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Worksheets

PS CH 20,24 Review

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 4hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the ability of a material to be stretched into a wire

a)

Elasticity

b)

Solubility

c)

Ductility

d)

Malleability

2.

a measure of how easily a material allows electrical current to flow through

a)

Stiffness

b)

Passivity

c)

Toxicity

d)

Conductivity

3.

The tendency of a liquid to keep from flowing

a)

Passivity

b)

Toxicity

c)

Slippery

d)

Viscosity

4.

A measure of a material's ability to damage or disrupt the metabolism of living tissue

a)

Toxicity

b)

Passivity

c)

Elasticity

d)

Resistivity

5.

failure by sudden fracture, characteristic of ceramic materials

a)

Brittleness

b)

Hardness

c)

Strength

d)

Failure

6.

the ability to absorb force and flex in different directions

a)

Ductility

b)

Viscosity

c)

Elasticity

d)

Density

7.

The expansion of all materials when heated and contract when cooled.

a)

Thermal expansion

b)

Plastic deformation

c)

Dielectric strength

d)

Thermal conductivity

8.

A material's ability to catch fire and burn; important for organic materials and reactive metals.

a)

Thermal conductivity

b)

Conductivity

c)

Combustibility

d)

Toxicity

9.

A material's ability to withstand degradation from acids, solvents, water, or oxygen.

a)

Chemical resistance

b)

Toughness

c)

Tensile strength

d)

Biocompatibility

10.

The temperature at which a liquid begins to form as a material is heated.

a)

Melting point

b)

Freezing point

c)

Boiling point

d)

Hollow point

11.

The ability of a material to be reshaped in all directions without failure; sometimes called workability; an important characteristic of metals.

a)

Brittleness

b)

Flexible

c)

Ductility

d)

Malleability

12.

The maximum strength, in tension (pulling), that can be absorbed without fracturing, breaking, or snapping.

a)

Biocompatibility

b)

Tensile strength

c)

Flexural strength

d)

Plastic deformation

13.

Use in or on the human body without eliciting a rejection response from the surrounding body tissues.

a)

Malleability

b)

Resistivity

c)

Toxicity

d)

Biocompatibility

14.

Assembly

a)

the process of reusing nonrenewable materials

b)

the process of putting parts together during the manufacturing process

c)

the property that describes how much air or water a material will absorb.

d)

the movement of light through a material or object

15.

Composite

a)

tiny, crystalline grains visible when looking at a fresh metal sample through a microscope

b)

formed by combining two or more materials to make a new material with a different set of properties

c)

objects made from clay or other combinations of minerals baked at high temperature

d)

the property that describes how much air or water a material will absorb.

16.

The process of reusing nonrenewable materials

a)

Ductility

b)

Shearing

c)

Recycling

d)

Chemical bond

17.

Ceramics

a)

Materials that undergo a permanent change in shape or size when subjected to a particular amount of stress

b)

The property that describes how much air or water a material will absorb.

c)

Describes a material's ability to return to its original shape after being stretched

d)

Objects made from clay or other combinations of minerals baked at high temperature

18.

Renewable

a)

rough sketches, the first design step

b)

the force that holds two atoms together

c)

the process of reusing nonrenewable materials

d)

A natural resource that can be replaced

19.

Material made of a mixture of cooper and tin or aluminum

a)

Silver

b)

Nickel

c)

Bronze

d)

Gold

20.

Expose a sample of material to heat in order to test it's ______ property

a)

Optical

b)

Elasticity

c)

Ductile

d)

Thermal

21.

Which of these materials is a good conductor of heat?

a)

Wood

b)

Ceramic

c)

Metal

22.
This type of material is a good conductor of electricity?
a)
polymer
b)
metal
c)
ceramic
d)
glass
23.

What are the three classification of materials?

a)

Metals, Ceramics and Polymers

b)

Plastic, Rubber and Glass

c)

Carbon, glass and foam

d)

None of the above

24.

Categorize all these type of primary bonds

Categorize the following

one (1) or more electrons are transferred from one (1) atom to the other

produced from sharing of electrons between adjacent atoms

each atoms supplies one (1) or more electrons that drift throughout the entire metal

Produce from electrostatics force between ions of opposite charge (+ -)

at least one (1) atom donating one electron to be shared with adjacent atom.

formed in metals & their alloys

an atom which loses the electron becomes positively charge (cation)

bonding force produced from attraction between shared electron

valence electrons are not tied to any particular atoms

IONIC BONDS
COVALENT BONDS
METALLIC BONDS
25.

Organize these examples of materials around us.

Categorize the following

Porcelain

Crucibles

Pottery

Wall tiles

Polyvinyl Chloride

Polypropylene

Polyvinylidene Flouride

Polytetrafluoroethylene

POLYMER
CERAMIC
26.
Material science includes
a)
searching for new materials.
b)
modifying materials.
c)
understanding properties of materials.
d)
All choices
27.

Which material is made by joining many smaller units together?

a)

composite

b)

metal

c)

polymer

d)

ceramic

28.

You need to build a prototype of a design and need to choose a material that is strong and able to withstand the outdoor elements. You are not concerned about cost. Which type of material should you choose?

a)

Plastic

b)

Wood

c)

Metal

29.

The engineering materials known as plastics are more correctly called

a)

polyvinyl chloride

b)

polymers

c)

polyethylene

d)

mers

30.

These materials must not produce toxic substances and must be compatible with body tissues. Choose the right answer for this materials.

a)

Metal

b)

Composites

c)

Biomaterials

d)

Semiconductor

31.

Which term describes a material that fractures without plastic deformation first?

a)

Elastic

b)

Ductile

c)

Brittle

d)

Malleable

32.

Material Science is the study of

a)

atmospheric gases

b)

liquids and gases

c)

solids

d)

plasma

33.

Ceramics and glass are usually placed in the same general category because

a)

of similar properties

b)

they have the same structure

c)

they are both transparent

d)

they have metallic bonding

34.

The four categories of materials science are metals, ceramics, __________, and composites.

a)

nonmetals

b)

plastics

c)

wood

d)

polymers

35.

The primary component in glass is ________.

a)

sodium

b)

silicon dioxide

c)

iron

d)

copper oxide

36.

A mixture of metals usually made by heating metals together is a(n) ________.

a)

ore

b)

ionic compound

c)

slurry

d)

alloy

37.

A mixture of compounds in the earth in which metals are found are called __________.

a)

ore

b)

ionic compounds

c)

slurry

d)

alloy

38.

What is an alloy

a)

A mixture of metals and gas

b)

A mixture of carbon and steel

c)

A homogeneous mixture of metals and sometimes non metals

d)

mixture of nonmetals

39.

Why are metals alloyed?

a)

To improve the appearance of a metal

b)

To make them less likely to corrode

c)

To reduce the amount of iron used

d)

To change the properties of the metal

40.

Applied scientists or engineers must make material choices. The following are the reasons for material selection EXCEPT

a)

economics

b)

in-service performance

c)

prestige

d)

deterioration

41.

This type of material has good workability:

a)

Metal

b)

Ceramic

42.

This type of material is generally pretty brittle (breaks easily)

a)

Metal

b)

Ceramic

c)

Alloy

43.
A composite material is made of 
a)
A single material
b)
Two or more separate materials
c)
Two or more chemically combined materials
d)
None of these
44.

Which type of polymer is the image above showing?

a)

Linear

b)

Cross-Linked

c)

Network

d)

Branched

45.

Which type of polymer is the illustrated above?

a)

Cross-Linked

b)

Network

c)

Branched

d)

Linear

46.

Which type of polymer is shown on the image above?

a)

Cross-Linked

b)

Branched

c)

Network

d)

Linear

47.

Which type of polymer is illustrated above?

a)

Linear

b)

Branched

c)

Cross-Linked

d)

Network

48.

What is the process to make long polymer (plastic) chains?

a)

Fractional Distillation

b)

Curing

c)

Fracking

d)

Polymerization

49.

A chain of repeating units (called monomers)

a)

monomer

b)

dimer

c)

replicate

d)

polymer

50.
Which of these properties do ceramics possess?
a)
Light
b)
Very fragile
c)
Strong hardness
d)
Flexible
51.
Ceramics also have a chemical inertness. What does this mean?
a)
They do not react with chemicals.
b)
They react strongly with chemicals.
c)
They only react with reactive elements.
d)
They react sometimes with chemicals.
52.
Because of their strong bonds, ceramics are...
a)
Electrically resistant
b)
Elastic
c)
Heat resistant
d)
Magnetic
53.

Clay products that have been fired for permanence.

a)

Ceramic

b)

Bisque

c)

Greenware

d)

Coiling

54.

Why is it important to consider the type of material used for a design?

a)

Affects the cost of the design

b)

Affects the criteria of the design

c)

Affects the strength/durability of the design

55.

You need to build a prototype of a design and need to choose a material that is easy to machine. Which type of material should you choose?

a)

Plastic

b)

Wood

c)

Metal

56.

You need to build a prototype of a design and need to choose a material that is strong and able to withstand the outdoor elements. You are not concerned about cost. Which type of material should you choose?

a)

Plastic

b)

Wood

c)

Metal

57.

Which type of material allows you to create unique 3D shapes?

a)

Plastic

b)

Wood

c)

Metal

58.

Many monomers attached together is called?

a)
dimer
b)
trimer
c)
monomer
d)
polymer
59.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Wood

Paper

Cotton

nylon

styrofoam

Plastic

Natural Polymers
Synthetic Polymers
60.

What is a polymer?

a)

A polymer is a large molecule composed of repeating units called monomers.

b)
A polymer is a type of metal.
c)
A polymer is a type of plant.
d)

A polymer is a small molecule composed of repeating subunits called dimers.

61.

What happens to the melting point as polymers get longer?

a)
The melting point generally decreases.
b)
The melting point remains the same.
c)
The melting point generally increases.
d)
The melting point is not affected by the length of polymers.
62.

Monomers of ethene in thousand numbers react together in addition polymerization to produce

a)

polyamides

b)

polyesters

c)

poly(ethene)

d)

all of them

63.
Proteins are composed of what smaller subunits?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleic acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
64.

Which of these is an example of synthetic polymer?

a)

cotton fibers

b)

rubber

c)

wool

d)

polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

65.

Which polymers occur naturally?

a)

Starch and Nylon

b)

Starch and Cellulose

c)

Proteins and Nylon

d)

Proteins and PVC

66.

Materials which can conduct electricity better than insulator,but not as well as conductors. This is the definition of

a)

diode

b)

semiconductor

c)

conductor

d)

insulator

e)

superconductor

67.

What is the most common semiconductor material used for producing integrated circuits

a)

Quartz

b)

Silicon

c)

Diamond

d)

Tantalum

68.

Steel generally speaking is made of

a)

iron and carbon

b)

copper and iron

c)

tin and carbon

d)

aluminum and nickel

69.

Brass is an alloy made of

a)

copper and zinc

b)

copper and tin

c)

copper and nickel

d)

copper and aluminum

70.

Bronze is an alloy made of

a)

aluminum and magnesium

b)

copper and tin

c)

lead and tin

d)

copper and nickel

71.

Steel can become stainless when alloyed with _____.

a)

chromium and nickel

b)

copper and zinc

c)

tin and lead

d)

iron aand carbon

72.

Steel can become stainless when alloyed with _____.

a)

chromium and nickel

b)

copper and zinc

c)

tin and lead

d)

iron aand carbon

73.

Can be drawn into wires

a)

Ductile

b)

Sonorous

c)

Malleable

d)

Flexible

74.

Can be beaten into thin sheets

a)

Ductile

b)

Sonorous

c)

Malleable

d)

Flexible

75.

Which properties of metal makes it a good choice to make a cooking pot out of? Choose TWO

a)

it has luster - it is shiny

b)

it is a good conductor of heat

c)

it is ductile - able to be made into a wire

d)

it has a high melting point

76.
Which of these is NOT an alloy?
a)
bronze
b)
copper
c)
brass
d)
stainless steel
77.

Which of the following characteristics belong to pure metals?

I. Ductile

II. Malleable

III. Brittle

IV. Good conductor of electricity

a)

I and II

b)

I and IV

c)

I, II and IV

d)

I, II, III and IV

78.

Which of the following properties does not belong to an alloy as compared to its pure metal?

a)

Stronger

b)

More corrosion resistant

c)

Harder

d)

More malleable

79.

Made of coarse aggregate, sand, cement and water.

a)

Concrete

b)

Plywood

c)

Robotic materials

d)

Reinforced polymers

e)

Fibre/Carbon/Glass

80.
What is the ability of a substance to allow heat, sound, or electricity to flow through it?
a)
Malleability
b)
Ductility
c)
Solubility
d)
Conductivity
81.
What does malleable mean?
a)
able to be shaped
b)
will break easily
c)
can be used for wire
d)
is shiny
82.
The ability of a material to deform, usually by stretching along its length. This property allows us to make wires.
a)
conductivity
b)
ductility
c)
malleability
d)
hardness
83.
______________________ is the material’s ability to return to its near original shape after a stress has been applied and removed.
a)
Ductility
b)
Brittleness
c)
Elasticity
d)
Hardness
84.

What is the most important type of composite for aerospace applications?

a)

Carbon Fibre

b)

Glass Fibre

c)

Kevlar

d)

Concrete

85.

Name a specific application for Kevlar

a)

Body protection and armour

b)

F1 car bodies

c)

Run flat tyres

d)

Sails for windsurfing

86.

Which type of composite material is commonly used in the construction of tennis rackets?

a)

Carbon Fibre

b)

Glass Fibre

c)

Kevlar

d)

Wood

87.

What are the properties of Kevlar?

a)

Heavy, incredible strength, low cost

b)

Flexible, elastic, ductile

c)

Waterproof, rigid, low cost

d)

Vibration absorption, incredible strength, abrasion resistance

88.

What are the two main categories of matrix material in composites?

a)

Polymer and Glass

b)

Ceramic and Metal

c)

Polymer and Ceramic

d)

Metal and Polymer

89.

Name one advantage of using composite materials.

a)

Heavy weight

b)

Limited design flexibility

c)

High strength-to-weight ratio

d)

Low durability

90.

Provide an example of an application of composite materials.

a)

Construction industry

b)

Automotive industry

c)

Marine industry

d)

Aerospace industry

91.

What are some properties of composite materials?

a)

Composite materials have properties such as high strength-to-weight ratio, corrosion resistance, and durability.

b)

Composite materials have low strength-to-weight ratio

c)

Composite materials are highly susceptible to corrosion

d)

Composite materials are not durable

92.

To create an alloy, pure metals are ______________ with other components.

a)

broken down

b)

cooled

c)

mixed

93.

Drill bits are attached to power drills to make holes. Drill bits are made of _____________ because they are hard and resist corrosion.

a)

alloys

b)

ceramics

c)

composites

94.

The handles of power drills are made of ________________ because this is a good insulator.

a)

alloys

b)

composites

c)

plastic

95.

Which item is brittle. It shatters into many pieces .

a)

ceramic dish

b)

metal skillet

c)

plastic bin

96.

Which of the following is NOT a polymer?

a)

paper

b)

plywood

c)

nylon

d)

plastic

97.

Using oil and gas as starting materials, you can make _______________________.

a)

ceramic

b)

synthetic polymer

c)

alloy

98.

The bodies and handles of power drills are made of ________________ because they’re good insulators.

a)

alloys

b)

composites

c)

plastics

d)

ceramics

99.

Check each each material that is a composite.

a)

plywood

b)

plastic

c)

concrete

d)

nylon

e)

paper

100.

What was one of the 1st composites created?

a)

mud bricks (straw and mud)

b)

plywood (wood pieces and glue)

c)

fiberglass (glass fibers, woven material, and resin)

d)

concrete (cement, water, and rock)

101.

Which of these places radiation types in order from the most penetrating to least penetrating:

a)

Alpha , Beta, Gamma

b)

Beta , Gamma , Alpha

c)

Gamma, Beta, Alpha

d)

Gamma, Alpha, Beta

102.
What would two different isotopes of an atom have in common?
a)
Number of neutrons 
b)
Number of protons
c)
Atomic weight 
d)
Atomic mass
103.

A nuclear reaction where an atomic nucleus splits into two smaller nuclei is called:

a)

Fission

b)

Fusion

c)

Gamma decay

d)

Beta decay

104.
What happens when the number of protons in an atom changes? 
a)

The number of electrons always reduces to zero

b)

Usually nothing happens, unless the atom is radioactive 

c)

The atomic nucleus breaks down and decays

d)

It becomes a completely different atom, with different properties 

105.
Two or more nuclei combine to form one larger nucleus in the process of nuclear _____.
a)
Fusion
b)
Fission
c)
Tracing
d)
Decay
106.

This picture is an example of:

a)

Fission reaction

b)

Fusion reaction

c)

Decomposition reaction

d)

Combustion

107.

When atoms decay, massive amounts of _______ are released.

a)

energy

b)

photons

c)

protons

d)

oxygen

108.

This type of radiation has the highest penetrating power.  Even several inches thick of lead or several meters of concrete cannot stop all of it:

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

Delta

109.

This type of radiation has the lowest penetrating power.  Can only penetrate 0.05 mm into the body and can be stopped by a piece of paper or clothing.

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

Delta

110.
If a sulfur atom has 16 protons, 16 electrons, and 16 neutrons, its atomic mass is:
a)
16
b)
32
c)
48
d)
64
111.

Beta particles have a _____ charge.

a)

+2

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

-1

112.
Alpha particles have a _____ charge.
a)
+2
b)
0
c)
+1
d)
-1
113.
Gamma rays have a _____ charge
a)
0
b)
+1
c)
-1
d)
+2
114.
Which process involves the joining of small nuclei?
a)
Beta decay
b)
Alpha decay
c)
Nuclear fission
d)
Nuclear fusion
115.

The nuclear process occurring at a nuclear power plant is:

a)

Nuclear fusion

b)

Nuclear fission

c)

Combustion

d)

Nuclear fishing

116.
Complete the sentence: As time passes the level of radiation produced by a radioactive material...
a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Remains constant

d)

Triples

117.
Classify this process.
a)
Nuclear fission
b)
Nuclear fusion
c)
Alpha decay
d)
Beta decay
118.
How many neutrons are in this isotope of Uranium?
a)
235
b)
92
c)
327
d)
143
119.
What is one problem with using nuclear fission as an energy source?
a)
finding radioactive elements that have longer half-lives
b)
finding ways of storing radioactive wastes
c)
finding compounds to cool heated water
d)
finding non-radioactive elements for reactors
120.
What sort of shield will block gamma rays?
a)
skin
b)
paper
c)
aluminum
d)
thick lead
121.

This type of decay releases high-energy photons emitted by a radioisotope:

a)

positron decay

b)

alpha decay

c)

gamma decay

d)

beta decay

122.

What element is often used in nuclear reactions as the fuel?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Uranium

c)

Oxygen

d)

Mercury

123.
Which produces more energy--nuclear fission or nuclear fusion?
a)
Fusion
b)
Fission
c)
They produce the same amount
d)
It depends on the elements used
124.
What is a chain reaction?
a)

When hundreds of electrons are emitted causing a burst of intense electricity

b)

When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the protons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split

c)

When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the neutrons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split

d)

When a nuclear fusion reaction occurs, the electrons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split

125.

Inside a nuclear reactor, what object is able to absorb fast moving neutrons?

a)

generator

b)

moderator

c)

control rods

d)

sheilding

126.
Nuclear energy uses _____ to turn turbines to power a generator.
a)
wind
b)
water
c)
steam
d)
solar
127.

What is a huge advantage of nuclear energy?

a)

Large amounts of radioactive waste

b)

No CO2 air pollution

c)

It uses renewable Uranium fuel

d)

It is the safest way to make energy

128.

Where is the majority of nuclear waste stored?

a)

Buried deep under a landfill

b)

On-site at the nuclear power plant

c)

Under a large mountain in Montana

d)

Underwater vaults in the Pacific Ocean

129.

Which of the following is considered to be the worst nuclear disaster in history?

a)

Fukushima

b)

Three Mile Island

c)

Chernobyl

d)

Hiroshima

130.

Approximately how much of US energy is produced by nuclear power?

a)

40%

b)

55%

c)

10%

d)

Less than 2%

131.

Where does nuclear fusion occur naturally?

a)

Underwater

b)

On the gaseous planets

c)

In the radioactive waste

d)

In the Sun

132.

The was the site of the worst nuclear accident in the United States:

a)

Chernobyl

b)

Three Mile Island

c)

Fukushima

d)

Cuyahoga

133.

What was the original use of nuclear energy?

a)

Nuclear energy was originally used to make weapons for war

b)

Nuclear energy was originally planned to replace coal

c)

Nuclear energy was originally used to provide heat for a community

d)

Nuclear energy was originally used for electricity

134.

Which subatomic particle is required to start a nuclear fission chain reaction?

a)

Electron

b)

Proton

c)

Neutron

d)

Atom

135.

A major scientific concern over nuclear energy is how to--

a)

store the waste products safely

b)

reduce the high levels of carbon dioxide emitted into the air

c)

deal with the large amounts of fossil fuels required

d)

prevent the depletion of the ozone layer

136.

When a nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the atomic number of the element....

a)

remains the same

b)

decreases by one.

c)

increases by one.

d)

increases by two.

137.

What do these isotopes of carbon all have in common?


126C, 136C, 146C

a)

they all have the same number of neutrons & mass number

b)

they all have the same atomic number and neutrons

c)

they all have the same atomic number and electrons

d)

they all have the same number of protons, atomic number, and mass number

138.
Positively charged particles that consist of two protons and two neutrons are called
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
gamma rays
d)
neutron emissions
139.

What can you learn about an organism by measuring the amount of carbon-14 in its remains?

a)

How long ago it died.

b)

What its diet consisted of.

c)

Which biological kingdom it belonged to

d)

Which living animals it's most closely related to.

140.

Why can't Carbon-14 dating be used on dinosaur remains?

a)

The remains of living creatures cannot be accurately dated with carbon-14

b)

The carbon-14 isotope did not exist during the age of the dinosaurs.

c)

Dinosaurs were reptiles who had no carbon-14 in their systems.

d)

Carbon dating is only accurate to about 60,000 years ago

141.

Carbon Dating can only be used on:

a)

Non-living things

b)

Things that were once living

c)

Things that are over 10 million years old

d)

Things that are at least 1 million years old

142.

Which is a common isotope used in radioactive dating of organic matter?

a)

Carbon-14

b)

Uranium-235

c)

Carbon-12

d)

Iodine-43

143.

Which characteristic of Carbon-14 dating helps scientist determine the approximate time a species became extinct?

a)

Carbon-14 is not present in more recent fossils.

b)

Carbon-14 increases at a constant rate over time

c)

Carbon-14 decreases at a constant rate over time

d)

Carbon-14 is not present in fossils

144.

Isotopes of an element have the same Atomic Number, but different numbers of:

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Mass

145.

Isotopes that are "unstable" are considered to be:

a)

Charged

b)

Radioactive

c)

Extensive

d)

Proactive

146.

The isotopes of the atoms having an atomic number of _____ or higher are all Radioactive.

a)

62

b)

50

c)

80

d)

84

147.

Another term for an unstable atom would be:

a)

Actinide

b)

Electronegativity

c)

Radioisotope

d)

Halogen

148.

Damage to which molecule in the body is of greatest concern when people are exposed to ionizing radiation?

a)

Proteins and DNA

b)

H20

c)

Fats

d)

Carbohydrates

149.
_______________ is the process by which unstable atoms emit radiation until they become stable.
a)

Combustion

b)

Chemical Reaction

c)

Radioactive Decay

d)

Isotopic shedding

150.

What type of radiation is released from a microwave?

a)

Ionizing Radiation

b)

Non Ionizing Radiation

c)

No Radiation is released

d)

Gamma Radiation

151.

What is the proper scientific name for radiation that can effect other atoms and damage cells?

a)

ionizing radiation

b)

toxic radiation

c)

non ionizing radiation

d)

radioisorade

152.

Which of the following types of radiation are Ionizing?

a)

Infrared

b)

Radio waves

c)

Microwaves

d)

Ultraviolet

e)

X-Rays

153.

Which of the following are symptoms of Acute Radiation Sickness?

a)

Nausea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Dizziness

d)

All of the these

154.

Which of the following would do the MOST bodily damage if inhaled or swallowed?

a)

Alpha particles

b)

Beta particles

c)

Delta particles

d)

Gamma rays

155.

Which of the following images correctly represents what nuclear waste actually looks like?

a)

b)

c)

d)

156.

Which of the following responses best describes how a "Nuclear Meltdown" occurs?

a)

When temperatures get too high in the summer, the sides of the reactor building begin to melt

b)

The burning of gas inside the plant become too hot for the pipes and the pipe metal begins to liquify

c)

The chain reaction of fission becomes uncontrolled and overheats the water in the reactor, which can melt the fuel rods

d)

The chain reaction of fusion becomes uncontrolled and the control rods begin building high pressures until the propane fuel ignites

157.

The disaster at the Chernobyl power plant occurred in the country of ​ (a)   in ​ (b)   of ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
Ukraine
April
1986
Russia
Estonia
1979
December
May
1996
158.

Which type of fuel is most commonly used in nuclear power plants?​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
U-235
U-238
Pu-235
Pu-244
U-239
159.

The Three Mile Island Disaster occurred in which US state?

a)

New York

b)

Pennsylvania

c)

Delaware

d)

Massachusetts

160.

What is one of the positive qualities of nuclear waste?

a)

It usually dissolves completely within 2 years

b)

It can be dumped into the ocean with no damage to the environment

c)

It is only dangerous to humans who are very young or very old

d)

It slowly becomes less dangerous over many years

161.
Balance the following equation:
146C --> 0-1e + ________
a)
145B
b)
146C
c)
147N
d)
42He
162.

What type of decay is shown in this equation?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma emission

163.

What particle completes this reaction?

a)
b)
c)
d)
164.
Solve this equation for alpha decay.
85209At = ___ + 24He
a)
83205Bi
b)
86209Rn
c)
81207Tl
d)
85208At
165.
Solve this equation for beta decay.
614C = ___ + -10e
a)
410Be
b)
714N
c)
210He
d)
613C
166.

What type of decay type is shown by this generic equation?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma emission

d)

fission

167.

What type of decay type is shown by this generic equation?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma emission

d)

fission

168.

What type of decay type is shown by this generic equation?

a)

alpha decay

b)

beta decay

c)

gamma emission

d)

fission

169.
What particle completes this reaction?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma particle
d)
neutron
170.
Solve this equation for beta decay.
6027Co = ___ + 0-1e
a)
5625Mn
b)
6028Ni
c)
5823V
d)
5927Co
171.
Solve this equation for alpha decay.
20985At = ___ + 42He
a)
20583Bi
b)
20986Rn
c)
20781Tl
d)
20885At
172.
What is the missing isotope that will balance the following nuclear equation?
94Be  +  11H →  _____  +  42He
a)
105B
b)
105Ne
c)
63Li
d)
63C
173.

What particle completes this reaction?

a)

42He

b)

0-1 e

c)

00Y

d)

178O

174.

What particle completes this reaction?

a)

42He

b)

0-1 e

c)

00γ

d)

178O

175.

What particle completes this reaction?

a)

42He

b)

0-1 e

c)

00Y

d)

178O

176.

What type of nuclear equation is this?

a)

fusion

b)

fission

c)

alpha decay

d)

beta decay

177.

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 20.0 minutes. What is the total amount of a 1.00-gram sample of this isotope remaining after 1.00 hour?

a)

0.500g

b)

0.333g

c)

0.250g

d)

0.125g

178.
What is the half-life of an isotope if after 20.0 days you have 4.0 grams remaining of a 64.0 grams sample?
a)
1.25 days
b)
5.0 days
c)
0.000305 days
d)
4.25 days
179.
Barium-122 has a half-life of 2 minutes. A fresh sample weighing 80 g was obtained. If it takes 10 minutes to set up an experiment using barium-122, how much barium-122 will be left when the experiment begins?
a)
0.25g
b)
2.5g
c)
25g
d)
80g
180.
Alpha particles have a _____ charge.
a)
+2
b)
0
c)
+1
d)
-1
181.
If we start off with element 24X50 after an alpha decay we get another element Y that looks like
a)
22Y50
b)
22Y46
c)
20Y48
d)
26Y54
182.
The half life of Thorium-234 is 24 days. What fraction of the element remains after 96 days
a)
1/2
b)
1/4
c)
1/8
d)
1/16
183.
During fission, some of the nuclear mass is converted into
a)
energy
b)
heavier nuclei
c)
critical mass
d)
protons
184.
The technetium-99 isotope has a half-life of 6.0 hours. If 100.0 mg were injected into a patient how much remains after 18 hours?
a)
33.0 mg
b)
12.5 mg
c)
.33 mg
d)
15.8 mg
185.
What is a chain reaction?
a)
When electrons are emitted causing electricity
b)
When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the protons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split
c)
When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the neutrons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split
d)
When a nuclear fission reaction occurs, the electrons emitted can strike other nuclei in the sample, and cause them to split
186.

Gamma rays have

a)

no mass

b)

a huge mass

c)

a small mass

d)

an average mass

187.

During beta-particle emission, a neutron splits into a____________________.

a)

proton and electron

b)

neutron and electron

c)

neutron and proton

188.
Has the highest penetrating power.  Can penetrate our body.  Even several cm thick of lead or several meters thick of concrete cannot stop all of it.
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
189.

Has the lowest penetrating power.  Can only penetrate 0.05 mm into the body and can be stopped by the skin.

a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
d)

Electron capture

190.
Uranium-238  decays into  Thorium-234  by emitting .........
a)
an alpha particle
b)
a beta particle
c)
gamma rays
d)
visible light
191.
Radioactive materials have unstable...
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
nuclei
d)
neutrons
192.
In a correctly written symbol what would be located in the "A" position?
a)
number of neutrons
b)
atomic number
c)
number of electrons 
d)
mass number
193.
What is the half-life of iodine-131?
a)
32 days
b)
8 days
c)
16 days
d)
24 days
194.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 2 Half Lives.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

195.
What is Half-life?
a)
The amount of time it takes for some of the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
b)
The amount of time it takes for half the electrons in a sample of the isotope to decay
c)
The amount of time it takes for half the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
d)
the amount of time it takes to double the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay