produces toxins in the host cell
d)
protects the host cell from bacteria
44.
Antibiotics kill viruses
a)
True
b)
False
45.
True or False
The flu is caused by a virus.
a)
true
b)
false
46.
When a virus invades a living cell, its _______
takes over the cell's functions.
a)
outer coat
b)
genetic material
c)
core
d)
cytoplasm
47.
Which type of replication allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
active (lytic)
b)
mitosis
c)
hidden (lysogenic)
d)
cellular respiration
48.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
49.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
50.
Viruses can reproduce on their own
a)
False
b)
True
c)
Sometimes
51.
What is the main function of the projections on the surface of a virus?
a)
They aid in respiration
b)
They help the virus grow
c)
They help the virus invade its host by attaching to specific sites on the host
d)
They help the virus digest food molecules
52.
Which can be treated with antibiotics?
a)
Virus
b)
Bacteria
c)
Mutagen
d)
Parasite
53.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
54.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

55.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
56.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
57.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

58.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

59.

When cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase, this results

a)

arthritis

b)

cancer

c)

mutation

d)

diabetes

60.
Change over time...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
61.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
62.
To adjust to a changing environment
a)
Mutation
b)
Adapt
63.
Another word for adapt is ____________.
a)
change
b)
create
64.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
65.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
66.
Darwin referred to this as survival of the fittest. Over time, it results in changes in the inherited characteristics of a population because organisms with adaptations that make them fit for their environment will survive and reproduce better than those without favorable traits.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Genetic Variation
c)
Survival of the Fittest
67.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
68.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
69.
Remains of ancient organisms are called
a)
Extinctions
b)
Fossils
c)
Mutations
d)
Variations
70.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

71.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

72.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

73.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

74.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

75.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

76.

Identify the DELETION mutation form the following:

ATG CCA AAT

a)

ATG TCA AAT

b)

ATG CCT AAA T

c)

ATC CA AT

d)

ATG CCA AAT

77.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

78.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

79.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

80.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

81.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

82.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
83.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
84.
Which body system gets oxygen from the environment and removes carbon dioxide and other wastes from the body?
a)
Circulatory
b)
Respiratory
c)
Digestive
d)
Skeletal
85.
Which of these 3 systems work together to get the body the oxygen and sugar that it needs to make ATP(energy)?
a)
Digestive - Cardiovascular -Urinary
b)
Cardiovascular - Respiratory - Reproductive
c)
Respiratory - Digestive - Lymphatic
d)
Cardiovascular - Digestive - Respiratory
86.

What 2 systems: Absorb and deliver the digested nutrients to the cells

a)

Digestive and muscular

b)

Muscular and lymphatic

c)

Digestive and circulatory

d)

Nervous and skeletal

87.

What 2 systems: Allows for movement

a)

Muscular and Skeletal

b)

Endocrine and Skeletal

c)

Nervous and Circulatory

d)

Integumentary and Reproductive

88.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
89.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
90.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
91.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
92.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
93.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
94.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
95.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
96.
Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share a species 
97.
The scientific name for an organism is made from the:
a)
class and family name
b)
genus and species name
c)
domain and kingdom name
d)
kingdom and phylum name
98.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
99.
Cells that do not have a true nucleus are called....
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
c)
unicellular
d)
multicellular
100.
Mosquito  belongs to what kingdom?
a)
Animal Kingdom
b)
Plant Kingdom
c)
Fungi Kingdom
d)
Protista Kingdom
101.
Dandelion, What kingdom does it belongs to?
a)
Plant Kingdom
b)
Animal Kingdom
c)
Fungi Kingdom
d)
Protista Kingdom
102.
Which organisms are most closely related?
a)
Equus caballas (Horse) & Equus burchellii (Zebra)
b)
Cyanea artica (Jellyfish) &
Ctenodiscus crispatus (Mud Starfish)
c)
Naja naja (cobra) & Glycine max (soya bean)
d)
Ophiocomina nigra (black brittle star) & Brassica nigra (black mustard)
103.
The science of describing, classifying, and naming living things is called:
a)
Geology
b)
Biology
c)
Taxonomy
d)
Chemistry
104.
Which organisms pictured on the cladogram have hair?
a)
prosimians only
b)
prosimians and humans
c)
humans only
d)
prosimians and birds
105.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram? 
a)
The organisms share a common ancestry.
b)
The organisms belong to the same genus.
c)
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
d)
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
106.
Natural selection is best described as
a)
a change in an organism in response to a need of that organism
b)
a process of nearly constant improvement that leads to an organism that is nearly perfect
c)
differences in survival rates as a result of different inherited characteristics
d)
inheritance of characteristics acquired during the life of an organism
107.
Which occurrence represents an example of evolution?
a)
 Exposure to radiation reduces the rate of mutation in leaf cells.
b)
A mutation in a liver cell causes a person to produce an enzyme that is less efficient.
c)
 Cells in a zygote eventually change into bone cells or skin cells
d)
Some antibiotics are almost useless, because pathogens have developed a resistance to these antibiotics.

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