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NYSSLS 8R Final Exam Review Quizizz

Total questions: 147

Worksheet time: 2hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

To avoid dangerous fumes the student should _______the odor toward his nose.

a)

blow

b)

waft

c)

raft

d)

stir

2.
a)

No food in the lab

b)

Open flame

c)

Dispose of wrappers properly

d)

Be careful to avoid explosions

3.

Before starting an investigation or lab procedure, you should

a)

try an experiment on your own

b)

open all containers and packages

c)

read all directions and make sure you understand them

d)

handle all the equipment to become familiar with it

4.
Evidence is ___________________
a)
A statement or conclusion that answers a question
b)
Scientific data that supports the claim
c)
A justification that connects the claim to the evidence
d)
Not vital when using an argument
5.

"Rhinos have horns"

Is this a claim, evidence or reasoning?

a)

Claim

b)

Evidence

c)

Reasoning

6.

"Material A is a better conductor of heat. It gained heat faster than Material B. Good conductors of heat gains heat quickly."


Which of these statement is an Evidence?

a)

Material A is a better conductor of heat.

b)

It gained heat faster than Material B.

c)

Good conductors of heat gains heat quickly.

7.

Which of the following is a claim from the image?

a)

The American woman won first place at the Olympics

b)

The ribbon around the medal is purple

c)

They are wearing tight ponytails

8.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
9.
Things that stay the same throughout the whole experiment are called
a)
controls
b)
dependent variables
c)
independent variables
d)
constants
10.

Which variable can you CHANGE or manipulate?

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Constant Variable

11.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
12.

Which box has a higher density?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

They are the same

13.
In the picture, the mass of the block is 200 g, the dimensions of the block are 6 cm by 4 cm by 5 cm.  What is its density?
a)
1.67g/cm3
b)
13.33 g/cm3
c)
0.60 g/cm3
d)
 24000 g/cm3
14.

If you doubled the amount of an object or cut it in half, the density of that object would

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

d)

none of the above

15.

All matter and space that exists is called the

a)

galaxy

b)

planetary system

c)

universe

16.

Planets orbit around a star (like the Sun), because of gravity is called

a)

galaxy

b)

planetary sytem

c)

universe

17.

What is the name of the scientific theory that explains how the universe was created?

a)

The Balloon Theory

b)

The Big Bang Theory

c)

The Small Bang Theory

18.

An object that orbits a planet is called a

a)

moon

b)

sun

c)

planet

19.

What do all inner planets have in common?

a)

rocky

b)

made of gasses

c)

no moons

20.
Galaxies are classified according to their _____________
a)
size
b)
temperature
c)
shape
d)
planets
21.
Which of the following can be located between the planet Mars and the planet Jupiter?
a)
meteor shower
b)
asteroid belt
c)
comet
d)
meteorite
22.

Which is the correct order of celestial objects from largest to smallest mass/volume?

a)

star, nebula, universe, galaxy

b)

star, nebula, galaxy, universe

c)

universe, nebula, galaxy, star

d)

universe, galaxy, nebula, star

23.

What is the name of our galaxy?

a)

The solar system

b)

Andromeda

c)

Sun

d)

Milky Way

24.

Which puts objects in order from largest to smallest?

a)

universe, galaxy, nebula, star, planet

b)

universe, nebula, galaxy, planet, star

c)

universe, nebula, planet, star, galaxy

25.
The weight of an object _________ as it moves away from the center of Earth.
a)
increases
b)
stays the same
c)
triples
d)
decreases
26.
A new planet has been recently discovered!  It is small, rocky and only has one moon.  What type of planet would it be classified as?
a)
Terrestrial 
b)
Gas Giant
27.

asteroid

a)

a gaseous object that orbits the Sun

b)

a small rocky or metallic object that revolves around the sun

c)

an object with a gaseous tail that orbits the Sun

d)

small chunks of other space material that orbit planets

28.

What is this space tool?

a)

Hubble Telescope

b)

Bubble Telescope

c)

Radio telescope

d)

ISS (International Space Station)

29.

What type of weather might you notice near a LOW PRESSURE area?

a)

Precipitation

b)

Sunny skies

c)

Dry air masses

30.

Which factor might most affect weather on a small island in the ocean?

a)

Isobars

b)

Ocean surface currents

c)

Plants on the island

31.

True or False:

As air sinks, it gains moisture and forms rain clouds.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Look at the point labeled A on the weather map. What kind of weather can you expect in this area?

a)

Sunny and calm winds

b)

Sunny and very windy

c)

Rainy and windy

d)

Cold, snow, and calm

33.

Isobars on a weather map show areas of EQUAL pressure. If the Isobars are close together, what does it tell you about the weather in that area on a map?

a)

It is sunny and calm

b)

It is humid and windy

c)

It is windy

d)

It is raining

34.

Meteorologists use many tools and instruments to study the weather. Which of the following is NOT used to help forecast weather?

a)

Barometers

b)

Anemometers

c)

Thermometers

d)

Telescopes

35.

What information, or data, on a weather map can be used to predict weather with 100% accuracy?

a)

Isobar pressure lines

b)

Direction of the warm and cold fronts

c)

Location of the high and low pressure systems

d)

Weather prediction is never 100% accurate

36.

If I am located in the center of a continent, what type of climate can I expect to have?

a)

Warmer

b)

More constant temperatures/precipitation

c)

Hot summer and cold winters

d)

Colder temperatures than areas that surround

37.

What type of climate can I expect to have if I live right along a coast?

a)

More constant temperature and precipitation year-round

b)

Hot summers and cold winters

c)

Warmer than normal areas

d)

Colder than surrounding areas

38.

What type of climate would you expect areas along the equator to have?

a)

Hot summers, cold winters

b)

Consistent temperatures and precipitation year-round

c)

Warmer temperatures because of it's latitude

d)

Colder than surrounding areas

39.

What type of climate would an area on top of a mountain have?

a)

Colder temperatures than areas it surrounds.

b)

Warmer temperatures than areas it surrounds.

c)

Hot summers, cold winters

d)

Consistent temperatures year-round

40.
Which instrument shows the direction that wind is coming from?
a)
Doppler Radar
b)
Weather Satelite
c)
Wind Vane
d)
Hygrometer
41.
What instrument is this?
a)
Anemomter
b)
Barometer
c)
Hygrometer
d)
Wind Vane
42.

The temperature and humidity in an air mass stays about -

a)

different

b)

the same

c)

100* C

43.

What drives the water cycle?

a)

rain

b)

temperature

c)

the Sun

d)

rotation

44.

water vapor given off by plants

a)

runoff

b)

transpiration

c)

evaporation

d)

condensation

45.

When water turns from liquid form to a gas

a)

evaporation

b)

precipitation

c)

condensation

d)

transpiration

46.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
47.
Winds are caused by differences in 
a)
precipitation
b)
humidity
c)
air pressure
d)
turbulance
48.
Winds are caused by differences in 
a)
precipitation
b)
humidity
c)
air pressure
d)
turbulance
49.
In which direction do prevailing westerlies flow?
a)
from east to west
b)
from west to east
c)
from north to south
d)
from south to north
50.

A Sea Breeze occurs during the

a)

night.

b)

day.

c)

night and day.

d)

alien encounter.

51.

What is a hurricane?

a)

warm, moist air rising rapidly, condensing, and forming a big storm cloud

b)

clouds begin swirling, gaining speed, and increases in power

c)

cold, dry air encounters warm moist air over the ocean

d)

a lot of clouds in one area starts spinning and forming the 'eye'

52.

How does a tornado form?

a)

A levee or a dam failure, A sudden release of water from an ice jam, A few minutes or hours of heavy rain.

b)

Tornadoes form when a thunderstorm meets horizontal winds at a high altitude. These winds cause the warm air rising in the thunderstorm to spin.

c)

Tornadoes form when air cools and rises, water vapor condenses, heat is released and allows tornadoes to grow.

d)

Tornadoes begin as a group of thunderstorms turn into violent low-pressure storms near the equator.

53.

What is one example of how a blizzard can be dangerous

a)

roads can be slippery and icy

b)

It can get really hot

c)

There are no dangers

54.

Match the following words to the correct tool

a)

1.

Wind Vane

b)

2.

Thermometer

c)

3.

Anemometer

d)

4.

Barometer

e)

5.

Sling Psychrometer

55.

What type of wave is illustrated by the diagram? What type of wave is illustrated by the diagram?

a)

Torsional

b)

Longitudinal

c)

Elliptical

d)

Transverse

56.

The type of wave represented by a Slinky is a

a)

longitudinal wave

b)

light wave

c)

transverse wave

d)

water wave

57.

Which distance represents the wavelength of the wave?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

58.

The diagram below shows straight wave fronts passing through an opening in a barrier. This wave phenomenon is called,

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

polairzation

d)

diffraction

59.

Which diagram best represents the phenomenon of refraction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

Which diagram best represents the phenomenon of reflection?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.

Which diagram best represents the phenomenon of diffraction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

Which type of energy is transferred by vibrational waves?

a)

nuclear

b)

chemical

c)

light

d)

sound

63.

As you watch a 4thof July fireworks display, why do you hear the noise a few seconds later after you see the color display?

a)

The sound originated a few seconds after the light.

b)

The sound traveled farther than the light.

c)

The sound traveled more slowly than the light.

d)

The sound reflected from a different location.

64.

The two waves are traveling at the same speed. Which statement best describes the difference between the waves?

a)

Wave A has a higher frequency than wave B.

b)

Wave A has a lower frequency than wave B.

c)

Wave A has a higher amplitude than wave B.

d)

Wave A has a lower amplitude than wave B.

65.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
66.

When light waves move from passing through air to passing through a glass lens when happens to them?

a)

They slow down and change direction

b)

They speed up and change direction

c)

They maintain the same speed and change direction

d)

They maintain their same speed and direction

67.

The string of 1s and 0s that control a computer is called _______ code.

a)

binary

b)

dichotomous

c)

Morse

d)

two-number

68.

Which type(s) of signal(s) can be easily corrected to remove noise?

a)

analog

b)

digital

c)

both

d)

neither

69.

Label the parts of the wave.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Trough

d)

Crest

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
70.

Which EM waves have the shortest wavelength?

a)

radio

b)

x-rays

c)

ultraviolet

d)

gamma rays

71.

What happens to frequency when wavelength decreases?

a)

stays the same

b)

decreases

c)

increases

d)

There is no relationship between wavelength & frequency.

72.

Energy stored because of gravity is called:

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Mechanical Advantage

d)

Chemical Energy

73.

At which point does the ball has the greatest gravitational potential energy (GPE)?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

D

d)

C

e)

G

74.

What two factors affect an object's potential energy?

a)

area and volume

b)

area and height

c)

mass and height

d)

mass and velocity

75.

Which of the following can be concluded from the graph?

a)

When speed increases, kinetic energy decreases.

b)

Kinetic energy does NOT depend upon speed.

c)

Speed has a small effect on the amount of kinetic energy.

d)

Speed has a large effect on kinetic energy.

76.

The image below shows four soccer balls at different locations on an uneven soccer field. Which ball has the greatest amount of KINETIC energy?

a)

Ball A

b)

Ball B

c)

Ball C

d)

Ball D

77.

Which of the boxes in the image are at thermal equilibrium? Choose all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Which of the boxes shows the correct direction of heat transfer? Choose all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

79.

Cold things often have a _________ kinetic energy because_______

a)

lower; particles are moving around less

b)

lower; particles are moving around more

c)

higher; particles are moving around the same

d)

higher; particles do not move

80.

​If the one bulb burned out, what would happen to the other bulb?

a)

stay lit

b)

not light up

c)

brighter

d)

dimmer

81.

Is the image shown a series or a parallel circuit?

a)

series

b)

parallel

82.

What type of circuit is shown in the image?

a)

series

b)

parallel

83.

What will happen to the 2 magnets if they are released?

a)

attract

b)

repel

84.

Are the lights on in this circuit?

a)

yes, the lights are on

b)

no, the lights are off

85.

In the bottom of the picture, what explains why the balloons are repelling each other?

a)

opposites attract

b)

like charges in the balloon are repelling each other

c)

the helium has negative charges

86.

What is a complete closed path that electrical currents travel?

a)

circuit

b)

switch

c)

resistance

d)

battery

87.

Which electromagnet can lift more paperclips?

a)

example W

b)

example x

88.
____________ stops the flow of electricity.
a)
A conductor
b)
An insulator
c)
A magnet
89.
Identify the conductor below.
a)
cloth rag
b)
plastic bottle
c)
gold ring
90.
Can energy be destroyed?
a)
no
b)
yes
91.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
92.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states that energy cannot be ________ or ________, but it can change from one form to another.

a)

created, destroyed

b)

gravity, force

c)

heat, created

93.

Broken pieces of rock often transported by wind or water is known as

a)

weathering

b)

sediments

c)

magma

d)

fossils

94.

When melted rock is on the surface of the Earth it is known as __________.

a)

sediments

b)

fossils

c)

magma

d)

lava

95.

___________ rocks form from particles of other rocks cemented together.


a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

96.

The group of rocks that will most likely contain fossils are the _______________ rocks.

a)

sedimentary

b)

igneous

c)

metamorphic

97.

The picture shows a model of the rock cycle.


During which part of the rock cycle does water

break rocks apart?

a)

Part 1

b)

Part 2

c)

Part 3

d)

Part 4

98.

Shale is a sedimentary rock that can be metamorphosed into slate by

a)

cementation

b)

sedimentation

c)

chemical weathering

d)

increased pressure

99.

The picture shows a rock.

The rock’s glassy texture indicates that it is an

a)

igneous rock

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

metamorphic rock

d)

none of the above

100.

Which feature is characteristic of sedimentary rocks?

a)

layering of sediments

b)

glassy texture

c)

large crystals

d)

gas pockets

101.

The diagram shows some of the layers of rocks found in the Grand Canyon.


Scientists find these layers of rock useful for studying

fossils.


What type of rock is shown labeled in

these layers?

a)

extrusive

b)

metamorphic

c)

igneous

d)

sedimentary

102.

Which two processes formed this rock?


**Use your keywords and/or Rock Cycle Chart!

a)

melting and cooling

b)

heat and pressure

c)

compacting and cementing

d)

weathering and melting

103.

The diagram below represents the fossils found in a rock formation found in central Rhode Island.


In which type of rock were the fossils most likely found?

a)

sedimentary rock that formed in an ocean environment

b)

sedimentary rock that formed in a land environment

c)

igneous rock that formed in an ocean environment

d)

igneous rock that formed in a land environment

104.

Wavy bands of light and dark minerals visible in gneiss probably formed from the

a)

cementing together of individual minerals grains

b)

cooling and crystallizing of magma

c)

evaporation of an ancient ocean

d)

heat and pressure during metamorphism

105.

If rocks come into close contact with magma underground, but not actually in the magma, they would form a(n)

a)

igneous rock

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

metamorphic rock

d)

organic rock

106.

Metamorphic rocks formed by contact metamorphism will most likely be found


contact metamorphism = underground, near magma, but not directly touching it.

a)

in mountains

b)

underground by magma

c)

at the beach

d)

by a volcano

107.
Two ways to describe types of igneous rocks are _____
a)
Extrusive and Intrusive
b)
Foliated and Non-Foliated
c)
Clastic and Biochemical
d)
Black and Gray
108.
The three groups of rocks are classified by
a)
How they form
b)
Color
c)
Grain size
d)
Chemical Composition
109.
Extreme Heat and Pressure creates a _________ rock.
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Mineral
110.

This rock is usually made up of pieces of rock called sediments that have been pressed and cemented together.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

111.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
112.

Which of the following lists the steps an igneous rock undergoes in order to become a sedimentary rock, in the correct order?

a)

Deposition, erosion, melting, cooling

b)

Erosion, weathering, eruption, cooling

c)

Dissolving, deposition, cooling, fracture

d)

Weathering, erosion, deposition, cementation

113.
Has wavy bands.
a)
sedimentary rock
b)
metamorphic rock
c)
extrusive igneous rock
d)
intrusive igneous rock
114.

Rocks are a part of the Earth's

a)

Atmosphere (The Sky)

b)

Biosphere (Living things)

c)

Hydrosphere (Water)

d)

Lithosphere (Crust)

115.
Which of the following best describes what these machines are doing?
a)
Converting wind into energy
b)
Converting wind to drill oil
c)
Converting pollution in the air to clean air
116.

I can cut down on pollution by_____

a)

Walking to the store

b)

Driving to the store

c)

Throwing everything away

d)

Using styrofoam cups

117.

What is one way you and your family can help to conserve water at home?

a)

watering the garden at the hottest time of the day

b)

using the longest cycle to wash clothes

c)

turning off the faucet while brushing your teeth

d)

letting the water run while washing dishes

118.
Which one BEST describes a nonrenewable resource?

    
a)
It is one that will run out one day and can’t be replaced.
b)
It will last for about 100 years.
c)
  It can be replaced again and again.
d)
It will never run out.
119.
Which way can people best reduce land pollution caused by large amounts of waste dumped in landfills?  
a)
They can use a water filter to use fewer water bottles.
b)
They can recycle their plastic, glass, paper, and cardboard items and only throw away non-recyclable items.
c)
They can watch less television, reducing electricity use and allowing their electronics to last much longer.
d)
They can refill large plastic containers, like those used for laundry detergent, instead of throwing them away.
120.
What is a renewable resource?
 
 
  
a)
 one that can be replaced quickly 
b)
one that is man-made
c)
one that comes from the sun 
d)
one that will never run out 
121.
Both renewable and non-renewable resources give us what? 
a)
Energy
b)
Pollution
c)
Heat
d)
Both Heat and Energy
122.
Which renewable resource gets its direct energy from the sun? 
a)
Geothermal
b)
Solar
c)
Wind
d)
Hydrogen
123.
Fossil fuels are Renewable resources. True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
124.

A renewable source of energy is____________

a)

coal

b)

natural gas

c)

solar

d)

oil

125.

Which Era occurred last (most recent)?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

126.

How old do Paleontologists believe the Earth is?

a)

2019 years old

b)

3.6 billion years old

c)

4.6 billion years old

d)

4.6 million years old

127.

a model scientists use to describe the timing of events and the relationships between those events in earth’s history.

a)

geologic time scale

b)

era

c)

period

d)

epoch

128.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
129.
An archaeologist made the following diagram of a dig site. What can be said about the pottery as compared to the skull found in the site?
a)
The rock layer with the pottery is more recent than the rock layer with the skull.
b)
The rock layer with the skull is more recent than the rock layer with the pottery.
c)
The rock layer with the skull is approximately the same age as the rock layer with the pottery.
d)
The rock layer with the skull has an absolute date of 17,000 years.
130.

Using Relative Age, place the labels in the correct location.

a)

Oldest

b)

Youngest

c)

Old

d)

Young

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
131.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move away from each other?
a)
transform
b)
subduction
c)
convergent
d)
divergent
132.
What causes tectonic plates to move along the Earth's surface?
a)
wind
b)
ocean currents
c)
convection in the mantle
d)
expansion of the Earth
133.
Which type of crust is more dense?
a)
oceanic
b)
continental
c)
divergent
d)
pizza
134.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates move toward each other?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
d)
lateral
135.
What forms at a convergent boundary between a continental plate and an oceanic plate?
a)
volcanoes
b)
rift valleys
c)
faults
d)
mid-ocean ridges
136.
A rift valley occurs at a ____________ boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
horizontal
137.
What type of boundary occurs when two plates slide past each other?
a)
divergent
b)
transform
c)
lateral
d)
convergent
138.
A fault forms at a _________ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
divergent
c)
horizontal
d)
convergent
139.

an ancient super made of the landmasses we know as our present day continents

a)
Atlantis
b)
Laurasia
c)
Pangaea
d)
Gondwana
140.

A theory explaining how the tectonic plates (or lithosphere plates) on earth's surface move

a)
Volcanic Eruptions
b)
Plate Tectonics
c)
Earthquakes
d)
Continental Drift
141.

a hypothesis that new molten material is erupting from mid ocean ridge.

a)

mid ocean ridge

b)

sea floor spreading

c)
Partially true
d)
Unknown
142.

A valley in the ocean created when one lithosphere plate subducts under another

a)
Canyon
b)
Ridge
c)
Mountain
d)

Deep-ocean Trench

143.

Alfred Wegener thought which 2 continents looked like puzzle pieces that could fit together?

a)

Antarctica and Asia

b)

South America and Africa

c)

South America and Australia

d)

Africa and Pangaea

144.

What evidence from landforms supports the idea that the continents were once joined and then drifted apart? Choose all that apply

a)

Continents fit together like a puzzle

b)

Land bridges formed

c)

Mountain ranges from different continents line up when the continents are put together

d)

There is one continent

145.

According to the continental drift hypothesis, the presence of tropical coal beds in non-tropical and arctic areas supports which scientific idea?

a)

Despite glaciers still being present at the poles, the whole Earth must have been warmer.

b)

Dinosaurs set up a 4,000 mile long green house in order to increase the growing and harvest season of tropical swamp plants.

c)

Tropical plants could also grow in snow and glaciers.

d)

Those non-tropical areas must have been located in a tropical location in the past.

146.

What force is responsible for moving the continents?

a)

Convection currents in the mantle.

b)

Earths centripetal force.

c)

Tides.

d)

Gravitational pull from the moon.

147.
What was the reason why the dinosaurs disappeared after the asteroid impact?
a)
Because of the lack of sunlight
b)
Due to the enormous energy released after the impact
c)
As a result of the collapse of the food chain
d)
All the above were responsible

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